Ch: 2, 6, 10, 11, 14, & App. 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Severe and sudden onset

A

Acute

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2
Q

Gradual onset or ongoing condition

A

Chronic

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3
Q

Commission on accreditation of allied health education programs; the national accreditation granting body for sonography education

A

CAAHEP

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4
Q

A fluid-filled structure; presents no echoes; black on ultrasound

A

Anechoic

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5
Q

Produces many echoes; very bright on ultrasound image

A

Echogenic/ hyperechoic

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6
Q

Structure with both fluid and solid components; therefore, it presents a mixed echogenicity

A

Complex structure

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7
Q

The principal that health care workers have a duty to take reasonable steps to keep personal medical information confidential consistent with the person’s medical preferences

A

HIPAA

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

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8
Q

Differing in composition; “patchy” with inconsistent echogenicity

A

Heterogeneous

Ex) liver with multiple masses

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9
Q

Uniform in composition; “smooth” with consistent echogenicity

A

Homogeneous

Ex) healthy liver, healthy/ normal spleen

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10
Q

Same echogenicity (used as a comparative term)

A

Isoechoic

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11
Q

The amount of sound beam passing through a structure - seen posterior to fluid-filled structures

A

Through transmission

Ex) cysts, bladder, blood vessels

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12
Q

The process of gaining permission before a medical procedure is conducted

A

Informed consent

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13
Q

The narrowing of an artery

A

Arterial stenosis

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14
Q

Stocked with necessities needed to resuscitate a patient experiencing cardiac arrest

A

Crash cart

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15
Q

Written order by physician directing healthcare workers not to perform lifesaving measures

A

DNR

DO NOT RESUSCITATE

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16
Q

Difficulty swallowing

A

Dysphasia

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17
Q

Painful or difficulty urinating

A

Dysuria

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18
Q

Blood clot/ thrombus located within a pulmonary artery - often results in deep vein thrombosis

A

Pulmonary embolus

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19
Q

Fainting

A

Syncope

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20
Q

Common cause of fainting brought in by involuntary stimulation of nerve, resulting in decreased blood flow to the brain

A

Vasovagal reaction

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21
Q

Drop in maternal blood pressure secondary to the fetus compressing the maternal ivc

A

Supine hypotensive syndrome

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22
Q

How can hypotensive syndrome be relieved?

A

Place the patient right lateral decubitus or left lateral decubitus to relieve the pressure on the ivc and aorta

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23
Q

What is the patient preparation for a transvaginal sonogram?

A

No patient preparation needed

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24
Q

What term relates to increased vascularity in an organ or structure?

A

Hyperemia

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25
Q

What is the surgical connection btw two structures?

A

Anastomosis

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26
Q

The formation of a blood clot is termed ___.

A

Thrombosis

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27
Q

What is the name for areas located outside of the uterus posterior to the broad ligaments?

A

Adnexas

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28
Q

What is the medical term for twisting?

A

Torsion

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29
Q

Why should you do if you observe a crack in a transducer before a sonographic exam?

A

Tell someone in charge immediately

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30
Q

What is the term for abnormal lymph nodes?

A

Lymphadenopathy

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31
Q

What is the first measurement of the embryo called in the first trimester?

A

Crown-rump length

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32
Q

The splitting of one vessel into two vessels is termed a(n) ____.

A

Bifurcation

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33
Q

What is a valuable trait to have as a sonography student?

A

Assertiveness

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34
Q

Believing in yourself and your abilities is

A

Self confidence

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35
Q

Term defined as to achieve for the sake of achieving

A

Motivation

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36
Q

Having the ability to recognize the emotions of self and others and the capacity to use those emotions in the decision-making process

A

Emotional intelligence

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37
Q

What is not a reason why one should identify his or her personality type?

A

To make appropriate personality changes based on circumstances

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38
Q

Defined as the pleasure one gains from being able to help others

A

Compassion satisfaction

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39
Q

The form of reasoning by which one makes an educated guess based on facts

A

Inductive reasoning

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40
Q

An educated guess based on clinical history findings

A

Clinical hypothesis

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41
Q

The strength of mind that allows someone to face difficult circumstances

A

Fortitude

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42
Q

Without echoes

A

Anechoic

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43
Q

Having few echoes

A

Hypoechoic

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44
Q

Work-related condition in which one experiences physical and emotional exhaustion

A

Burnout

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45
Q

What is the correct sequence of the sonographic reasoning process?

