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Molecular Biology > Ch. 1 Genes, DNA, RNA, & Polypeptides (Exam 1) > Flashcards

Ch. 1 Genes, DNA, RNA, & Polypeptides (Exam 1) Flashcards

Genes, Genetic Material

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1
Q

Which molecule is the basis of heredity?

A

DNA

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2
Q

Define heredity.

A

The passing of genetic information from one generation to the next

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3
Q

What is the relationship between DNA, genes, and chromosomes?

A

Genes consist of DNA and are located on chromosomes, which are very long DNA molecules

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4
Q

What is the central dogma of molecular biology?

A

DNA encodes RNA, which translates into proteins/polypeptides

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5
Q

What exactly do genes do?

A

Code for proteins

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6
Q

What aspects of a species do genes dictate?

A

Its inherent properties

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7
Q

What macro-molecule do most genes produce?

A

Specific proteins

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8
Q

What is the main macro-molecule in an organism that is translated from RNA?

A

Protein

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9
Q

Genes are a functional unit of this…

A

Heredity

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10
Q

What are alleles?

A

Different forms of the same gene

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11
Q

What is a genetic locus?

A

The particular location of a gene

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12
Q

What are the 3 main properties that define a gene’s nature?

A
  1. Replication
  2. Generation of Form
  3. Mutation
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13
Q

Describe generation of form and what it requires.

A

Working organismal structure is form, and DNA is needed to create and maintain that form

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14
Q

What is responsible for offspring resembling their parents?

A

The transmission of genetic material

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15
Q

What are 5 requirements of genetic material?

A
  1. Must carry genetic info/code
  2. Must self-replicate
  3. Must allow for mutation
  4. Must govern phenotype expression (gene function)
  5. Must be stable
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16
Q

Who was the first to evidence DNA as the genetic material of organisms?

A

Frederick Griffith

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17
Q

What did Hershey & Chase conclude?

A

DNA is the genetic material of phages

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18
Q

What was the conclusion of Griffith’s transformation experiment?

A

The live R-Strain was transformed by S-Strain via inheritance of some “transforming principle” from heat-killed S-Strain

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19
Q

What was the purpose of Avery, McLeod, and McCarty’s project?

A

To understand Griffith’s “transforming principle”

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20
Q

Why did the DNAase in Avery, McLeod, and McCarty’s experiment prevent the transformation of the live R-Strain into S-Strain?

A

The DNAase dissolved the heat-killed S-Strain’s DNA

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21
Q

What was Avery, McLeod, and McCarty’s conclusion?

A

DNA was Griffith’s “transforming principle”

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22
Q

What did Hershey and Chase want to know?

A

How phages reprogrammed bacterial cells to create more phages

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23
Q

How did Hershey and Chase set up their experiment?

A

They used 2 sets of phages. One set’s DNA was irradiated with P-32, and the other set’s protein was irradiated with S-35

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24
Q

What was the result of Hershey and Chase’s experiment?

A

The P-32 phages were no longer radioactive, but the S-35 phages were still radioactive. The P-32-infected bacteria were found to contain the P-32 radio-label

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25
Q

What did Hershey and Chase conclude?

A

DNA is the genetic material for the genome of a cell or virus

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26
Q

What is the eukaryotic analog of bacterial transformation?

A

Transfection

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27
Q

Define DNA in terms of it being a polymer.

A

Linear, unbranched polymer with monomeric subunits

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28
Q

What are the 3 parts of a nucleotide?

A

Pentose sugar, phosphate group, & nitrogenous base

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29
Q

How does deoxyribose differ from ribose?

A

Deoxyribose has 2 H’s at C2 while ribose has an H and an OH group at C2

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30
Q

Why is ribose less stable than deoxyribose?

A

The OH group is very reactable

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31
Q

What are the 4 DNA bases?

A

Adenine, guanine, cytosine, & thymine

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32
Q

How does a nitrogenous base bond with pentose?

A

Via an N-glycosidic bond

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33
Q

Which DNA bases are purines?

A

Adenine and guanine

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34
Q

Which DNA bases are pyrimidines?

A

Cytosine & thymine

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35
Q

Is uracil a purine or pyrimidine?

A

Pyrimidine

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36
Q

Which pyrimidine carbon bonds with pentose’s C1?

A

C1

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37
Q

Which purine carbon bonds with pentose’s C1?

A

C9

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38
Q

What is the bond between the pentose and phosphate group called?

A

Phosphodiester bond

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39
Q

What does the sugar-phosphate backbone provide?

A

Support

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40
Q

What gives DNA it’s negative charge?

A

Phosphate group

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41
Q

What makes up a nucleoside?

A

Pentose sugar & base

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42
Q

Describe the DNA shape Watson & Crick built based on Franklin’s research?

A

Right-handed, clockwise helix

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43
Q

What did Franklin find with her x-ray diffraction?

