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3A2 > Ch. 15 > Flashcards

Ch. 15 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is a Class C fire? A fire in ______________.
    a. a lumber pile
    b. generator coils
    c. a coal pile
    d. a fuel tank
    e. a paint can
A

b. generator coils

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is a Class B fire? A fire in:
    a. Coal storage
    b. Electrical panel
    c. Pile of paper
    d. Paint storage
    e. Lumber pile
A

d. Paint storage

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is a Class A fire? A fire in:
    a. Fuel tank
    b. Generator coil
    c. Coal storage
    d. Oil storage
    e. Paint storage
A

c. Coal storage

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3
Q
  1. The first dry chemical fire-extinguishing agent to be formulated was based on sodium bicarbonate.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following extinguishers would ordinarily be used to combat a Class “C” fire?
    1) Carbon dioxide
    2) Foam
    3) Dry chemical
    4) Water
    a. 1, 2
    b. 1, 3
    c. 2, 3
    d. 1, 4
    e. 3, 4
A

b. 1, 3

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4
Q
  1. Dry chemical fire extinguishing agents:
    a. Alter the vapor phase concentration of the fuel oxidizing agent.
    b. Stop the chemical chain reaction sequence associated with fire.
    c. Cool the fuel/oxidizing agent mixture below the ignition temperature of the fuel.
    d. Place a barrier, or effective separation, between the fuel and the oxidizing agent (usually air).
A

b. Stop the chemical chain reaction sequence associated with fire.

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is a Class D fire?
    a. Cloth and paper
    b. Lubricating oils
    c. Magnesium
    d. Electrical wire
A

c. Magnesium

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5
Q
  1. Referred to as __________ dry chemical, it is based upon mixtures of ammonium phosphates or ammonium phosphates and sulphates.
    a. mixture
    b. mulit-purpose
    c. new
    d. Red B
A

b. mulit-purpose

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5
Q
  1. Formulations based upon potassium bicarbonate (Purple K) are found to be about _______ as effective as those based on sodium bicarbonate.
    a. half
    b. the same
    c. twice
    d. five times
A

c. twice

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6
Q
  1. Fire detection provisions are not needed so that automatic or manual fire suppression can be initiated.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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6
Q
  1. Aqueous Film Forming Foam (_____) was developed at the U.S. Naval Research Laboratory primarily to provide very rapid fire extinguishment, or knockdown capabilities.
    a. ARC
    b. PFC
    c. AFFF
    d. DFFG
A

c. AFFF

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7
Q
  1. Heat detectors are generally located on or near:
    a. The floor
    b. The walls
    c. The ceiling
    d. The roof top
A

c. The ceiling

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7
Q
  1. _______ is often the first indicator of fire, so a system of automatic detectors should be used.
    a. Heat
    b. Smoke
    c. Flames
    d. Smell
A

b. Smoke

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8
Q
  1. As it is heated, a _______ _____ deforms in the direction of the contact point.
    a. smoke detector
    b. gas detector
    c. bimetal strip
    d. flame detector
A

c. bimetal strip

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8
Q
  1. A smoke detector will detect most fires much more ______ than a heat detector.
    a. slowly
    b. rapidly
    c. accurately
    d. inaccurately
A

b. rapidly

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8
Q
  1. The width of the gap between the contacts of a bimetal strip determines the operating temperature; the wider the gap the ______ the operating point.
    a. lower
    b. nearest
    c. same
    d. higher
A

d. higher

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9
Q
  1. Standpipe systems are used in buildings over ________ in height, since that is the practical limit for firefighters to couple hose together from the pumper truck at street level up the stairways to the fire floor.
    a. 3 stories (14 metres)
    b. 2 stories (12 metres)
    c. 15 stories ( 75 metres)
    d. 10 stories (50 metres)
A

a. 3 stories (14 metres)

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10
Q
  1. Why are the connections on the floor below the fire used most frequently?
    a. This allows the use of the connections on the fire floor as well.
    b. The fire is approached from below rather than above.
    c. If the fire were approached from above with the stair doors open and the heat of the fire rising, it would be similar to approaching the fire through a chimney.
    d. It is easier to go up than down.
    e. A, B, C
    f. All the above.
A

e. A, B, C

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10
Q
  1. Standpipes for risers of less than 30 m are usually NPS 102 mm pipe, over 30 m, the pipe is usually NPS 152 mm. Where a building has a high level fire zone; that is, floors more than 85 m above street level, then the riser to these higher floors is usually NPS 203 mm.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