A
Clinical history
Clinical hypothesis
Investigative imaging
Sonographic findings
Clinical correlation
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46
Q

What is not provided on sonographer report?

A

At least three differential diagnoses

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47
Q

What is one thing that would be least likely to disrupt your work relationship with a sonographer?

A

Being chronically early

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48
Q

What is the least helpful technique for acquiring extra scan time?

A

Being erratic with protocol images needed for examination

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49
Q

Means same echogenicity

A

Isoechoic

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50
Q

A set of values based on hard work and diligence

A

Work ethic

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51
Q

What is not considered one of the first-rate standards in sonography?

A

Playing by your own rules

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52
Q

Process we use to make choices based on our moral principles and personal values

A

Ethical decision making

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53
Q

Accepted rules of conduct

A

Moral principles

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54
Q

Ethical theory may also be referred to as consequentialism?

A

Teleological theory

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55
Q

Application of our moral principles with others in the medical profession, including our coworkers, patients, and community

A

Medical ethics

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56
Q

Medical ethics principle that relates to honesty in all aspects of life

A

Principle of veracity

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57
Q

Group held beliefs that are agreed upon by individuals or groups of individuals

A

Norms

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58
Q

Medical with is principle that relates to never making promises that you cannot keep

A

Principle of fidelity

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59
Q

When a patient refuses to have a sonographic procedure, you should

A

Not perform the procedure

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60
Q

Medical ethics principle that relates to treating all patients equally, no matter what economic, physical, or mental condition

A

Principle of justice

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61
Q

If a pregnant patient asked you if she should have an abortion, you should

A

Tell her to seek professional medical guidance concerning abortion

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62
Q

Regarding keepsake sonography, the American institute of ultrasound in medicine states that

A

The procedure is inappropriate if it is not medically indicated and ordered by a physician

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63
Q

Actions aimed at increasing the welfare of others

A

Altruism

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64
Q

Not a principle of professionalism according to board of internal medicine

Altruism
Duty
Humanism
Atheism

A

Atheism

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65
Q

The everyday practice of good manners and being agreeable within the exercise of one’s occupation

A

Professional etiquette

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66
Q

What is not appropriate professional etiquette?

A

Referring to patient by their first name

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67
Q

Demanding your very best

A

Excellence

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68
Q

Who makes final decisions about a patient’s care?

A

The patient

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69
Q

“Do to others what you would have them do to you”

A

The golden rule

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70
Q

Which is an appropriate topic to discuss at work?

Politics
Religion
Movies
Career aspirations

A

Movies

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71
Q

Most common way to obtain a pulse in an adult

A

Radial artery

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72
Q

Refers to rapid heart rate

A

Tachycardia

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73
Q

A common nosocomial infection

A

UTI

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74
Q

A urinary catheter should always be located

A

Below the patient’s bladder

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75
Q

Term for difficult breathing

A

Dyspnea

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76
Q

What would not typically result in increased respiration’s?

A

Hypothermia

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77
Q

The body’s ability to maintain internal equilibrium

A

Homeostasis

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78
Q

Typical oxygen therapy ranges between

A

1 and 15 LPM

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79
Q

The normal range for adult respirations is

A

12-20 breaths a minute

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80
Q

The normal blood pressure for an adult is

A

120/80 mm Hg

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81
Q

What would typically not lead to decreased respiratory rate?

A

Fever

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82
Q

What would be least likely to affect blood pressure?

A

Drowsiness

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83
Q

Which is not a cause of bradycardia?

A

Exercise

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84
Q

Typical pulse rate for an adult

A

Btw 60 and 100 bpm

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85
Q

Which is not a means of monitoring pulse?

Sphygmomanometer
Arterial line
Electrocardiogram
Pulse oximeter

A

Sphygmomanometer

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86
Q

What is the pulse site in the neck?

A

Carotid pulse

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87
Q

Term for abnormal rhythm of the pulse

A

Arrhythmia

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88
Q

Normal average body temp

A

98.6

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89
Q

What is pulse obtained on the medial side of the ankle?

A

Posterior tibial pulse

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90
Q

What is typically the first step for the sonographer in most emergency situations in the hospital system?

A

Alert the emergency response team

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91
Q

Also referred to as a mini stroke

A

Transient ischemic attack

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92
Q

What type of shock results from the loss of blood or other bodily fluids?

A

Hypovolemic shock

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93
Q

Type of shock that results in peripheral vasodilation due to nervous system dysfunction

A

Neurogenic shock

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94
Q

Bluish discoloration of the skin

A

Cyanosis

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95
Q

What type of occurrence can result from a patient’s apprehension about an invasive procedure?