A

The double helical DNA structure

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44
Q

Adenine fits with…

A

Thymine

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45
Q

Cytosine fits with…

A

Guanine

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46
Q

What is the length of one helical turn?

A

34 Angstrom, or 3.4 nm

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47
Q

How many base pairs (bp) per turn?

A

10 to 10.5

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48
Q

Which two types of groove along a helix help to maintain its structure and integrity?

A

Major & minor

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49
Q

Generally describe a major groove.

A

Wide & deep

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50
Q

Generally describe a minor groove.

A

Shallow & broad

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51
Q

What are Chargaff’s rules?

A

1) G is proportionate to C, and A to T
2) G = C, and A = T
3) # of purines & pyrimidines exist 1:1

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52
Q

Why does the G-C duplex have a stronger base pair bond?

A

It has 3 hydrogen bonds as opposed to the 2 that the A-T duplex has

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53
Q

What form is the typical double helix in?

A

B

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54
Q

Major groove (B form) length is…

A

22 Angstrom

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55
Q

Minor groove (B form) length is…

A

12 Angstrom

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56
Q

How does A-form DNA differ from B-form?

A

A-form is shorter, thicker, dehydrated B-form

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57
Q

Under what conditions will you find Z-form DNA?

A

High salt concentration

58
Q

What are 3 factors contributing to the DNA forms?

A

Ionic environment, hydration environment, & protein bind to helical conformation

59
Q

Which process of the central dogma is reversible?

A

Transcription

60
Q

How does replication differ from translation and transcription?

A

Replication deals with the inheritance of gene info while translation and transcription deal with expressing that info

61
Q

Why do RNA viruses mutate so often?

A

RNA is unstable because of the OH group on the ribose sugar

62
Q

What is the result of RNA virus mutation?

A

Large-scale variation

63
Q

How do retroviruses work?

A

They use reverse transcription to make a DNA intermediate and incorporate that DNA into the host genome

64
Q

Why does genome size vary between organisms?

A

Different organisms require different amounts of protein to be produced

65
Q

Do eukaryotes or prokaryotes have the larger genome?

A

Eukaryotes

66
Q

What is DNA supercoiling?

A

Over- or underwinding of DNA and is an expression of the strain on that strand

67
Q

Why is supercoiling important?

A

To be able to compact DNA for packaging within cells

68
Q

What are the 2 states of DNA in terms of coiling?

A

Relaxed & supercoiled

69
Q

DNA that has a normal number of bp per helical turn is said to be in its…

A

Relaxed state

70
Q

What are the 2 types of supercoiling?

A

Positive and negative

71
Q

Describe positive supercoiling.

A

Twists in the same direction; overwinding

72
Q

Describe negative supercoiling.

A

Twisting in opposite direction; underwinding

73
Q

What is the linking number (L)?

A

Number of times a strand wraps around another

74
Q

What two components make up the linking number?

A

Twist (T) and writhe (W)

75
Q

Define twist (T).

A

Number of helical turns

76
Q

Define writhe (W).

A

Number of times double helix crosses itself (i.e. the supercoils)

77
Q

What is the general formula for supercoiling?

A

L = T + W

78
Q

What is the supercoiling formula for relaxed DNA?

A

L = T

79
Q

What is melting temperature (T)?

A

The midpoint of the temperature range where DNA strands separate

80
Q

What does melting temp depend on?

A

G-C content

81
Q

What is the relationship between G-C content and melting temp?

A

^G-C content = ^energy to break bonds = ^T

82
Q

What is hybridization?

A

Renaturation of complementary nucleic acid sequences

83
Q

Which sequences can hybridize into a duplex?

A

Complementary sequences

84
Q

What are the 4 RNA bases?

A

Adenine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil

85
Q

What are the 3 types of RNA?

A

1) Messenger RNA (mRNA)
2) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
3) Transfer RNA (tRNA)

86
Q

What is the key to DNA’s longevity?

A

The absence of the OH makes it more stable

87
Q

What is the purpose of mRNA’s presence in gene expression?

A

It turns genes ON and OFF depending on if mRNA is present or not

88
Q

How does the OH group in RNA help when a gene is defective?

A

The OH helps decompose the RNA, and mRNA can turn off those defective genes once decomposed

89
Q

What is the endgame of DNA’s longevity?

A

To carry all genetic information needed to build up an organism

90
Q

Which is more resistant to photochemical mutation? Thymine or cytosine?

A

Thymine

91
Q

How does thymine help the genetic message?

A

Thymine makes it more stable

92
Q

Cytosine frequently deaminates to…

A

Uracil

93
Q

Why is the deamination of cytosine so harmful to DNA (HINT: repair enzymes)?

A

The repair enzymes can’t tell the difference between C & U, particularly if U is already present in the DNA, and U is very prone to photochemical mutations

94
Q

How does thymine remedy cytosine deamination (HINT: thymine’s methyl group)?

