Ch 12 Cancer Biology

Question 1

Which cancer originates from connective tissue?

a. Osteogenic sarcoma
c. Multiple myeloma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
d. Adenocarcinoma

Answer 1

ANS: A
Cancers arising from connective tissue usually have the suffix -sarcoma. The remaining
options are not cancers that originate in the connective tissue and, in addition, are lacking
the common suffix.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 364

Question 2

Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?

a. Blood vessels
c. Connective tissue
b. Epithelial cells
d. Glandular tissue

Answer 2

ANS: B
Only cancers arising from epithelial cells are called carcinomas.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 364

Question 3

Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?

a. Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
b. Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
c. Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.
d. Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.

Answer 3

ANS: C
Carcinoma in situ (CIS) refers to preinvasive epithelial malignant tumors of glandular or
squamous cell origin. These early stage cancers are localized to the epithelium and have
not broken through the local basement membrane or invaded the surrounding tissue.
Dysplasia refers to changes in mature cell structure.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 364

Question 4

Which term is used to describe a muscle cell showing a reduced ability to form new
muscle while appearing highly disorganized?
a. Dysplasia
c. Myoplasia
b. Hyperplasia
d. Anaplasia

Answer 4

ANS: D
Anaplasia is defined as the loss of cellular differentiation, irregularities of the size and
shape of the nucleus, and the loss of normal tissue structure. In clinical specimens,
anaplasia is recognized by a loss of organization and a significant increase in nuclear size
with evidence of ongoing proliferation. The remaining options refer to specific changes in
the cell.
PTS: 1 REF: Pages 368-369

Question 5

What are tumor cell markers?

a. Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies that are produced by cancer cells
b. Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked
c. Cytokines that are produced against cancer cells
d. Identification marks that are used in administering radiation therapy

Answer 5

ANS: A
Tumor (biologic) markers are substances produced by both benign and malignant cells that
are found either in or on the tumor cells or in the blood, spinal fluid, or urine. Tumor
markers may include hormones, enzymes, genes, antigens, and antibodies. The other
options do not accurately describe examples of tumor markers and their function.
PTS: 1 REF: Pages 365-366

Question 6

The function of the tumor cell marker is to:

a. Provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer.
b. Treat certain types of cancer.
c. Predict where cancers will develop.
d. Screen individuals at high risk for cancer

Answer 6

ANS: D
Screening and identifying individuals at high risk for cancer are ways tumor markers can
be used. These markers are not used to definitively diagnosis or treat cancer and are not
useful in predicting specific sites of cancer development.

Question 7

Which statement supports the hypothesis that intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and
the first stage in the development of colon cancer?
a. Cancer cells accumulate slower than noncancer cells.
b. An accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for the development of
cancer.
c. Tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract.
d. Apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli, including excessive growth.

Answer 7

ANS: B
Multiple genetic mutations are required for the evolution of full-blown cancer. The
remaining options do not address the progression of benign to metastatic tumors.
PTS: 1 REF: Pages 372-373

Question 8

Autocrine stimulation is the ability of cancer cells to:

a. Stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply.
b. Encourage secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors.
c. Secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth.
d. Divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use.

Answer 8

ANS: C
Cancer cells must have mutations that enable them to proliferate in the absence of external
growth signals. To achieve this, some cancers acquire the ability to secrete growth factors
that stimulate their own growth, a process known as autocrine stimulation. The remaining
options do not describe autocrine stimulation.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 380

Question 9

Apoptosis is a(an):

a. Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive
b. Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb
c. Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene
d. Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia

Answer 9

ANS: A
Normal cells have a mechanism that causes them to self-destruct when growth is excessive
and cell cycle checkpoints have been ignored. Diverse stimuli, including normal
development and excessive growth, trigger this self-destruct mechanism, called apoptosis.
The remaining options do not describe apoptosis.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 381

Question 10

Many cancers create a mutation of ras. ras is a(an):

a. Tumor-suppressor gene
b. Growth-promoting gene
c. Intracellular-signaling protein that regulates cell growth
d. Cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus concerning cell growth

Answer 10

ANS: C
Up to one-third of all cancers have an activating mutation in the gene for an intracellular
signaling protein called ras. This mutant ras stimulates cell growth even when growth
factors are missing. The remaining options do not describe ras.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 380

Question 11

Oncogenes are genes that are capable of:
a. Undergoing mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate the rate of
tissue proliferation
b. Directing synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and to provide necessary
replacement of tissue
c. Encoding proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt
the replacement of tissue
d. Undergoing mutation that directs malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph
nodes for metastasis

