Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ITE '23 > Ch. 18 Renal/GU > Flashcards

Ch. 18 Renal/GU Flashcards

1
Q

Proteinuria + RBC casts +hematuria = ______

A

Glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Proteinuria + fatty casts or oval bodies = _____

A

nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

proteinuria + WBCs, WBC casts without bacteria = _____

A

interstitial nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

proteinuria + hyaline casts = _____

A

benign causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is nephrotic syndrome diagnosed?

A

clinical and lab findings:
1. peripheral edema and/or ascites
2. proteinuria: 3+ or 4+ on dipstick, or 3.5g protein per 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How should nephrotic syndromes be treated?

A

fluid restriction
IV diuretics
BP control with ACE inhibitors
Corticosteroids may reverse or delay disease progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a complication of nephrotic syndrome?

A

increased risk of thrombosis – DVTs and renal vein thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some things that can cause pseudohematuria?

A
  1. foods: beets, berries, rhubarb
  2. meds: rifampin, phenazopyridine, nitrofurantoin
  3. Porphyrias (heme precursors enter urine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hematuria + hearing loss… diagnosis?

A

Alport syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

hematuria + recent URI.. what two things should be on your differential?

A

Glomerulonephritis
IgA nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

hematuria + petechiae/purpura +/- schistocytes on smear
In a child?
In an adult?

A

in a child, think HUS
in an adult, think TTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hematuria in a developing country, what should you consider?

A

Schistosomiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What serum BUN/Cr ratio suggests prerenal source of AKI?

A

> 20:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What serum BUN/Cr ratio suggests post-renal source of AKI?

A

> 20:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What serum BUN/Cr ratio suggests acute tubular necrosis as cause for AKI?

A

<20:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do you see on urinalysis in prerenal AKI?

A

normal or hyaline casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In what type of AKI would you see granular (muddy brown) casts on UA?

A

acute tubular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In what type of AKI would you see dysmorphic RBCs, RBC casts, and proteinuria on UA?

A

intrinsic AKI: renal acute glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In what type of AKI would you see WBC, WBC casts, eosinophils on UA?

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is FENa calculated?

A

(urine sodium X plasma Cr) / (plasma sodium X urine Cr) x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What types of medicines may contribute to prerenal AKI?

A

NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are 4 causes of intrinsic AKI?

A
  1. GN
  2. AIN
  3. ATN
  4. Vascular disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What diseases fall under GN?

A
  1. poststrep GN
  2. lupus
  3. Goodpasture
  4. systemic vasculitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is GN diagnosed?

A

hematuria, dysmorphic RBCs, proteinuria (may or may not be nephrotic range), and RBC casts
Renal biopsy is definitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the treatment for GN?

A

supportive care, control BP

steroids/immunosuppressives to treat an underlying disease; but not for poststrep GN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What medications cause AIN?

A

penicillins, diuretics, anticoagulants, NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are symptoms of AIN?

A

vary – 35% have fever, 30% arthralgias, 20% rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is AIN diagnosed?

A

elevated BUN/Cr
presence of eosinophils, WBCs, and WBC casts on UA
Renal biopsy is definitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the treatment for AIN?

A

supportive care
discontinue offending agents
Steroids only if no improvement after 3-7 days – no indication in ED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the most common etiology of hospital-acquired AKI?

A

Acute Tubular Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some nephrotoxic agents that can cause acute tubular necrosis?

A

aminoglycosides (Gentamycin, tobramicin)
radiocontrast agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of AKI does rhabdo cause?

A

ATN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How is ATN diagnosed?

A

loss of urinary concentrating ability.
Urinalysis: Granular (muddy brown) casts and renal tubular casts.
or presence of rhabdo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the treatment for ATN?

A

Treat underlying precipitating cause or discontinue offending age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What conditions may put you at higher risk of ATN?

A

diabetes
pre-existing renal insufficiency

that will be receiving contrast agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In those with DM or renal insufficiency, what could you pretreat with to prevent ATN?

