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3A2 > Ch. 14 > Flashcards

Ch. 14 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Occupational health and safety legislation provides standards for the protection of workers’ health and safety.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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2
Q
  1. The Occupational Health and Safety Act (OH&S Act), is the basis of health and safety law in ________.
    a. Canada
    b. British Columbia
    c. Alberta
    d. The world
A

c. Alberta

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2
Q
  1. The Act is the legislation passed by the ________ government.
    a. federal
    b. provincial
    c. municipal
    d. county
A

b. provincial

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3
Q
  1. Not all workers are covered by provincial legislation. The typical major exceptions are?
    a. Domestic workers
    b. Federal government employees
    c. Workers in federally regulated industries
    d. Agricultural workers
    e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above

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3
Q
  1. The Act and regulations can be obtained from which locations:
    1) The provincial government printers
    2) Libraries
    3) 7-11
    4) Employers
    5) Mac’s
    6) Internet web site
    a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
    b. 2, 3, 4, 5
    c. 3, 4, 5, 6
    d. 1, 2, 4, 6
A

d. 1, 2, 4, 6

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4
Q
  1. As employers and workers, you share the responsibility of ensuring a safe, healthy and productive workplace.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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4
Q
  1. The Occupational Health and Safety Act says that an employer, must do everything it reasonably can to protect the health and safety of your workers. This means:
    2) Dangerous chemicals must be properly labeled and stored
    3) Safe work practices must be set up for workers and the employer must ensure these practices are
    followed
    4) The employer must ensure that the workers have the skills and training needed to do their jobs safely
    5) It is the employer’s responsibility to inform its workers of any dangers at the job site
    6) The employer must monitor workers who may be exposed to certain controlled products; in some cases,
    specific health examinations may be required
    a. 1, 2
    b. 3, 5, 6
    c. None of the above
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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5
Q
  1. As a worker, the Occupational Health and Safety Act requires you to work safely and ___________ with your employer by following the health and safety rules for the job.
    a. co-operate
    b. coordinate
    c. initiate
    d. amend
A

a. co-operate

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6
Q
  1. The function of the Occupational Health and Safety Committee is to initiate and assist in the __________ of health and safety expectations and safe systems of work.
    a. enforcement
    b. development
    c. initiation
    d. amendments
A

b. development

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6
Q
  1. Injuries and accidents must be reported if they ___________________.
    a. involve the collapse or failure of a necessary component of a building or structure
    b. result in death
    c. cause a worker to be admitted to hospital for more than two days
    d. involve an unplanned or uncontrolled explosion, fire or flood that causes a serious injury, (or has the potential to cause a serious injury)
    e. involve the collapse or upset of a crane, derrick or hoist
    f. All of the above
A

f. All of the above

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6
Q
  1. It should be the duty of the safety committee to ensure that all new employees are instructed on safety rules.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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7
Q
  1. Gamma rays will penetrate steel up to:
    a. 10 cm thick
    b. 15 cm thick
    c. 20 cm thick
    d. 25 cm thick
    e. 30 cm thick
A

b. 15 cm thick

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8
Q
  1. Conducting regular team safety meetings is an effective way for the team to achieve a safer and more productive workplace. The team meets to:
    1) Share information and safety concerns
    2) Have coffee and donuts
    3) Discuss safety issues and find solutions
    4) Plan out door training sessions
    5) Build on communication
    6) Stimulate group discussion and interaction in regards to safety items
    a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
    b. 1, 2, 3
    c. 1, 6
    d. 1, 3, 5, 6
    e. 1, 2, 3, 4,
A

d. 1, 3, 5, 6

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9
Q
  1. Safety committees should be established with representatives from?
    a. The Department of Labour
    b. Worker’s Compensation Board
    c. Management and plant workers
    d. The Department of Labor and the National Safety Council
    e. The Boilers Safety Branch
A

c. Management and plant workers

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9
Q
  1. What are some examples of Class A hazards?
    a. Working under a suspended load.
    b. Working in an excavation that is improperly shored or cut back.
    c. Working in a confined space without proper protective equipment, or using proper procedures.
    d. Working without a fall-arresting device when required.
    e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above