Answer 11

ANS: A
Oncogenes are mutant genes that, before mutation, direct synthesis of proteins that
positively regulate (accelerate) proliferation. The remaining options do not describe
oncogenes.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 374

Question 12

Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a
piece of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to
oncogenes?
a. Point mutation
c. Gene amplification
b. Chromosome translocation
d. Chromosome fusion

Answer 12

ANS: B
Chromosome translocations, in which a piece of one chromosome is translocated to
another chromosome, can activate oncogenes. One of the best examples is the t(8;14)
translocation found in many Burkitt lymphomas; t(8;14) designates a chromosome that has
a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14. The remaining options are
not best depicted by a Burkitt lymphoma.
PTS: 1 REF: Pages 375-376

Question 13

In childhood neuroblastoma, the N-myc oncogene undergoes which type of mutation of
normal gene to oncogene?
a. Point mutation 
c. Gene amplification
b. Chromosome fusion 
d. Chromosome translocation

Answer 13

ANS: C
Amplifications are the result of the duplication of a small piece of a chromosome over and
over again; consequently, instead of the normal two copies of a gene, tens or even
hundreds of copies are present (see Chapter 4). The N-myc oncogene is amplified in 25%
of childhood neuroblastoma.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 376

Question 14

What aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in retinoblastoma?

a. Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes.
b. The tumor-suppressor gene is turned off.
c. Genetic amplification causes the growth.
d. Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused.

Answer 14

ANS: B
One of the first discovered tumor-suppressor genes, the retinoblastoma (Rb) gene,
normally strongly inhibits the cell division cycle. When it is inactivated, the cell division
cycle can proceed unchecked. The Rb gene is mutated in childhood retinoblastoma. The
remaining options do not describe the abnormal growth in retinoblastoma.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 376

Question 15

Two “hits” are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:
a. Each allele must be altered, and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each
gene, one from each parent.
b. The first hit stops tissue growth, and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal
tissue growth.
c. Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to
effect carcinogenesis.
d. The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation

Answer 15

ANS: A
A single genetic event can activate an oncogene, acting in a dominant manner in the cell.
However, each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.
Therefore two hits are required to inactivate the two alleles of a tumor-suppressor gene,
allowing the process to become active. The remaining options do not describe the reason
two hits are required.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 376 | Page 378

Question 16

The ras gene converts from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene by:
a. Designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of
another chromosome
b. Duplicating a small piece of a chromosome, repeatedly making numerous copies
c. Altering one or more nucleotide base pairs
d. Promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor-suppressor genes

Answer 16

ANS: C
A point mutation is the alteration of one or a few nucleotide base pairs. This type of
mutation can have profound effects on the activity of proteins. A point mutation in the ras
gene converts it from a regulated proto-oncogene to an unregulated oncogene, an
accelerator of cellular proliferation. The remaining options do not describe point mutation
as it affects the conversion of a ras gene.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 375

Question 17

How do cancer cells use the enzyme telomerase?

a. To repair the telomeres to restore somatic cell growth
b. As an intracellular signaling chemical to stimulate cell division
c. To switch off the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely
d. To switch on the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely

Answer 17

ANS: D
Cancer cells, when they reach a critical age, somehow activate telomerase to restore and
maintain their telomeres and thereby make it possible for cells to divide over and over
again. The remaining options do not describe how cancer cells use telomerase.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 382

Question 18

What are characteristics of benign tumors?

a. Benign tumors invade local tissues.
b. Benign tumors spread through the lymph nodes.
c. Benign tumors cause systemic symptoms.
d. Benign tumors include the suffix -oma.

Answer 18

ANS: D
Benign tumors are usually encapsulated and well-differentiated. They retain some normal
tissue structure and do not invade the capsules surrounding them or spread to regional
lymph nodes or distant locations. Benign tumors are generally named according to the
tissues from which they arise and include the suffix -oma. Benign tumors do not cause
systemic symptoms.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 364

Question 19

Which terms represent the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of
adipose tissue, respectively?
a. Liposarcoma, lipoma 
c. Adisarcoma, adipoma
b. Lipoma, liposarcoma 
d. Adipoma, adisarcoma

Answer 19

ANS: B
In general, cancers are named according to the cell type from which they originate (e.g.,
lip for cancers that originate in adipose or fat tissue), whereas benign tumors use the suffix
-oma. Cancers arising from connective tissue usually have the suffix sarcoma.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 364 | Page 367 | Table 12-2

Question 20

What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer?