A

Vasovagal reaction

96
Q

What stage of shock continuum results in lactic acidosis?

A

Progressive

97
Q

What medical emergency consists of the heart abruptly stopping its function and the loss of consciousness?

A

Cardiac arrest

98
Q

Not considered a typical symptom of diabetes mellitus

A

Polymenorrhea

99
Q

Typical cause of pulmonary embolism?

A

Deep vein thrombosis

100
Q

You are performing sonogram on patient with history of epilepsy. Suddenly, the patient becomes rigid, her eyes stretch wide open, and she begins to jerk. What most likely is happening?

A

Seizure

101
Q

An increased depth of breath

A

Hyperpnea

102
Q

Heart dysfunction as the result of pressure cause by fluid around the heart

A

Cardiac tamponade

103
Q

Low pressure caused by rapid change in position is referred to as

A

Orthostatic hypotension

104
Q

What type of shock is associated with an invasion of bacteria and the body’s subsequent reaction?

A

Septic shock

105
Q

What term is defined as profuse perspiration?

A

Diaphoresis

106
Q

What would cause an obstetric patient who is at 32 weeks’ gestation to experience syncope symptoms during an obstetric sonogram?

A

Supine hypotensive syndrome

107
Q

Which type of diabetes is diagnosed most often when patients are younger than 30 years old?

A

Type 1

108
Q

What should the sonographer do in the case of a patient who has a DNR?

A

Follow protocol for DNR orders for your institution

109
Q

What type of shock is associated with an extreme allergic reaction?

A

Anaphylactic shock

110
Q

Enlargement of an organ or structure

A

Hypertrophy

111
Q

Test used to evaluate for peripheral artery disease that establishes a ratio of the blood pressure in the lower legs to the blood pressure in the arms

A

Ankle brachial index

112
Q

What is the patient preparation for a transvaginal exam?

A

No prep required

113
Q

In the first trimester of pregnancy, the fetal neck may be examined with sonography and a measurement obtained. What is the measurement called?

A

Nuchal translucency

114
Q

What contrast solution is typically used in sonohysterography?

A

Saline

115
Q

Increased vascularity in an organ or structure

A

Hyperemia

116
Q

Surgical connection between two structures

A

Anastomosis

117
Q

The formation of a blood clot

A

Thrombosis

118
Q

Another word for perpendicular

A

Orthogonal

119
Q

What is the name for areas located outside of the uterus posterior to the broad ligaments?

A

Adnexas

120
Q

What evaluates tissue stiffness?

A

Elastography

121
Q

___ would most likely employ the valsalva technique.

A

Lower venous sonography

122
Q

Which quality assurance phantom would be most likely used to evaluate the transducers effectiveness at identifying liver masses?

A

Doppler phantom

123
Q

The FAST exam would most likely be used in what setting?

A

Emergency room

124
Q

Medical term for twisting

A

Torsion

125
Q

What should you do if you observe a crack in a transducer before a sonographic examination?

A

Tell someone in charge immediately

126
Q

Abnormal lymph nod s

A

Lymphadenopathy

127
Q

What is the first measurement of the embryo called in the first trimester?

A

Crown-rump length

128
Q

The splitting of one vessel into two vessels

A

Bifurcation

129
Q

If you roll the ultrasound machine over the transducer wire and notice damage, what should you do?

A

Report damage immediately and do not use transducer

130
Q

Based upon findings, different possibilities of what it could be

A

Differential diagnoses

131
Q

Reason for exam

A

Indication

132
Q

Basic assessment of patient:

A

Alert
Confused
Drowsy
Unresponsiveness

133
Q

ACDU scale is

A

Basic assessment

134
Q

Types of shock:

A
Hypovolemic
Cardiogenic
Neurogenic
Septic
Anaphylactic
135
Q

Shock where there is bacteria in the body

A

Septic

136
Q

Shock where there is dysfunction of nervous system

A

Neurogenic shock

137
Q

Medicine injected into patient and lights up differently on ultrasound (makes things easier to see)

A

Contrast agent

*must be attentive as the patient may have an allergic reaction

138
Q

What is syncope?

A

Fainting/ loss of consciousness

139
Q

When a patient isn’t getting enough blood supply to the brain due to hunger, trauma, or emotional distress, they may experience ____

A

Synecope

140
Q

Symptom of synecope

A
Palor (paleness)
Dizziness
Nausea
Hypernea (fast breathing)
Tachycardia (rapid heart rate)
141
Q

When a patient is experiencing supine hypotensive syndrome, you should ___

A

Turn them over on LEFT side

142
Q

What is SIMS position?