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9
Q
  1. What are some examples of Class B hazards?
    a. Working without protective equipment.
    b. Working with inadequate lighting or ventilation.
    c. A slippery oil condition on main aisle way.
    d. A broken tread at bottom of office stairs.
    e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above

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10
Q
  1. Examples of Class C hazards are:
    1) A carpenter handling rough lumber without gloves
    2) A strong rancid odor from cutting oil, circulating in the bed of a large lathe
    3) Working without protective equipment
    4) Working without a fall-arresting device when required
    a. 1, 2,
    b. 1, 2, 3, 4
    c. 1, 4
    d. 1, 3, 4
A

a. 1, 2,

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10
Q
  1. When conducting a safety inspection of a workplace, focus on things that can be seen or ________ such as unsafe conditions, or unsafe work practices.
    a. witnessed
    b. reported
    c. observed
    d. done
A

c. observed

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11
Q
  1. Unsafe Conditions These are conditions in the workplace that may endanger the worker or his fellow-workers. Many unsafe conditions are the result of unsafe acts.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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11
Q
  1. Unsafe Acts These are acts committed by persons that may endanger the worker or his fellow-workers.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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12
Q
  1. Permits are used for ___________ and co-coordinating work to establish and maintain safe working conditions.
    a. completing
    b. controlling
    c. maintaining
    d. overseeing
A

b. controlling

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12
Q
  1. The type of work permit required is determined by the nature of the work and the _________ that must be eliminated or controlled.
    a. hazards
    b. environment
    c. conditions
    d. Safety factor
A

a. hazards

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13
Q
  1. The permit is an agreement between the issuer and the receiver that documents what?
    a. Conditions
    b. Preparations
    c. Precautions
    d. Limitations
    e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above

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14
Q
  1. Work permit types are most commonly used.
    a. Work Clearance
    b. Hot Work Permits
    c. Cold Work Permits
    d. Confined Space Entry Permits
    e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above

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14
Q
  1. The permit is handed back to the issuer at the end of the shift or when the work is completed.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

15
Q
  1. The permit issuer must be sure that the work situation identified on the permit is as described, and the permit issuer ______ the work or operation with the worker before work starts.
    a. instruct
    b. inform
    c. review
    d. direct
A

c. review

16
Q
  1. In a Hot Work Permit situation, possible examples of sources of ignition are:
    1) Welding
    2) Burning
    3) Cutting
    4) Grinding
    5) Drilling
    6) Internal combustion engines
    a. 1, 5, 6
    b. 1, 2
    c. 1, 2, 3
    d. 1, 2, 3, 4
    e. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
A

e. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

16
Q
  1. Lock Out is a system of locks, which secures devices that control hazardous energy from release. Control devices, which are secured by locks include:
    1) Main disconnect switches
    2) Circuit breakers
    3) Valves
    4) Clutches
    a. 1, 4
    b. 1, 3, 4
    c. 4
    d. 1, 2, 3, 4
A

d. 1, 2, 3, 4

17
Q
  1. Lockout is required when machinery or equipment is shut down for maintenance; no work may be done until the following conditions have been met:
    a. All parts and attachments have been secured against inadvertent movement
    b. All valves removed
    c. Where the work will expose workers to energy sources, the hazard has been effectively controlled
    d. A, C, E
    e. The energy isolating devices have been locked out
A

d. A, C, E

18
Q
  1. When lockout of energy isolating devices is required, the devices must be secured in the safe position using locks in accordance with procedures that are made available to all workers who are required to work on the machinery or equipment.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

19
Q
  1. Before commencing work, a ________ must verify that all energy sources have been effectively locked out.
    a. operator
    b. supervisor
    c. worker
    d. manager
A

c. worker

19
Q
  1. Combination locks __________ be used for lockout.
    a. can be
    b. must not
    c. on occasion
    d. sometimes
A

b. must not

20
Q
  1. Each worker who works on machinery or equipment requiring lockout is responsible for what?
    a. Locking out the energy isolating devices before starting work, except as provided in Group Lockout Procedures.
    b. Removing personal locks on the completion of his or her work.
    c. Maintaining immediate control of the key(s) to personal locks throughout the duration of the work.
    d. A, C
    e. A, B, C
A

e. A, B, C`

21
Q
  1. Confined Space means an area, other than an underground working, that ____________________.
    a. is enclosed or partially enclosed
    b. is not designed or intended for continuous human occupancy
    c. has limited or restricted means for entry or exit that may complicate the provision of first aid, evacuation, rescue or other emergency response service
    d. is large enough and so configured that a worker could enter to perform assigned work
    e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above