a. Herpes simplex virus type 6
c. Human papillomavirus
b. Herpes simplex virus type 2
d. Human immunodeficiency virus

Answer 20

ANS: C
Infection with specific subtypes of human papillomavirus (HPV) cause virtually all
cervical cancers. The remaining options are not known to be associated with cervical
cancer.
PTS: 1 REF: Pages 382-383

Question 21

The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?

a. Ovarian
c. Cervical
b. Uterine
d. Vaginal

Answer 21

ANS: C
The Pap test, an examination of cervical epithelial scrapings, readily detects early
oncogenic human papillomavirus (HPV)infection. The Pap test is not used for screening
the other cancer sites listed.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 382

Question 22

What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy?

a. Infection
c. Pain
b. Ultraviolet damage
d. Erythema

Answer 22

ANS: A
Decreased renewal rates of the epidermal layers in the skin may lead to skin breakdown
and dryness, altering the normal barrier protection against infection. Radiation therapy
may cause skin erythema (redness). Pain and ultraviolet damage is not related to
chemotherapies.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 396 | Box 12-2

Question 23

Which cancers are all associated with chronic inflammation?

a. Brain, muscle, and endocrine
b. Colon, thyroid gland, and urinary bladder
c. Bone, blood cells, and liver
d. Eye, tracheal, and kidney

Answer 23

ANS: B
Some organs appear to be more susceptible to the oncogenic effects of chronic
inflammation; for example, the GI tract, prostate, thyroid gland, pancreas, urinary bladder,
pleura, and skin. One large study found a 66% increase in the risk of lung cancer among
women with chronic asthma, an inflammatory disease of the airways. At present, no
research supports a link between the remaining options and chronic inflammation.
PTS: 1 REF: Pages 383-384

Question 24

Chronic inflammation causes cancer by:
a. Increasing vasodilation and permeability that alter cellular response to DNA
damage
b. Liberating lysosomal enzymes when cells are damaged that initiates mutations
c. Releasing compounds such as reactive oxygen species that promote mutations
d. Increasing the abundance of leukotrienes that are associated with some cancers

Answer 24

ANS: C
Inflammatory cells release compounds, such as reactive oxygen species (ROS) and other
reactive molecules, that can promote mutations and block the cellular response to DNA
damage. At present, no research supports the other options as factors related to
inflammation causing cancer.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 384

Question 25

Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?

a. Proto-oncogenes
c. Tumor-suppressor genes
b. Oncogenes
d. Growth-promoting genes

Answer 25

ANS: C
Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably in tumor-suppressor
genes. At present, no research supports the other options as factors related to how inherited
mutations cause cancer.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 379

Question 26

What is the consequence for cells when the functioning TP53 gene is lost as a result of
mutation?
a. Cells undergo apoptosis. c. Cells receive less oxygen.
b. Cells escape apoptosis.
d. Cells adhere more readily

Answer 26

ANS: B
The most common mutations conferring resistance to apoptosis occur in the TP53 gene.
The remaining options do not accurately describe the effect when the functioning TP53
gene is lost as a result of mutation.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 381

Question 27

Which gastrointestinal tract condition can be an outcome of both chemotherapy and
radiation therapy?
a. Increased cell turnover 
c. Stomatitis
b. Constipation 
d. Bloody stool

Answer 27

ANS: C
Chemotherapy and radiation therapy may cause a decreased cell turnover, thereby leading
to oral ulcers (stomatitis), malabsorption, and diarrhea. None of the other options
accurately describe related conditions resulting from chemotherapy and/or radiation
therapies.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 396 | Box 12-2

Question 28

What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and basic fibroblast growth
factor (bFGF) in cell metastasis?
a. To stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells
b. To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells
c. To prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis
d. To act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels

Answer 28

ANS: B
By recruiting new vascular endothelial cells and initiating the proliferation of existing
blood vessel cells, the angiogenic factors, such as VEGF and growth factor bFGF, allow
small cancers to become large cancers. None of the other options accurately describe the
role of the various stated factors on cell metastasis.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 381

Question 29

It has been determined that a tumor is in stage 2. What is the meaning of this finding?

a. Cancer is confined to the organ of origin.
b. Cancer has spread to regional structures.
c. Cancer is locally invasive.
d. Cancer has spread to distant sites

Answer 29

ANS: C
Cancer confined to the organ of origin is stage 1; cancer that is locally invasive is stage 2;
cancer that has spread to regional structures, such as the lymph nodes, is stage 3; and
cancer that has spread to distant sites, such as a liver cancer spreading to the lung or a
prostate cancer spreading to bone, is stage 4.
PTS: 1 REF: Pages 393-394 | Figure 12-25

Question 30

Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer?

a. Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor.
b. Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer.
c. Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer.
d. Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer.