A

N-acetylcysteine
and/or sodium bicarbonate, and IV hydration with normal saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How is CKD defined?

A

permanent loss of renal function of > 3 months duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How is CKD staged?

A

based on the
estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How is ESRD defined?

A

End-stage renal disease (ESRD, or kidney failure) is the final endpoint where GFR is < 10% of normal,
& clinical sx of uremia will ensue without dialysis or transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are symptoms of uremia?

A

anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and decreased mental function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What do you call the deposition of urea from evaporated sweat; fine white powder on skin?

A

Uremic frost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is renal osteodystrophy?

A

Due to loss of vitamin D3 production and secondary hyperparathyroidism
■ Bone pain, muscle weakness, fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What dx should you consider in any ill-appearing patient with ESRD?

A

Cardiac Tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What do you call the D\deposition in the tunica media of small arteries leading
to thrombosis, ischemia, and necrosis of skin and soft tissues?

A

calciphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What type of anemia does ESRD typically cause and why?

A

Normocytic, normochromic
■ Due to decreased erythropoietin production and RBC survival time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Why are ESRD patients at higher risk of bleeding?

A

Multifactorial: Decreased platelet function, altered von Willebrand factor (vWF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is asterixis?

A

hand flapping
with dorsiflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is first line treatment for acute bleeding in ESRD patients?

A

DDAVP: First line, stimulates release of vWF from endothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is second line treatment for acute bleeding in ESRD patients?

A

Cryoprecipitate: Contains factors I (fibrinogen), II (fibronectin), VIII,
XIII, and vWF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the indications for dialysis?

A

A: Severe acid-base disturbance (metabolic acidosis)

E: Severe electrolyte disturbance (hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia)

I: Certain toxic ingestions (eg, lithium, alcohols, barbiturates, salicylates)

O: Volume overload (pulmonary edema, severe HTN)

U: Symptomatic uremia (pericarditis, twitching, nausea/vomiting, encephalopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What do you call cerebral edema due to rapid changes in body fluid composition and osmolality in setting of dialysis?

A

Dialysis Disequilibrium Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the treatment for Dialysis Disequilibrium Syndrome?

A

supportive;
no indication for mannitol or hypertonic saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the treatment for suspected infection of vascular access sites?

A

IV Vanc
+
Gentamycin or 3rd generation cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What bacteria is most commonly associated with vascular access infections?

A

staph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What 2 organisms most commonly cause peritoneal dialysis-related peritonitis?

A

staph and strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How is peritoneal dialysis-related peritonitis diagnosed?

A

PD fluid with > 100 WBC/mm3 with > 50% neutrophils or a positive Gram stain.
(This is a lower cutoff than the 250 neutrophils/mm3 for SBP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is Branham sign with regards to fistulas?

A

The drop in heart rate with occlusion of the dialysis access site
** indicates a high output
heart failure from excess flow
through the AV fistula.

The diagnosis can be confirmed with Doppler ultrasound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the treatment from PD peritonitis?

A

Intraperitoneal (IP) antibiotics (may give IV if IP not immediately available):
Vancomycin or third-generation cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the most common site of urolithiasis?

A

UV junction (ureterovesicular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

With what types of bacteria do you see struvite kidney stones?

A

Urea-splitting bacteria such as:
- pseudomonas
- klebsiella
- staphylococcus
- proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What type of stone typically makes up staghorn calculi?

A

struvite stones

62
Q

Struvite stones are typically present with what acidity of urine?

A

alkaline, pH >7.6

63
Q

Uric acid stones are typically present in what acidity of urine?

A

acidotic, pH <5.0

64
Q

When you are thinking of urolithiasis due to flank pain, what other diagnosis MUST be considered in patient >50 years old?

A

AAA

65
Q

What is first line treatment for urolithiasis?

A

Analgesia– NSAIDs are first line, then +/- opioids

66
Q

What are the 4 admission criteria for Urolithiasis?

A
  1. Obstruction with concomitant infection
  2. Intractable pain or vomiting
  3. Solitary kidney
  4. Acute Renal Insufficiency
67
Q

What makes a UTI complicated?