A

Left side, right knee up

143
Q

Blood clot that has traveled and now obstructs blood flow to the lungs

A

Pulmonary embolism (PE)

144
Q

Deep vein thrombosis may lead to ___

A

Pulmonary embolism

145
Q

Cerebrovascular accident is

A

A stroke (CVA)

146
Q

Mini stroke that can be an indicator of an imminent, more severe stroke

A

Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

147
Q

If a patient may have experienced a stroke, you should think ____ and ask yourself ___

A
-FAST
Face
Arm
Speech
Time

-does face look uneven? One arm hanging down? Slurred speech?

148
Q

Name 3 symptoms of diabetes

A

Polyuria- extreme urination
Polydipsia- extreme thirst
Polyphagia- extreme hunger

149
Q

Diabetes where the pt is insulin dependent and diagnosed before age 30

A

Type 1 diabetes

150
Q

Diabetes where symptoms are gradual onset and diagnosed over the age of 40

A

Type 2 diabetes

151
Q

Diabetes that forms while woman is pregnant

A

Gestational diabetes

Type 3

152
Q

Hypoglycemia is

A

Low blood sugar

153
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis is

A

body poisoned from acid

154
Q

If exam requires fasting, pt should be scheduled __

A

Early to prevent diabetic emergency

155
Q

Tests machines, transducers, image quality (every year someone does this)

A

Quality assurance

156
Q

ALARA stands for

A

As low as reasonably achievable

-minimal exposure of US to patient especially in 1st trimester OB (less exposure to baby)

157
Q

3 lobes of liver

A

Right (largest)
Caudate (smallest)
Left

158
Q

Painful gallbladder when pressure applied in the area

A

Positive Murphy Sign

* significant pain, not just a little discomfort

159
Q

What scan plane should you be in to view a long pancreas?

A

Transverse

160
Q

Enlarged lymph nodes

A

Adenopathy

161
Q

When scanning the spleen, you should compare its echo texture to the

A

Left kidney

-and check for fluid collections, masses, and pleural effusion in left diaphragm

162
Q

When viewing Howe, you should check for

A

Wall thickening, dilation, hypertrophy (enlargement of organ), and masses

163
Q

Elastography is used to

A

Check stiffness and density of mass

164
Q

Trans abdominal/transvesical

A

Urinary bladder

165
Q

Adnex is

A

Lateral side of uterus (lateral portion of pelvic area)

166
Q

Vital signs are a

A

Measure of body function

167
Q

When checking for vital signs, you should check

A
Temp
Pulse
Respiration 
Blood pressure 
Pulse oximetry (Amt of oxygen in blood)
168
Q

Number of heart beats per minute

A

Pulse

169
Q

Interval btw beats

A

Rhythm

170
Q

Any variation of normal heart rhythm

A

Arrhythmia

171
Q

Abnormally rapid pulse rates

A

Tachycardia

>100 bpm

172
Q

Bpm stands for

A

Beats per minute

173
Q

Abnormally slow pulse rates

A

Bradycardia

<60 bpm

174
Q

A normal heart rate can range between

A

60-100 bpm

-bpm is higher for infants and children

175
Q

Pulse is usually found at the

A

Radial artery

176
Q

Normal adult breathing is __-__ breaths/minute

A

16-20

177
Q

Number of respirations per minute

A

Rate

178
Q

Regular rate of breathing

A

Rhythm

179
Q

Amount of air taken in with each respiration

A

Depth

180
Q

How to count respirations?

A
  • don’t tell patient your counting
  • take pulse 30 sec and x2
  • then for next 30 secs, watch ride and fall of chest and x2
  • any irregularities, count for full minute
181
Q

Dyspnea

A

Difficult breathing

182
Q

Apnea

A

Without breathing

183
Q

Hyperventilation

A

Rapid breathing

184
Q

Respiratory arrest

A

Not breathing

185
Q

Pallor

A

Pale/white

186
Q

Pressure extorted on arterial walls by heart

A

Blood pressure

187
Q

Systole is when

A

The heart contracts

188
Q

Diastole is when

A

Heart relaxes and refills

189
Q

Sphygmomanometer is

A

Blood pressure cuff

190
Q

Optimal adult blood pressure is

A

120 (systolic) / 80 (diastolic)

