Ch: 2, 6, 10, 11, 14, & App. 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Severe and sudden onset

A

Acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gradual onset or ongoing condition

A

Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Commission on accreditation of allied health education programs; the national accreditation granting body for sonography education

A

CAAHEP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A fluid-filled structure; presents no echoes; black on ultrasound

A

Anechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Produces many echoes; very bright on ultrasound image

A

Echogenic/ hyperechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Structure with both fluid and solid components; therefore, it presents a mixed echogenicity

A

Complex structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The principal that health care workers have a duty to take reasonable steps to keep personal medical information confidential consistent with the person’s medical preferences

A

HIPAA

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Differing in composition; “patchy” with inconsistent echogenicity

A

Heterogeneous

Ex) liver with multiple masses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Uniform in composition; “smooth” with consistent echogenicity

A

Homogeneous

Ex) healthy liver, healthy/ normal spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Same echogenicity (used as a comparative term)

A

Isoechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The amount of sound beam passing through a structure - seen posterior to fluid-filled structures

A

Through transmission

Ex) cysts, bladder, blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The process of gaining permission before a medical procedure is conducted

A

Informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The narrowing of an artery

A

Arterial stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Stocked with necessities needed to resuscitate a patient experiencing cardiac arrest

A

Crash cart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Written order by physician directing healthcare workers not to perform lifesaving measures

A

DNR

DO NOT RESUSCITATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Difficulty swallowing

A

Dysphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Painful or difficulty urinating

A

Dysuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Blood clot/ thrombus located within a pulmonary artery - often results in deep vein thrombosis

A

Pulmonary embolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fainting

A

Syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Common cause of fainting brought in by involuntary stimulation of nerve, resulting in decreased blood flow to the brain

A

Vasovagal reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Drop in maternal blood pressure secondary to the fetus compressing the maternal ivc

A

Supine hypotensive syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How can hypotensive syndrome be relieved?

A

Place the patient right lateral decubitus or left lateral decubitus to relieve the pressure on the ivc and aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the patient preparation for a transvaginal sonogram?

A

No patient preparation needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What term relates to increased vascularity in an organ or structure?

A

Hyperemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the surgical connection btw two structures?

A

Anastomosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The formation of a blood clot is termed ___.

A

Thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the name for areas located outside of the uterus posterior to the broad ligaments?

A

Adnexas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the medical term for twisting?

A

Torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Why should you do if you observe a crack in a transducer before a sonographic exam?

A

Tell someone in charge immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the term for abnormal lymph nodes?

A

Lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the first measurement of the embryo called in the first trimester?

A

Crown-rump length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The splitting of one vessel into two vessels is termed a(n) ____.

A

Bifurcation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a valuable trait to have as a sonography student?

A

Assertiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Believing in yourself and your abilities is

A

Self confidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Term defined as to achieve for the sake of achieving

A

Motivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Having the ability to recognize the emotions of self and others and the capacity to use those emotions in the decision-making process

A

Emotional intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is not a reason why one should identify his or her personality type?

A

To make appropriate personality changes based on circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Defined as the pleasure one gains from being able to help others

A

Compassion satisfaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The form of reasoning by which one makes an educated guess based on facts

A

Inductive reasoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

An educated guess based on clinical history findings

A

Clinical hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The strength of mind that allows someone to face difficult circumstances

A

Fortitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Without echoes

A

Anechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Having few echoes

A

Hypoechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Work-related condition in which one experiences physical and emotional exhaustion

A

Burnout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the correct sequence of the sonographic reasoning process?

A
Clinical history
Clinical hypothesis
Investigative imaging
Sonographic findings
Clinical correlation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is not provided on sonographer report?

A

At least three differential diagnoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is one thing that would be least likely to disrupt your work relationship with a sonographer?

A

Being chronically early

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the least helpful technique for acquiring extra scan time?

A

Being erratic with protocol images needed for examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Means same echogenicity

A

Isoechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A set of values based on hard work and diligence

A

Work ethic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is not considered one of the first-rate standards in sonography?