A
  • men
  • elderly
  • pregnant
  • serious medical condition
  • immunosuppression
  • recent hospitalization
  • treatment failure
  • structural abnormalities
  • pyelo
  • indwelling catheter
  • recent instrumentation
68
Q

Most common organism to cause UTIs?

A

E coli

69
Q

Second most common organism in UTIs?

A

Staph saprophyticus

70
Q

How is pyuria defined?

A

> 2-5 WBC/hpf

71
Q

When is a urine culture positive?

A

> 100 CFU/mL in males or symptomatic females
100,000 CFU/mL in asymptomatic patients

72
Q

What is the most common cause of dysuria or pyuria in sexually active young male?

A

urethritis or prostatitis

73
Q

What is first line treatment for acute uncomplicated cystitis?

A

Bactrim (TMP/SMX), Macrobid (Nitrofurantoin), second gen cephalosporin, or fluoroquinolone
for 3-5 days

74
Q

What is first line treatment for Acute uncomplicated
cystitis with comorbid
conditions?

A

Bactrim (TMP/SMX), Macrobid (Nitrofurantoin), or fluoroquinolone (Ciprofloxacin)
for 7 days

75
Q

What is first line outpatient treatment for Acute uncomplicated
pyelonephritis?

A
  1. Oral fluoroquinolone 7d or
  2. Bactrim (TMP/SMX) 14d
76
Q

What is first line INpatient treatment for Acute uncomplicated
pyelonephritis?

A

IV fluoroquinolone or
Ampicillin/Gentamycin
14 days

77
Q

What is first line treatment for outpatient treatment of complicated UTI?

A

14d Oral fluoroquinolone (Cipro) or trimethoprim/
sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)

78
Q

What is first line treatment for inpatient treatment of complicated UTI?

A

■ IV ampicillin/gentamycin or imipenem/cilastatin or fluoroquinolone

79
Q

What is the treatment for UTI in pregnancy?

A

second gen cehalosporin (cefpodoxime or cefuroxime)
or Nitrofurantoin
7d

80
Q

What is the treatment for pyelonephritis in pregnancy?

A

IV ceftriaxone
14d

81
Q

When should you consider perinephric abscess?

A

pyelonephritis not responsive to initial therapy

82
Q

What is emphysematous pyelonephritis? Who is at higher risk?

A

High-mortality necrotizing infection of renal
parenchyma,
primarily in diabetic females

83
Q

What is the treatment for emphysematous pyelonephritis?

A

often requires nephrectomy

84
Q

How is urethritis diagnosed?

A

nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) or culture

85
Q

What is the empiric treatment for urethritis?

A

Ceftriaxone or cefixime for GC, and doxycycline or azithromycin for chlamydia

86
Q

What is the most common organism implicated in acute bacterial prostatitis in patients <35 yrs old?

A

C trachomatis and/or
N gonorrhoeae

87
Q

What is the most common organism implicated in acute bacterial prostatitis in patients >35 yrs old?

A

Most often caused by gram-negative organisms, predominantly E coli

88
Q

What is the treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis in males <35 years old?

A

Ceftriaxone (IM × 1) or ofloxacin (× 10 days) and doxycycline
(× 10 days)

89
Q

What is the treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis in males >35 years old?

A

Fluoroquinolone (Ciprofloxacin) or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole for
2-4 weeks ***

90
Q

What is the treatment for CHRONIC bacterial prostatitis?

A

4 WEEKS of fluoroquinolone
OR
1-3 MONTHS of TMP/SMX (Bactrim)

91
Q

What do you call PAINFUL, sharply demarcated ulcer with undermined edges, often MULTIPLE, with suppurative INGUINAL NODES?

A

Chancroid

92
Q

What organism causes chancroids?

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

93
Q

What disease and organism causes PAINFUL grouped vesicles on red base, also form shallow ulcers?

A

Herpes / Herpes Simplex Virus

94
Q

What do you call penile lesion that is PAINLESS, indurated ulcer, heals spontaneously?