22
Q
  1. A confined space-testing program must consider _________________.
    a. qualifications of testing personnel
    b. test equipment which must be accurate and reliable
    c. the confined space entry and exit points
    d. A, B
A

d. A, B

22
Q
  1. Blanking or blinding means the absolute closure of adjacent piping, by fastening across its bore a solid plate or cap that completely covers the bore and that is capable of withstanding the maximum pressure of the adjacent piping.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

23
Q
  1. Cleaning and purging are preparation procedures carried out prior to work entry into a confined space. These cleaning procedures include ___________________.
    a. steam cleaning
    b. water cleaning
    c. neutralization
    d. descaling
    e. special solvent application
    f. All of the above
A

f. All of the above

23
Q
  1. List the responsibilities of a Standby Persons.
    a. A standby person must be present while a worker is inside a confined space.
    b. The standby person must be in continuous communication with the worker.
    c. The standby person must have a means to immediately summon rescue personnel.
    d. A, C
    e. A, B, C
A

e. A, B, C

23
Q
  1. Entry into a Confined Space, which contains an inert atmosphere, requires a Safe Work Plan approved by the Division Manager.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

24
Q
  1. An __________ is any cut, cavity, trench or depression in the earth’s surface where rock or soils are removed.
    a. confined
    b. excavation
    c. hot work
    d. trench
A

b. excavation

25
Q
  1. A __________ is an excavation less than 3.7 m wide at the bottom, over 1.2 m deep, and of any length.
    a. confined
    b. excavation
    c. hot work
    d. trench
A

d. trench

25
Q
  1. The two most common types of trenching used are ________ cut with shoring and __________ cut with proper slopes on the side to protect the workers in the trench.
    a. straight, open
    b. stager, slope
    c. shore, slope
    d. bridge, open
A

a. straight, open

26
Q
  1. Entry and exit steps should be cut into the wall of the trench or a ladder provided so that at least one meter protrudes above the top of the trench on the downwind bank.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

27
Q
  1. Where the open cut method is used, walls shall be a minimum of ___ degrees in hard or compact soil and ____ degrees in loose or spoiled material.
    a. 10, 50
    b. 30, 45
    c. 25, 40
    d. 15, 55
A

b. 30, 45

28
Q
  1. Emergency response and contingency planning is utilized to minimize the effects of an emergency situation.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

29
Q
  1. The key elements of a successful emergency response plan are:
    a. Identification of the most probable emergencies
    b. Notification process (who and when)
    c. Determining the immediate personnel actions to be taken
    d. Minimization of adverse effects on personnel, property, and environment
    e. All the above.
A

e. All the above.

30
Q
  1. Identification of potential emergencies involves a ___________ exercise using a comprehensive understanding of facility processes.
    a. mental
    b. HAZOP
    c. risk assessment
    d. safety meeting
A

c. risk assessment

31
Q
  1. What is the role of the on site commander (OSC)?
    a. Is responsible for activating all communication systems and maintaining a communications log. It could be a senior secretary or administrative assistant.
    b. This is an individual who is normally on site and familiar with the operations at the facility. It might be the shop supervisor or operations foreman.
    c. Is responsible for carrying out the response actions at the emergency, under the direction of the OSC.
    d. Is responsible for ensuring security of the site and safety of personnel.
A

b. This is an individual who is normally on site and familiar with the operations at the facility. It might be the shop supervisor or operations foreman.

31
Q
  1. What is the role of Communications officer?
    a. Is responsible for activating all communication systems and maintaining a communications log. It could be a senior secretary or administrative assistant.
    b. This is an individual who is normally on site and familiar with the operations at the facility. It might be the shop supervisor or operations foreman.
    c. Is responsible for carrying out the response actions at the emergency, under the direction of the OSC.
    d. Is responsible for ensuring security of the site and safety of personnel.
A

a. Is responsible for activating all communication systems and maintaining a communications log. It could be a senior secretary or administrative assistant.