Answer 30

ANS: D
Pain is generally associated with the late stages of cancer. Pressure, obstruction, invasion
of a structure sensitive to pain, stretching, tissue destruction, and inflammation can cause
pain. Pain is not the initial symptom of cancer nor does it indication that the cancer has
metastasized.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 399

Question 31

31. Which cancer may be treated with radiation delivered by brachytherapy?
    a. Lung
    c. Cervical
    b. Colon
    d. Brain

Answer 31

ANS: C
Radiation sources, such as small 125I-labeled capsules (also called seeds), can also be
temporarily placed into body cavities, a delivery method termed brachytherapy.
Brachytherapy is useful in the treatment of cervical, prostate, and head and neck cancers.
Brachytherapy is not used in the treatment of the other cancers.
PTS: 1 REF: Pages 397-398

Question 32

The survival rate for stage IV Hodgkin disease can be as high as:

a. 99%
c. 40%
b. 70%
d. 20%

Answer 32

ANS: B
Survival rates for Hodgkin disease is 99% for stage I and 70% for stage IV.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 394 | Table 12-10

Question 33

What is the cause of anemia in a patient diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?

a. Impaired pancreatic function
c. Chronic bleeding
b. Malnutrition
d. Malabsorption of iron

Answer 33

ANS: D
Iron is malabsorbed in individuals with gastric, pancreatic, or upper intestinal cancer.
Commonly associated with malignancy, mechanisms of anemia include chronic bleeding
(resulting in iron deficiency), severe malnutrition, cytotoxic chemotherapy, and
malignancy in blood-forming organs. The pancreas is not involved in the formation of
blood components. Chronic bleeding and iron deficiency can accompany colorectal or
genitourinary malignancies.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 396 | Box 12-2

Question 34

By what process do cancer cells multiply in the absence of external growth signals?

a. Proto-oncogene
c. Reliance on caretaker genes
b. Autocrine stimulation
d. Pleomorphology

Answer 34

ANS: B
Cancer cells must have mutations that enable them to proliferate in the absence of external
growth signals. To achieve this, some cancers acquire the ability to secrete growth factors
that stimulate their own growth, a process known as autocrine stimulation. The other
options are not involved in the proliferation of cancer cells in the absence of external
growth signals.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 380

Question 35

What is the role of caretaker genes?

a. Maintenance of genomic integrity
c. Secretion of growth factors
b. Proliferation of cancer cells
d. Restoration of normal tissue structure

Answer 35

ANS: A
Caretaker genes are responsible for the maintenance of genomic integrity. The other
options are not roles assumed by caretaker genes.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 379

Question 36

In a normal, nonmutant state, an oncogene is referred to as a:

a. Basal cell
c. Caretaker gene
b. Target cell
d. Proto-oncogene

Answer 36

ANS: D
In its normal nonmutant state, an oncogene is referred to as a proto-oncogene. The other
options are not terms used to identify a nonmutant oncogene.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 374

Question 37

Which statement is true regarding pleomorphic cells?

a. Pleomorphic cells are similar in size.
b. They share a common shape.
c. They are a result of anaplasia.
d. Pleomorphic cells differentiate uniformly.

Answer 37

ANS: C
In contrast to normal cells, which are uniform in size and shape, anaplastic cells are of
variable size and shape and abnormally differentiate, making them pleomorphic.
PTS: 1 REF: Pages 368-369

Question 38

What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment?

a. Nausea
c. Hair loss
b. Fatigue
d. Weight loss

Answer 38

ANS: B
Fatigue is the most frequently reported symptom of cancer and cancer treatment. Although
patients report the other options, they are not as frequently experienced as fatigue.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 396 | Box 12-2

Question 39

The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which
location?
a. Bones 
c. Bladder
b. Brain 
d. Kidney

Answer 39

ANS: A
The bone, especially the lumbar spine area, is the most common metastasis site for
prostate cancer.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 391 | Table 12-8

Question 40

Which statement concerning benign tumors is true?

a. The resulting pain is severe.
c. Benign tumors are fast growing.
b. Benign tumors are not encapsulated.
d. The cells are well-differentiated.