A

Syphilis
(no nodal involvement)

95
Q

What do you call penile lesion that initially presents transiently as a painless ulcer; followed bby unilateral (mostly) inguinal adenopathy which may suppurate?

A

Lymphogranuloma
venereum

96
Q

What organism causes Lymphogranuloma
venereum?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

97
Q

Describe the microbio of chlamydia

A

nonmotile gram negative coccoid bacteria that are obligate intracellular parasites

98
Q

Describe the microbio of gonorrhea

A

Gram negative diplococci aerobic

99
Q

What do you call the penile lesions (diagnosis?) described as Subcutaneous nodule(s), becomes beefy red, highly vascular ulcer(s)?

A

Granuloma inguinale
(donovanosis)

100
Q

What bacteria causes Granuloma inguinale
(donovanosis)?

A

Calymmatobacterium
granulomatis

101
Q

What is the treatment for chancroid?

A

Azithromycin or ceftriaxone or ciprofloxacin

102
Q

What is the treatment for herpes?

A

Acyclovir

103
Q

What is the treatment for syphilis?

A

Benzathine penicillin

104
Q

What is the treatment for Lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

Doxycycline

105
Q

What is the treatment for Granuloma inguinale?

A

Doxycycline or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

106
Q

How is syphilis diagnosed?

A

a combination of a nontreponemal test (VDRL or
rapid plasma reagin [RPR]) followed by confirmatory testing with a treponemal
test (TPHA or FTA-Abs).

107
Q

What causes epididymitis?

A

urinary reflux or obstruction

108
Q

What bacteria causes epididymitis in prepubertal boys?

A

gram negative bacteria

109
Q

What bacteria causes epididymitis in men <35 years?

A

gonorrhea and chlamydia

110
Q

What bacteria causes epididymitis in >/= 35 years?

A

e coli

111
Q

What do you call relief of pain with elevation of the scrotum?

A

Prehn sign

112
Q

How is epididymitis diagnosed?

A

Mostly clinical
50-90% will have pyuria
obtain urethral swab if <35, urine culture if >35
Ultrasound can show enlarged epididymis with increased vascularity

113
Q

What is the treatment for epididymitis in prepubertal boys?

A

Supportive care with analgesia, bed rest, elevation of scrotum
AND
Augmentin or Bactrim

114
Q

What is the treatment for epididymitis in men <35 yrs old?

A

Supportive care with analgesia, bed rest, elevation of scrotum
AND
Cetriaxone 500mg IM + Doxy 10d

115
Q

What is the treatment for epididymitis in men >35?

A

Supportive care with analgesia, bed rest, elevation of scrotum
AND
Fluoroquinolone (Levofloxacin 500 mg daily x10 d)

116
Q

What are contraindications to fluoroquinolones?

A

myasthenia gravis (worsens muscle weakness)
risk of AAA
causes QT prolongation
tendinopathy
hypo/hyperglycemia?

117
Q

What is the most common cause of orchitis?

A

secondary spread of bacterial epididymitis, but may be viral in nature (like in mumps)

118
Q

What is the treatment of orchitis?

A

if viral –> supportive
if bacterial –> treat as epididymitis

119
Q

What layer attaches the testicle to the scrotal wall and epididymis?

A

tunica vaginalis

120
Q

What deformity puts boys at higher risk for torsion?

A

bell-clapper deformity - the tunica vaginalis attaches higher up on the spermatic cord, leaving a redundant spermatic cord and a mobile testicle

121
Q

Is torsion most commonly due to venous or arterial occlusion?

A

venous
(but rarely arterial)

122
Q

What are classic exam findings of testicular torsion?

A

elevated or high-riding testicle with a transverse lie
loss of cremasteric reflex
tender, firm, swollen testicle
Prehn sign is usually NOT present

123
Q

What antibiotics should be initiated for Founiers?

A

Carbapenem or Zosyn
+
Vanc
+
Clindamycin

124
Q

How is balantitis defined?

A

inflammation of the glans penis

125
Q

How is balanoposthitis defined?