A

Playing by your own rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Process we use to make choices based on our moral principles and personal values

A

Ethical decision making

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Accepted rules of conduct

A

Moral principles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Ethical theory may also be referred to as consequentialism?

A

Teleological theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Application of our moral principles with others in the medical profession, including our coworkers, patients, and community

A

Medical ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Medical ethics principle that relates to honesty in all aspects of life

A

Principle of veracity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Group held beliefs that are agreed upon by individuals or groups of individuals

A

Norms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Medical with is principle that relates to never making promises that you cannot keep

A

Principle of fidelity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When a patient refuses to have a sonographic procedure, you should

A

Not perform the procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Medical ethics principle that relates to treating all patients equally, no matter what economic, physical, or mental condition

A

Principle of justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

If a pregnant patient asked you if she should have an abortion, you should

A

Tell her to seek professional medical guidance concerning abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Regarding keepsake sonography, the American institute of ultrasound in medicine states that

A

The procedure is inappropriate if it is not medically indicated and ordered by a physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Actions aimed at increasing the welfare of others

A

Altruism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Not a principle of professionalism according to board of internal medicine

Altruism
Duty
Humanism
Atheism

A

Atheism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The everyday practice of good manners and being agreeable within the exercise of one’s occupation

A

Professional etiquette

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is not appropriate professional etiquette?

A

Referring to patient by their first name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Demanding your very best

A

Excellence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Who makes final decisions about a patient’s care?

A

The patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

“Do to others what you would have them do to you”

A

The golden rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which is an appropriate topic to discuss at work?

Politics
Religion
Movies
Career aspirations

A

Movies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Most common way to obtain a pulse in an adult

A

Radial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Refers to rapid heart rate

A

Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A common nosocomial infection

A

UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

A urinary catheter should always be located

A

Below the patient’s bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Term for difficult breathing

A

Dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What would not typically result in increased respiration’s?

A

Hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The body’s ability to maintain internal equilibrium

A

Homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Typical oxygen therapy ranges between

A

1 and 15 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The normal range for adult respirations is

A

12-20 breaths a minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The normal blood pressure for an adult is

A

120/80 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What would typically not lead to decreased respiratory rate?

A

Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What would be least likely to affect blood pressure?

A

Drowsiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which is not a cause of bradycardia?

A

Exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Typical pulse rate for an adult

A

Btw 60 and 100 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which is not a means of monitoring pulse?

Sphygmomanometer
Arterial line
Electrocardiogram
Pulse oximeter

A

Sphygmomanometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the pulse site in the neck?

A

Carotid pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Term for abnormal rhythm of the pulse

A

Arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Normal average body temp

A

98.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is pulse obtained on the medial side of the ankle?

A

Posterior tibial pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is typically the first step for the sonographer in most emergency situations in the hospital system?

A

Alert the emergency response team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Also referred to as a mini stroke

A

Transient ischemic attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What type of shock results from the loss of blood or other bodily fluids?

A

Hypovolemic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Type of shock that results in peripheral vasodilation due to nervous system dysfunction

A

Neurogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Bluish discoloration of the skin

A

Cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What type of occurrence can result from a patient’s apprehension about an invasive procedure?

A

Vasovagal reaction

96
Q

What stage of shock continuum results in lactic acidosis?

A

Progressive

97
Q

What medical emergency consists of the heart abruptly stopping its function and the loss of consciousness?

A

Cardiac arrest

98
Q

Not considered a typical symptom of diabetes mellitus

A

Polymenorrhea

99
Q

Typical cause of pulmonary embolism?

A

Deep vein thrombosis

100
Q

You are performing sonogram on patient with history of epilepsy. Suddenly, the patient becomes rigid, her eyes stretch wide open, and she begins to jerk. What most likely is happening?

101
Q

An increased depth of breath

102
Q

Heart dysfunction as the result of pressure cause by fluid around the heart

A

Cardiac tamponade

103
Q

Low pressure caused by rapid change in position is referred to as

A

Orthostatic hypotension

104
Q

What type of shock is associated with an invasion of bacteria and the body’s subsequent reaction?