32
Q
  1. What is the role of the response operation supervisor?
    a. Is responsible for activating all communication systems and maintaining a communications log. It could be a senior secretary or administrative assistant.
    b. This is an individual who is normally on site and familiar with the operations at the facility. It might be the shop supervisor or operations foreman.
    c. Is responsible for carrying out the response actions at the emergency, under the direction of the OSC.
    d. Is responsible for ensuring security of the site and safety of personnel.
A

c. Is responsible for carrying out the response actions at the emergency, under the direction of the OSC.

33
Q
  1. What is the role of the security officer?
    a. Is responsible for activating all communication systems and maintaining a communications log. It could be a senior secretary or administrative assistant.
    b. This is an individual who is normally on site and familiar with the operations at the facility. It might be the shop supervisor or operations foreman.
    c. Is responsible for carrying out the response actions at the emergency, under the direction of the OSC.
    d. Is responsible for ensuring security of the site and safety of personnel.
A

d. Is responsible for ensuring security of the site and safety of personnel.

33
Q
  1. The Workplace Hazardous Material Information System (WHMIS) is a nationwide system to provide information on hazardous materials used in the workplace.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

33
Q
  1. WHMIS is a system of information delivery listed below are the three key elements, what is the order that these items should take place?
    a. Labels on hazardous materials and their containers.
    b. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) - Technical bulletins that provide detailed hazards. precautionary information on the product
    c. Worker Education programs which provide instruction on hazards and training in the workplace.
    d. A, C, B
    e. A, B, C
    f. B, A, C
A

e. A, B, C

34
Q
  1. A WHMIS label on a controlled product is designed to _____ employers and workers to the hazards of the product and the precautions to be taken with it.
    a. train
    b. alert
    c. assist
    d. help
A

b. alert

35
Q
  1. When must you use a workplace label?
    a. If you decant (pour) a controlled product from its original container into another container for use in the workplace.
    b. If you transfer a controlled product, that is stored in bulk into another container for use in the workplace.
    c. If the supplier label is illegible, damaged or lost, it must be replaced with a workplace label or a supplier label.
    d. All the above.
A

d. All the above.

35
Q
  1. Workplace labels must contain the following information:
    a. Product Identifier
    b. Information for Safe Handling
    c. This section may contain hazard symbols, first aid measures, safe handling and storage procedures, personal protective equipment, and so on.
    d. Reference to the MSDS
    e. All the above.
A

e. All the above.

36
Q
  1. A MSDS is a technical document, which provides detailed and comprehensive information on a controlled product related to:
    a. Health effects of overexposure to the product.
    b. Hazard evaluation related to the product’s handling, storage and use.
    c. Measures to protect workers at risk of overexposure.
    d. Emergency procedures
    e. All the above.
A

e. All the above.

36
Q
  1. Incidents can be divided into two categories: _____________ and ___________.
    a. critical, serious
    b. near miss event, accidents
    c. class A, class B
    d. minor, major
A

b. near miss event, accidents

36
Q
  1. All incidents must be reported, so that circumstances surrounding the event will be communicated, and similar incidents can be prevented.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

37
Q
  1. Hazards are identified and indirect causes of the incident are examined. Some of the unsafe conditions that have the potential to cause an injury are: Name four:
    1) Inadequate guards or barriers
    2) Inadequate or improper protective equipment
    3) Defective tools, equipment, or materials
    4) Poor work practices
    5) Inadequate training
    6) Poor attitude
    7) Poor housekeeping and a disorderly workplace
    a. 1, 2, 3, 4
    b. 1, 5, 6, 7
    c. 1, 2, 3, 7
    d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7
    e. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
A

c. 1, 2, 3, 7

38
Q
  1. Unsafe acts are the actions taken by the worker at the time of the incident, name five:
    1) Operating equipment without authority
    2) sleeping
    3) Failure to secure equipment
    4) Failing to use personal protective equipment
    5) Using improper procedures for loading, placement, or lifting
    6) Bored
    7) Engaging in horseplay, or working under the influence of alcohol and/or drugs
    a. 1, 2, 3, 6, 7
    b. 1, 6, 7
    c. 1, 2
    d. 1, 3, 4, 5, 7
    e. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
A

d. 1, 3, 4, 5, 7

3A2 (15 decks)

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