11
Q
  1. List applications of wetpipe systems:
    a. Office buildings
    b. Stores
    c. Manufacturing facilities
    d. Hotels
    e. Health care facilities
    f. All
A

f. All

12
Q
  1. Dry Pipe Systems are found in environments where the temperature is maintained below?
    a. -2°C
    b. 0°C
    c. 5°C
    d. 4°C
A

d. 4°C

12
Q
  1. Preaction systems applications are typically:
    a. Computer equipment
    b. Communication equipment
    c. Museums
    d. All
A

d. All

13
Q
  1. Deluge systems are intended to deliver _____ quantities of water over a ______ area in a relatively short period of time.
    a. small, large
    b. large, large
    c. small, small
    d. large, small
A

b. large, large

14
Q
  1. Two general ways in which a sprinkler system may be pressurized is by:
    1) Air
    2) Ammonia
    3) Hydrogen
    4) Water
    5) Oxygen
    a. 1, 2
    b. 1, 4
    c. 3, 5
    d. 2, 3
    e. 1, 5
A

b. 1, 4

14
Q
  1. Sprinkler systems consist of a pressure or gravity tank to maintain the correct water pressure, control valves for each section, and lengths of piping fitted with _________ _________(two words).
    a. sprinkler feet
    b. sprinkler heads
    c. spindle heads
    d. header ends
A

b. sprinkler heads

15
Q
  1. List the main elements of a fire protection system for an industrial site.
    a. Fire pump
    b. Main water piping loops
    c. Sectional control valves
    d. Hydrants
    e. All
A

e. All

16
Q
  1. Hydrant spacing is usually determined by the fire flow demand established on the basis of the type, size, occupancy, and exposure of structures.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

16
Q
  1. For average conditions, hydrants normally are placed about ______ from buildings
    a. 15 m
    b. 25 m
    c. 12.2 m
    d. 10 m
A

c. 12.2 m

16
Q
  1. A safe rule to follow is to bury the top of the pipe not less than _____ below the lowest frost line for the locality.
    a. 0.5 m
    b. 1.0 m
    c. 0.3 m
    d. 2.0 m
A

c. 0.3 m

17
Q
  1. There are two types of fire hydrants in general use today the ___________ and the ____________.
    a. dry barrel, wet barrel
    b. long barrel, short barrel
    c. red color, lime green color
    d. stubby mount, flush mount
A

a. dry barrel, wet barrel

18
Q
  1. Ways to detect freezing in a hydrant include:
    a. Open the hydrant fully and listen for water.
    b. Lowering a weight on a stout string into the hydrant. It may strike ice or come up wet, showing water in the barrel.
    c. Pressure the hydrant with gas.
    d. Feel the temperature of the metal.
A

b. Lowering a weight on a stout string into the hydrant. It may strike ice or come up wet, showing water in the barrel.

18
Q
  1. The most satisfactory method of thawing a hydrant is by means of a __________.
    a. Vacuum truck
    b. Propane torch
    c. Steam hose
    d. Methanol
A

c. Steam hose

19
Q
  1. Fixed ______ sprays are designed specifically to provide optimum control, extinguishment, or exposure protection for special fire protection problems
    a. foam
    b. gas
    c. water
    d. purple K
A

c. water

19
Q
  1. The piping system is connected to a water supply through a ________ valve that can be actuated both automatically and manually to initiate the flow of water.
    a. water
    b. globe
    c. control
    d. deluge
A

d. deluge

19
Q
  1. Automatic system actuation valves for spray systems can be actuated electrically by the operation of automatic detection equipment, such as:
    a. Heat detectors
    b. Relay circuits
    c. Gas detectors
    d. Mechanically
    e. All
A

e. All

20
Q
  1. Fixed water spray systems are most commonly used to protect equipment from exposure fires in flammable liquid and gas tankage, piping, and equipment.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

20
Q
  1. In most cases, it is desired a water spray be used to extinguish burning gases, such as LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas).
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

21
Q
  1. Fire protection of large outdoor fuel tanks requires that several foam chambers with foam-makers be installed at equally spaced positions slightly below the _______ of the tanks.
    a. bottom
    b. middle
    c. top rim
    d. center
A

c. top rim

21
Q
  1. Foam systems are used where flammable liquid fire protection is required for permanently installed hazards, such as fuel storage tanks or dip tanks containing flammable or combustible liquids, ___________ and distributing devices are installed internally in the tank.
    a. spray
    b. air-foam-generating
    c. extinguishment
    d. snuffing
A

b. air-foam-generating

21
Q
  1. Central Foam Distributing Systems consist of an enclosure housing a foam concentrate supply tank and a ____________ device.
    a. mixing
    b. separating
    c. floating
    d. proportioning
A

d. proportioning

21
Q
  1. Foam-Water Sprinkler Systems is used in areas where flammable and combustible liquids are processed, stored, or handled; a water discharge may be ineffective for controlling or extinguishing fires.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

22
Q
  1. There is always a risk of an emergency, no matter how complete the ____________.
    a. safety program
    b. emergency procedures
    c. fire detection
    d. process design
A

a. safety program

22
Q
  1. Emergency preparedness means having plans in place in the event of an emergency.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

23
Q
  1. In large industrial settings, workers on shift will be trained in specific __________ to follow in the event of an emergency, including fire.
    a. positions
    b. assignments
    c. levels
    d. times
A

b. assignments

24
Q
  1. Emergency response procedures are developed to instruct first responders in the event of a fire. A typical procedure would consist of the following:
    a. Sound the fire alarm.
    b. Complete a risk assessment of the situation.
    c. Attempt to extinguish, or control the fire. If the fire escalates, back away. Never turn your back on a fire.
    d. All
A

d. All

25
Q
  1. As soon as you notice a fire, your first reaction should be to:
    a. Fight it
    b. Contain it
    c. Get help
    d. Secure expensive equipment
    e. Sound an alarm
A

e. Sound an alarm

3A2 (15 decks)

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