191
Q

Hypertension

A

High blood pressure

-causes damage to inner lining of arteries

192
Q

Hypotension

A

Low blood pressure

  • less than 80/50
  • low blood volume (hemorrhage can cause bp to drop)
193
Q

Steps of getting blood pressure

A
  • Place cuff on upper portion of arm
  • arm must be at level of heart
  • place over brachial artery
  • must be firmly placed and tight on arm
194
Q

After the pressure of released on BP cuff, the first sound you hear is ___ and then you hear ____

A

Thumping which is systolic and then change in sound is diastolic

195
Q

% of oxygen measured in arterial blood

A

Pulse oximetry

Normal range is 95-100%

196
Q

Hypoxia is

A

Lack of oxygen

197
Q

A Foley catheter ____ and you want to make sure the bag stays ___

A

Drains urine

Low

198
Q

IV poles keep the patient ___ and keep the bag ___.

A

Hydrated

High

199
Q

With an IV, the pt should keep arm ___ and IV should be kept ___

A

Straight

Above the point of needle insertion

200
Q

Tube that feeds the patient , drains fluid, and treat obstructions

A

Nasogastric tube (NG tube)

201
Q

___ is considered a drug and should be ordered by a physician

A

Oxygen

202
Q

Venturi mask

A

Hard plastic mask that administers oxygen

203
Q

Tubing inserted into nostril

A

Nasal catheter

-Oxygen therapy

204
Q

Most common oxygen therapy that is placed in nose

A

Nasal cannula

205
Q

You should look at LPM (liters per minute) before ___ and plug into ___

A

Unplugging oxygen from wall

Portable at the same #

206
Q

Look at ___ to see how much pt has been prescribed before unhooking oxygen.

A

LPM

207
Q

Opening in colon

A

Colostomy

208
Q

Opening in ileum

A

Ileostomy

209
Q

If you are scanning near a colostomy or ileostomy, you should ____

A

Use sterile gel and a transducer cover

210
Q

Always ask nurse’s approval to remove ____ before you scan.

A

Wound dressings

211
Q

JCAHO is

A

Patient safety/ surgery facilities

*accredits hospitals

212
Q

As a student, you should never do a ____ alone.

A

Portable

213
Q

Ambulatory means

A

Patient can walk by themself/ able to walk

214
Q

HIPAA stands for

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

215
Q

Increased blood flow to an organ or area

A

Hyperemia

216
Q

How to you prove a CBD?

A

Add color to the duct

  • Less than 6mm
  • add 1mm per decade of life (90 yr old= 9mm CBD)
217
Q

The stomach is ___ to pancreas

A

Anterior

218
Q

Diaphragm is ___ to spleen

A

Anterior

219
Q

In SAG, you see ___ to ___ and ___ to ___.

A

Anterior to posterior

Superior to inferior

220
Q

In TRANS view you see ___ to ___ and ___ to ___.

A

Anterior to posterior

Right to left

221
Q

Thoracic fluid = ___ which needs a ___ procedure

A

Pleural effusion

Thoracentesis

222
Q

Abdominal fluid= ___ and needs a ___ procedure.

A

Ascites

Paracentesis

223
Q

Area for fluid build up the right kidney and liver

A

Morrison’s pouch

224
Q

Narrowing for veins

A

Stenosis

225
Q

Bulging of a vessel

A

Aneurysm

226
Q

What steps are taken with abnormal images/pathology?

A

Measured in 2 planes
B mode in 2 planes
Color

227
Q

BI-RAD is

A

Breast Imaging Recording and Database System

Scoring system that goes from 0-6

0=best case scenario (def not cancer)
6=worst case scenario (confirmed cancer)

228
Q

Elastography is typically used with ___ and ___ exams

A

Liver and breast

229
Q

No blood flow in testicles due to twisted vessels

A

Testicular torsion

230
Q

Normal lymph node should measure

A

1cm or less

Normal- hypoechoic outer edge and hyperechoic inner

Abnormal- completely hypoechoic

231
Q

The bladder is ___ to the uterus.

A

Anterior

232
Q

Full bladder is necessary for trans abdominal exam bc ____

A

A full bladder can push bowel out of the way, acts as an acoustic window (giving clearer image) and full bladder pushes uterus down to bring uterus into full view

233
Q

Muscular layer of uterus

A

Myometrium

234
Q

Inner tissue of uterus that sheds each month

A

Endometrium

235
Q

Pt prep for transvaginal exam

A

Bladder needs to be EMPTY

236
Q

Pt prep for trans abdominal exam

A

Bladder needs to be FULL