A

T’s hydrophobic methyl ensures proper base pairings while C sorts itself out and replaces the defective one

95
Q

What are two advantages to uracil’s resistance to oxidation in the cytoplasm?

A

Reduced energy expense & surviving outside the nucleus in RNA

96
Q

What is RNA’s general function?

A

To carry genetic info from DNA into the cytoplasm

97
Q

What is the predominant form of RNA?

A

mRNA

98
Q

What is the purpose of RNA being the intermediate of the central dogma?

A

DNA is vital and never leaves the nucleus, so a liaison is needed to carry genetic info

99
Q

What are 2 possible damages DNA could sustain if RNA didn’t exist?

A

1) Frequent unwinding & unwrapping of chromosomes
2) The collision of replication & proteinsynthesis

100
Q

How many possible codons are there to account for the 20 amino acids?

A

64

101
Q

This is described as the blueprint of DNA and RNA…

A

The genetic code

102
Q

Define codon

A

Nucleotide triplet that codes for an amino acid

103
Q

What is the unambiguous rule of codons (HINT: the codon’s faithfulness & fidelity)?

A

One codon codes for one amino acid

104
Q

Amino acids can be considered hoes because…

A

They are not bound by any one codon

105
Q

How many codons actually code for amino acids?

A

61

106
Q

What are the 3 types of codons?

A

Sense, start, and stop

107
Q

What is the function of a sense codon?

A

To code for amino acids

108
Q

What is the function of the start codon?

A

To initiate an amino acid sequence

109
Q

What is the start codon and its associated amino acid?

A

AUG - methionine

110
Q

What is the function of a stop codon?

A

To end proteinsynthesis

111
Q

Name the 3 stop (nonsense) codons.

A

UAA
UAG
UGA

112
Q

The genetic code is non-overlapping. What does this mean?

A

One base cannot participate in the formation of more than one codon

113
Q

Why is reading a codon left to right different from reading it right to left?

A

The direction will specify different amino acids

114
Q

What are the 3 types of mutation?

A

1) Substitution
2) Insertion
3) Deletion

115
Q

What is a nonsense mutation?

A

A single substitution leading to the end of proteinsynthesis

116
Q

What is a substitution (point/missense) mutation?

A

A single base is substituted for another

117
Q

What is an insertion mutation?

A

Base is added to sequence

118
Q

What is a deletion mutation?

A

Base is deleted from sequence

119
Q

Insertion and deletion mutations can lead to a frameshift. What happens with a frameshift mutation?

A

Bases deleted or inserted cause a shift in the codon set

120
Q

Which type of mutation has the least effect?

A

Substitution

121
Q

Which mutation has the greatest effect?

A

Frameshift

122
Q

What are the 3 possible reading frames for nonoverlapping triplets?

A

1st, 2nd, and 3rd position

123
Q

What is the purpose of an open reading frame?

A

To be the sequence translated into the polypeptide.

124
Q

How many open reading frames are in any stretch of DNA?

A

Usually no more than 1

125
Q

Why are alternate reading frames not often considered?

A

They’re frequent to stop codons

126
Q

What is the antisense/template strand?

A

The DNA strand complementary to the mRNA sequence

127
Q

What is the coding/sense strand?

A

The top DNA strand that runs from 5’ to 3’ and is nearly identical to the mRNA sequence (has thymine instead of uracil)

128
Q

Define gene expression.

A

Process by which genetic info is used to make RNA/polypeptides

129
Q

What are the 3 main components of an amino acid?

A

Amino group, carboxyl group, and an R-group

130
Q

The amino group is the { } terminal of an amino acid.

A

End

131
Q

The carboxyl group is the { } terminal of an amino acid.

A

C

132
Q

What are the 4 distinct R-groups for the amino acids as depicted in the lecture?

A

1) Nonpolar hydrophobic
2) Polar uncharged
3) Polar acidic
4) Polar basic

133
Q

The peptide bond is the result of…

A

The condensation/dehydration reaction occurring between amino acids

134
Q

How many amino acid residues are there in a protein?

A

More than 60

135
Q

What is the shape of primary protein structure?

A

Linear peptide chain

136
Q

What does primary protein structure dictate protein function?

A

Indirectly through additional structure levels

137
Q

What 2 conformations can secondary protein structures be presented as?

A

Alpha helices & beta sheets

138
Q

What is secondary protein structure responsible for?

A

Generating overall conformation and fold of a protein

139
Q

What type of bond forms under secondary structure?

A

H-bonds

140
Q

What is tertiary protein structure?

A

The folding of secondary components into 3D configuration

141
Q

What interactions in tertiary structure are believed to contribute to protein stability?

A

The hydrophobic interactions from nonpolar side chains

142
Q

What is quaternary structure?

A

The folding of 2 or more tertiary structures into multi-subunit proteins

Molecular Biology (21 decks)

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