A

inflammation of the glans penis AND foreskin

126
Q

How is phimosis defined?

A

constriction of the foreskin, resulting in an inability to retract the prepuce over the glans
(phimos means muzzle in greek)

127
Q

How is paraphimosis defined?

A

when the proximal foreskin cannot be reduced distally
over the glans penis, resulting in distal vascular congestion and ischemia

128
Q

What is the treatment of balanitis and balanoposthitis?

A

usually due to candida
tx with topical antifungal for 1-3 weeks
if severe sx, add oral fluconazole 150mg x1 dose

129
Q

What is the treatment of phimosis?
pathologic when causes urinary or sexual dysfunction

A
  1. gentle stretching
  2. improved hygiene
  3. Topical steroids for 4-6 weeks
    +/- dorsal slit procedure
130
Q

What is the treatment of paraphimosis?

A
  1. analgesia
  2. manual reduction - firm circumferential pressure at glans for 5-10 min
  3. traction with forceps - constant stead pressure with forceps at 9 and 3 oclock positions
131
Q

How is priapism defined?

A

An erection lasting >4 hours

132
Q

Where does pooling occur in priapism?

A

corpora cavernosa

133
Q

WHat are some risk factors for priapism?

A

-sickle cell disease
-malignancy –leukemia, multiple myeloma
-substance abuse – cocaine, ecstasy
-meds – antihypertensives (hydralazine, CCBs, prazosin, psych meds (trazodone, chlorpromazine, risperidone), ED meds (sildenafil, tadalafil)

134
Q

What is the treatment for priapism?

A
  1. analgesia/ice packs
  2. aspiration of the corpus cavernosum – use butterfly needle to drain n5mL
  3. injection of 1mL of dilute phenylephrine (100-500ug/mL) q3-5m until resolution

(terbutaline SQ/PO and pseudoephedrine PO have been used with some success and may be tried while preparing for aspiration/injection)

  1. emergent urology consult if unsuccessful
135
Q

What is the treatment of nonischemic/high flow priapism (ie from saddle injury, painless & semierect)?

A

urology consultation for eval and possible surgical ligation of fistula

136
Q

Penile fractures are caused by rupture of the ______.

A

Tunica Albuginea

137
Q

How is penile fracture diagnosed?

A

primarily clinical
retrograde urethrogram to assess for urethral injury

138
Q

A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the tunica ______.

A

vaginalis

139
Q

Communicating hydroceles occur when the ________ fails to obliterate and leaves a potential space between the peritoneum and scrotum.

A

processus vaginalis

140
Q

Noncommunicating hydroceles result from an imbalance between the production and absorption of fluid by the _____.

A

tunica vaginalis

141
Q

What is the treatment for hydroceles?

A

supportive care
– if disabling –> Urology referral

142
Q

Varicocele is a collection of venous varicosities of the spermatic veins due to
incomplete drainage of the ______.

A

pampiniform plexus

143
Q

In adults with new varicocele, what should you suspect?

A

IVC compression; thrombosis if R sided, or obstruction of the L renal vein from Renal cell carcinoma if L sided

144
Q

What is the classic appearance of a varicocele?

A

“bag of worms”

145
Q

What classic sign is seen with transillumination of scrotal skin in cases of appendageal torsion?

A

“blue dot sign”

146
Q

What is the treatment for appendageal torsion?

A

supportive care only with analgesia, bed rest, and scrotal elevation – resolved in 7-10 days

surgical excision in cases of severe pain

147
Q

When are inguinal hernias most common?

A

bimodal distribution: before 1 year of age then after 40 years of age

148
Q

Describe course/landmarks of an indirect hernia.

A

Indirect hernia protrudes through the internal ring, lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels

149
Q

What is the most common cause of indirect hernias?

A

congenitally patent processus vaginalis

150
Q

Describe course/landmarks of a direct hernia.

A

protrudes directly through the transversalis fascia and the external inguinal ring medial to the inferior epigastric vessels.

151
Q

What amount of post-void residual urine is abnormal?

A

> 50-100ml

ITE '23 (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions