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ACAAI Review 3rd Edition > Ch 2. Cells Involved in Immune Response > Flashcards

Ch 2. Cells Involved in Immune Response Flashcards

1
Q

NKT cells have what type of TCR?

A

V alpha 24/J alpha 18, V beta 11

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2
Q

Tfh subtype are induced by what cytokine?

A

IL-21

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3
Q

IL-21 is important for?

A

Tfh differentiation, production of antibody in germinal centers

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4
Q

CD marker for IL-2Ra

A

CD25

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5
Q

Transcription factors for Th1 differentiation?

A

T-bet, STAT 4

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6
Q

Transcription factors for Th2 differentiation?

A

GATA-3, STAT 6

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7
Q

Transcription factors for Th17 differentiation?

A

RORyT, STAT 3

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8
Q

Transcription factors for Tfh differentiation?

A

Bcl-6 (upregulates CXCR5, down regulates CCR7)

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9
Q

Transcription factors for Treg differentiation?

A

FoxP3, STAT 5

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10
Q

Th1 differentiation induced by?

A

IL-12

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11
Q

Th2 differentiation induced by?

A

IL-4

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12
Q

Th17 differentiation induced by?

A

IL-17

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13
Q

Th9 differentiation induced by?

A

TGF-B

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14
Q

Treg differentiation induced by?

A

TGF-B

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15
Q

Th1 produce what major cytokine?

A

IFN-y

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16
Q

Th2 produce what major cytokine?

A

IL-4, -5, -13

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17
Q

Th17 produce what major cytokine?

A

IL-17

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18
Q

Th9 produce what major cytokine?

A

IL-9

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19
Q

Tfh produce what major cytokine?

A

IL-21

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20
Q

Treg produce what major cytokine?

A

IL-10, TGF-B

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21
Q

Difference between nTreg and iTreg

A

nTreg are thymus derived and express FoxP3, CD4, CD25. iTreg are peripheral derived, no FoxP3

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22
Q

cytokine for NK development

A

IL-15

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23
Q

cytokine needed for proliferation of T cell progenitors

A

IL-7

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24
Q

CD marker for common gamma chain

A

CD 132

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25
CCR 7 binds?
CCL 19, 21 (high conc in T cell parafollicular zone)
26
CXCR 5 binds?
CXCL 13 (high conc in B cell follicle)
27
Pro-B cell surface markers
CD 43, 19, 20
28
Pre-B cell surface markers
CD 43, 19, 20; pre-BCR (u heavy chain and surrogate light chain)
29
Immature naive B cell markers
CD 19, 20, IgM
30
Mature naive B Cell markers
CD 19, 20, IgM, IgD
31
double negative T cells in development express what markers?
CD3, preTCR (B-chain, pre-T alpha chain)
32
Double positive T cells express?
CD3, CD4, CD8, TCRab
33
Bim binds bax & bak and activates which caspase?
caspase 9
34
FasL (CD178) and Fas (CD95) binds and activates which caspase?
caspase 8
35
both caspase 8 and 9 converge on which caspase for apoptosis?
caspase 3
36
monocytes and macrophages express what CD marker?
CD14, a component of TLR4 and LPS receptor (note: CD33 on macrophages)
37
major cytokines secreted by macrophages
TNF-a, IL-1, IL-6, IL-12
38
mutation in XLP?
SH2D1A gene mutation (encodes SAP)
39
EBV infection in XLP can lead to?
HLH
40
marker for Langerhans cells
CD11c, Birbeck granules, CD1a and CD207
41
unlike other dendritic cells, pDCs express?
CD123 and NO CD11c!
42
FcER1 is expressed primarily on what cells?
mast cells and basophils
43
what is the function of PGE2
bronchodilation, suppress mast cells and eos, blocks 5-LO activation
44
function of LTC4, LTD4, LTE4
increase vasc permeability, bronchoconstriction, mucus secretion
45
location of MCt
respiratory, GI mucosa
46
location of MCtc
respiratory/GI submucosa, skin, eye, synovium, blood vessels
47
Which MC type has C5aR and responds to C5a, C3a, opiates and vancomycin and has a whorled appearance?
MCtc
48
composition of high affinity IgE receptor on mast cells and basophils?
one alpha, one beta, two gamma chains
49
How is the high affinity IgE receptor different on dendritic cells, monocytes, and eosinophils?
no beta chain (one alpha, two gamma chains)
50
CD marker for low affinity IgE receptor?
CD23
51
which allergen cleaves CD23 (low affinity IgE receptor?)
Der p 1
52
What percent reduction is needed in specific IgE for clinical efficacy of Xolair?
96%
53
What autoAb can be found in CIU?
IgG against alpha chain of high affinity receptor
54
What chain of the high affinity IgE receptor binds IgE?
alpha chain
55
Which cytokine is important for basophil expansion/differentiation
IL-3 (binds CD123 the IL-3 receptor)
56
eosinophils migrate to tissue in response to?
RANTES (CCL5), eotaxin 1, -2 (CCL11, CCL24)
57
Eosinophil levels are suppressed by?
fever, steroids
58
primary cause of eosinophilia in U.S.? worldwide?
drugs; parasites
59
mediators that attract neutrophils to tissue?
IL-8 (CXCL8), LTB4
60
antibodies to what antigen in HIT?
PF4 (platelet antigen)
61
antibodies to what antigen in ITP?
GPIIb/IIIa
62
antibodies to what antigen in TTP?
ADAMTS13
63
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
eczema, thrombocytopenia, infections
64
target antigen and immunoflourescense for pemphigus vulgaris
desmoglein 3, intercellular IgG,IgM
65
target antigen and immunoflourescense for bullous pemphigoid
BP230 (BPAg1), BP180 (BPAg2), linear IgG at BMZ
66
target antigen for dermatitis herpetiformis
transglutaminase, granular IgA in dermis
67
target antigen for linear IgA dermatosis
BP180 (BPAg2), linear IgA at BMZ
68
what mediators released from epithelial cells are important in Th2 polarization?
TSLP, IL-33
69
E-selectin and P-selection on endothelium bind to?
Sialyl-Lewis X on leukocytes
70
L-selectin on leukocytes bind to?
Sialyl-Lewis X on GlyCAM-1/MadCAM-1 on HEV
71
ICAM on endothelium bind to?
LFA-1 (CD11aCD18 integrin) on leukocytes
72
VCAM on endothelium bind to?
VLA-4 integrin
73
MadCAM-1 on gut endothelium bind to?
a4b7 integrin

ACAAI Review 3rd Edition (9 decks)

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