A

Septic shock

105
Q

What term is defined as profuse perspiration?

A

Diaphoresis

106
Q

What would cause an obstetric patient who is at 32 weeks’ gestation to experience syncope symptoms during an obstetric sonogram?

A

Supine hypotensive syndrome

107
Q

Which type of diabetes is diagnosed most often when patients are younger than 30 years old?

108
Q

What should the sonographer do in the case of a patient who has a DNR?

A

Follow protocol for DNR orders for your institution

109
Q

What type of shock is associated with an extreme allergic reaction?

A

Anaphylactic shock

110
Q

Enlargement of an organ or structure

A

Hypertrophy

111
Q

Test used to evaluate for peripheral artery disease that establishes a ratio of the blood pressure in the lower legs to the blood pressure in the arms

A

Ankle brachial index

112
Q

What is the patient preparation for a transvaginal exam?

A

No prep required

113
Q

In the first trimester of pregnancy, the fetal neck may be examined with sonography and a measurement obtained. What is the measurement called?

A

Nuchal translucency

114
Q

What contrast solution is typically used in sonohysterography?

115
Q

Increased vascularity in an organ or structure

116
Q

Surgical connection between two structures

A

Anastomosis

117
Q

The formation of a blood clot

A

Thrombosis

118
Q

Another word for perpendicular

A

Orthogonal

119
Q

What is the name for areas located outside of the uterus posterior to the broad ligaments?

120
Q

What evaluates tissue stiffness?

A

Elastography

121
Q

___ would most likely employ the valsalva technique.

A

Lower venous sonography

122
Q

Which quality assurance phantom would be most likely used to evaluate the transducers effectiveness at identifying liver masses?

A

Doppler phantom

123
Q

The FAST exam would most likely be used in what setting?

A

Emergency room

124
Q

Medical term for twisting

125
Q

What should you do if you observe a crack in a transducer before a sonographic examination?

A

Tell someone in charge immediately

126
Q

Abnormal lymph nod s

A

Lymphadenopathy

127
Q

What is the first measurement of the embryo called in the first trimester?

A

Crown-rump length

128
Q

The splitting of one vessel into two vessels

A

Bifurcation

129
Q

If you roll the ultrasound machine over the transducer wire and notice damage, what should you do?

A

Report damage immediately and do not use transducer

130
Q

Based upon findings, different possibilities of what it could be

A

Differential diagnoses

131
Q

Reason for exam

A

Indication

132
Q

Basic assessment of patient:

A

Alert
Confused
Drowsy
Unresponsiveness

133
Q

ACDU scale is

A

Basic assessment

134
Q

Types of shock:

A
Hypovolemic
Cardiogenic
Neurogenic
Septic
Anaphylactic
135
Q

Shock where there is bacteria in the body

136
Q

Shock where there is dysfunction of nervous system

A

Neurogenic shock

137
Q

Medicine injected into patient and lights up differently on ultrasound (makes things easier to see)

A

Contrast agent

*must be attentive as the patient may have an allergic reaction

138
Q

What is syncope?

A

Fainting/ loss of consciousness

139
Q

When a patient isn’t getting enough blood supply to the brain due to hunger, trauma, or emotional distress, they may experience ____

140
Q

Symptom of synecope

A
Palor (paleness)
Dizziness
Nausea
Hypernea (fast breathing)
Tachycardia (rapid heart rate)
141
Q

When a patient is experiencing supine hypotensive syndrome, you should ___

A

Turn them over on LEFT side

142
Q

What is SIMS position?

A

Left side, right knee up

143
Q

Blood clot that has traveled and now obstructs blood flow to the lungs

A

Pulmonary embolism (PE)

144
Q

Deep vein thrombosis may lead to ___

A

Pulmonary embolism

145
Q

Cerebrovascular accident is

A

A stroke (CVA)

146
Q

Mini stroke that can be an indicator of an imminent, more severe stroke

A

Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

147
Q

If a patient may have experienced a stroke, you should think ____ and ask yourself ___

A
-FAST
Face
Arm
Speech
Time

-does face look uneven? One arm hanging down? Slurred speech?