Answer 40

ANS: D
A benign tumor is well-differentiated with its tissue appearing similar to the tissue from
which it arose. The other options are characteristic of a malignant tumor.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 364 | Table 12-1

Question 41

Normally, which cells are considered immortal (never die)? (Select all that apply.)

a. Germ
b. Stem
c. Blood
d. Epithelial
e. Muscle

Answer 41

ANS: A, B
Usually, germ cells (those that generate sperm and eggs) and stem cells are the only cells
in the body that are immortal. Other cells in the body are not immortal and can divide only
a limited number of times. The remaining options do not identify the appropriate cells.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 382

Question 42

What is the most common route for distant metastasis? (Select all that apply.)

a. Seeding
b. Blood
c. Lymphatic vessels
d. Invasion
e. Proliferation

Answer 42

ANS: B, C
To transition from local to distant metastasis, the cancer cells must also be able to invade
local blood and lymphatic vessels. The remaining options are not directly related to distant
metastasis.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 387

Question 43

What cellular characteristics are affected by anaplasia? (Select all that apply.)

a. Size
b. Ability to differentiate
c. Life expectancy
d. Tissue structure
e. Shape

Answer 43

ANS: A, B, D, E
Anaplasia is defined as the loss of cellular differentiation, irregularities of the size and
shape of the nucleus, and loss of normal tissue structure. Life expectancy is not generally
included in this term.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 364

Question 44

What are the most common causes of nosocomial infections among patients with cancer?
(Select all that apply.)
a. Indwelling medical devices
b. Suppressed immune system
c. Visitor-introduced microorganisms
d. Poor appetite
e. Inadequate wound care

Answer 44

ANS: A, C, E
Hospital-acquired (nosocomial) infections increase because of indwelling medical devices,
inadequate wound care, and the introduction of microorganisms from visitors and other
individuals. A suppressed immune system and a poor appetite are possible causes of
infections but they are not nosocomial in nature.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 396 | Box 12-2

Question 45

Which statements concerning aging and the occurrence of cancer are true? (Select all that

apply. )
a. Decline in immunologic functions
b. Predisposition to nutritional inadequacies
c. Unwillingness to access health care services
d. Reluctance to engage in cancer screenings
e. Effects of immobility on the immune system

Answer 45

ANS: A, B, E
Many common malignancies occur mostly in older age as a result of immunologic
functions declining with age. Older persons are predisposed to nutritional inadequacies,
and malnutrition impairs immunocompetence. Far-advanced cancer often results in
immobility and general debility that worsens with age. No research supports a correlation
between aging and a reluctance to seek health care, in general, or cancer screenings, in
particular.
PTS: 1 REF: Page 397 | Table 12-12

Question 46

Match the phrases with the corresponding terms.
______ A. Is the process of cancer cell growth.
______ B. Is used to kill cancer cells while minimizing damage to normal structures.
______ C. Is guided by molecular analysis in specific diseases.
______ D. Takes advantage of specific vulnerabilities in specific cancer cells.
______ E. Provides a framework to determine treatment.

46. Chemotherapy
47. Radiation
48. Staging
49. Angiogenesis

Answer 46

46. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Page 396
    MSC: All chemotherapeutic agents take advantage of specific vulnerabilities in target cancer cells.
47. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Pages 397-398
    MSC: Radiation therapy is used to kill cancer cells while minimizing damage to normal structures.
48. ANS: E PTS: 1 REF: Pages 393-394
    MSC: Staging may alter the choice of therapy, with more aggressive therapy being delivered to
    more invasive disease (advanced staging).
49. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Page 381
    MSC: Angiogenesis is the process of growth and proliferation of cancer cells.
50. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Pages 397-398
    MSC: The newest highly targeted agents that are used to treat cancer exploit specific
    vulnerabilities uncovered by molecular analysis in specific diseases.

Question 47

MICS: The newest highly targeted agents that are used to treat cancer exploit specific
vulnerabilities uncovered by molecular analysis in specific diseases.
Match the organism factor with the cancer it causes.
______ A. HPV
______ B. Human herpesvirus (HHV) 8
______ C. Hepatis B virus (HBV)
______ D. Helicobacter pylori

51. Cervical cancer
52. Kaposi sarcoma
53. Liver cancer
54. Stomach cancer

Answer 47

51. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Pages 382-383
    MSC: HPV infection causes human cervical cancer.
52. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Page 383
    MSC: HHV-8 infection causes Kaposi sarcoma.
53. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Page 383
    MSC: Chronic hepatitis infection with HBV or hepatis C virus (HCV) is the leading cause of liver
    cancer.
54. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Page 384
    MSC: Chronic H. pylori-associated inflammation causes stomach cancer.