148
Q

Name 3 symptoms of diabetes

A

Polyuria- extreme urination
Polydipsia- extreme thirst
Polyphagia- extreme hunger

149
Q

Diabetes where the pt is insulin dependent and diagnosed before age 30

A

Type 1 diabetes

150
Q

Diabetes where symptoms are gradual onset and diagnosed over the age of 40

A

Type 2 diabetes

151
Q

Diabetes that forms while woman is pregnant

A

Gestational diabetes

Type 3

152
Q

Hypoglycemia is

A

Low blood sugar

153
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis is

A

body poisoned from acid

154
Q

If exam requires fasting, pt should be scheduled __

A

Early to prevent diabetic emergency

155
Q

Tests machines, transducers, image quality (every year someone does this)

A

Quality assurance

156
Q

ALARA stands for

A

As low as reasonably achievable

-minimal exposure of US to patient especially in 1st trimester OB (less exposure to baby)

157
Q

3 lobes of liver

A

Right (largest)
Caudate (smallest)
Left

158
Q

Painful gallbladder when pressure applied in the area

A

Positive Murphy Sign

* significant pain, not just a little discomfort

159
Q

What scan plane should you be in to view a long pancreas?

A

Transverse

160
Q

Enlarged lymph nodes

A

Adenopathy

161
Q

When scanning the spleen, you should compare its echo texture to the

A

Left kidney

-and check for fluid collections, masses, and pleural effusion in left diaphragm

162
Q

When viewing Howe, you should check for

A

Wall thickening, dilation, hypertrophy (enlargement of organ), and masses

163
Q

Elastography is used to

A

Check stiffness and density of mass

164
Q

Trans abdominal/transvesical

A

Urinary bladder

165
Q

Adnex is

A

Lateral side of uterus (lateral portion of pelvic area)

166
Q

Vital signs are a

A

Measure of body function

167
Q

When checking for vital signs, you should check

A
Temp
Pulse
Respiration 
Blood pressure 
Pulse oximetry (Amt of oxygen in blood)
168
Q

Number of heart beats per minute

169
Q

Interval btw beats

170
Q

Any variation of normal heart rhythm

A

Arrhythmia

171
Q

Abnormally rapid pulse rates

A

Tachycardia

>100 bpm

172
Q

Bpm stands for

A

Beats per minute

173
Q

Abnormally slow pulse rates

A

Bradycardia

<60 bpm

174
Q

A normal heart rate can range between

A

60-100 bpm

-bpm is higher for infants and children

175
Q

Pulse is usually found at the

A

Radial artery

176
Q

Normal adult breathing is __-__ breaths/minute

177
Q

Number of respirations per minute

178
Q

Regular rate of breathing

179
Q

Amount of air taken in with each respiration

180
Q

How to count respirations?

A
  • don’t tell patient your counting
  • take pulse 30 sec and x2
  • then for next 30 secs, watch ride and fall of chest and x2
  • any irregularities, count for full minute
181
Q

Dyspnea

A

Difficult breathing

182
Q

Apnea

A

Without breathing

183
Q

Hyperventilation

A

Rapid breathing

184
Q

Respiratory arrest

A

Not breathing

185
Q

Pallor

A

Pale/white

186
Q

Pressure extorted on arterial walls by heart

A

Blood pressure

187
Q

Systole is when

A

The heart contracts

188
Q

Diastole is when

A

Heart relaxes and refills

189
Q

Sphygmomanometer is

A

Blood pressure cuff

190
Q

Optimal adult blood pressure is

A

120 (systolic) / 80 (diastolic)

191
Q

Hypertension

A

High blood pressure

-causes damage to inner lining of arteries

192
Q

Hypotension

A

Low blood pressure

  • less than 80/50
  • low blood volume (hemorrhage can cause bp to drop)
193
Q

Steps of getting blood pressure

A
  • Place cuff on upper portion of arm
  • arm must be at level of heart
  • place over brachial artery
  • must be firmly placed and tight on arm
194
Q

After the pressure of released on BP cuff, the first sound you hear is ___ and then you hear ____

A

Thumping which is systolic and then change in sound is diastolic

195
Q

% of oxygen measured in arterial blood

A

Pulse oximetry

Normal range is 95-100%

196
Q

Hypoxia is

A

Lack of oxygen

197
Q

A Foley catheter ____ and you want to make sure the bag stays ___

A

Drains urine

Low

198
Q

IV poles keep the patient ___ and keep the bag ___.

A

Hydrated

High

199
Q

With an IV, the pt should keep arm ___ and IV should be kept ___

A

Straight

Above the point of needle insertion

200
Q

Tube that feeds the patient , drains fluid, and treat obstructions

A

Nasogastric tube (NG tube)

201
Q

___ is considered a drug and should be ordered by a physician

202
Q

Venturi mask

A

Hard plastic mask that administers oxygen

203
Q

Tubing inserted into nostril

A

Nasal catheter

-Oxygen therapy

204
Q

Most common oxygen therapy that is placed in nose

A

Nasal cannula

205
Q

You should look at LPM (liters per minute) before ___ and plug into ___

A

Unplugging oxygen from wall

Portable at the same #

206
Q

Look at ___ to see how much pt has been prescribed before unhooking oxygen.

207
Q

Opening in colon

208
Q

Opening in ileum

209
Q

If you are scanning near a colostomy or ileostomy, you should ____

A

Use sterile gel and a transducer cover

210
Q

Always ask nurse’s approval to remove ____ before you scan.

A

Wound dressings

211
Q

JCAHO is

A

Patient safety/ surgery facilities

*accredits hospitals

212
Q

As a student, you should never do a ____ alone.

213
Q

Ambulatory means

A

Patient can walk by themself/ able to walk

214
Q

HIPAA stands for

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

215
Q

Increased blood flow to an organ or area

216
Q

How to you prove a CBD?

A

Add color to the duct

  • Less than 6mm
  • add 1mm per decade of life (90 yr old= 9mm CBD)
217
Q

The stomach is ___ to pancreas

218
Q

Diaphragm is ___ to spleen

219
Q

In SAG, you see ___ to ___ and ___ to ___.

A

Anterior to posterior

Superior to inferior

220
Q

In TRANS view you see ___ to ___ and ___ to ___.

A

Anterior to posterior

Right to left

221
Q

Thoracic fluid = ___ which needs a ___ procedure

A

Pleural effusion

Thoracentesis

222
Q

Abdominal fluid= ___ and needs a ___ procedure.

A

Ascites

Paracentesis

223
Q

Area for fluid build up the right kidney and liver

A

Morrison’s pouch

224
Q

Narrowing for veins

225
Q

Bulging of a vessel

226
Q

What steps are taken with abnormal images/pathology?

A

Measured in 2 planes
B mode in 2 planes
Color

227
Q

BI-RAD is

A

Breast Imaging Recording and Database System

Scoring system that goes from 0-6

0=best case scenario (def not cancer)
6=worst case scenario (confirmed cancer)

228
Q

Elastography is typically used with ___ and ___ exams

A

Liver and breast

229
Q

No blood flow in testicles due to twisted vessels

A

Testicular torsion

230
Q

Normal lymph node should measure

A

1cm or less

Normal- hypoechoic outer edge and hyperechoic inner

Abnormal- completely hypoechoic

231
Q

The bladder is ___ to the uterus.

232
Q

Full bladder is necessary for trans abdominal exam bc ____

A

A full bladder can push bowel out of the way, acts as an acoustic window (giving clearer image) and full bladder pushes uterus down to bring uterus into full view

233
Q

Muscular layer of uterus

A

Myometrium

234
Q

Inner tissue of uterus that sheds each month

A

Endometrium

235
Q

Pt prep for transvaginal exam

A

Bladder needs to be EMPTY

236
Q

Pt prep for trans abdominal exam

A

Bladder needs to be FULL