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CERT Skills > CERT Textbook > Flashcards

CERT Textbook Flashcards

1
Q

CERT stands for…

A

Community Emergency Response Team
- CERT’s are a bridge to professional responders until they are able to arrive
- This training covers basic skills that are important to know in a disaster when emergency services are not available

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2
Q

EOP stands for…

A

Emergency Operations Plan
- Describes how the community will function in an emergency

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3
Q

SOP stands for….

A

Standard Operating Procedures
- A set of written instructions that describes the step-by-step process that must be taken to properly perform a routine activity

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4
Q

Social Capital is…

A

The value we place on our relationships with one another

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5
Q

What are 4 examples of natural disasters?

A

Earthquakes, wildfires, flood, extreme heat

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6
Q

What are 2 examples of technological and accidental disasters?

A

Hazardous material spill and nuclear power plant accident

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7
Q

What are three examples of terrorism disasters?

A

Chemical accidents, nuclear accidents, and explosive weapons

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8
Q

What are the key elements of disasters?

A
  • Unexpected (for the most part)
  • May overwhelm available response personnel + emergency services
  • Endanger lives, health, and environment
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9
Q

When a disaster occurs, a CERT members first responsibility is to:

A

Ensure personal + family safety

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10
Q

CERT members volunteer to fill non-disaster roles. An example of a non-disaster
function of CERTs is:

A

Staffing parades, health fairs, and other special events

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11
Q

There are five types of disasters. They are natural, terrorist, home fires,
pandemic and ______________.

A

Technological and Accidental

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT a hazard associated with home fixtures?
A. Gas line ruptures
B. Hazardous material spill
C. Injury or electric shock
D. Fire from faulty wiring

A

B. Hazardous material spill

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13
Q

What are the 9 steps of CERT size-up?

A
  1. Gather facts
  2. Access and communicate damage
  3. Consider possibilities
  4. Assess your own situation
  5. Establish properties
  6. Make decisions
  7. Develop a plan of action
  8. Take action
  9. Evaluate progress
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14
Q

Should rescue be attempted in a heavy damage site?

A

No, too dangerous to enter

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15
Q

Should rescue be attempted in a moderate damage site?

A

Yes, but only quick and safe removals

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16
Q

Should rescue be attempted in a light damage site?

A

Yes, locate, assess, continue size-up, and document

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17
Q

What are the five crucial steps when approaching a victim?

A
  1. Make sure the patient can see you
  2. Identify yourself (name and organization)
  3. Request permission to treat- an unconscious patient is assumed to have implied consent. ask parent/guardian of a child if possible
  4. Respect cultural differences if possible
  5. Be mindful of privacy (HIPAA!)
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18
Q

The average person has approximately ___ liters of blood

A

5

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19
Q

True or False: Severe blood loss can result in irreversible shock

A

True

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20
Q

What are indications of life threatening bleeding

A
  • Spurting/steady bleeding
  • Blood is pooling
  • Blood is soaking through overlying clothes
  • Blood is soaking through bandages
  • Amputation
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21
Q

Typically, how many stages of excessive bleeding are there?

A

4 stages

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22
Q

What is the first stage of severe bleeding?

A

Less than 15% blood loss, normal heart rate and blood pressure, 14-20 breath rate, patient appears normal

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23
Q

What is the normal breath rate?

A

12-16 per minute

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24
Q

What is the second stage of severe bleeding?

A

15-30% blood loss, fast heart rate (>100 bpm), slightly low blood pressure, 20-30 breath rate, patient may feel anxious

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25
Q

What is the third stage of severe bleeding?

A

30-40% blood loss, very fast heart rate (>120 bpm), low blood pressure, 30-40 breath rate, patient may feel confused

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26
Q

What is the fourth stage of severe bleeding?

A

> 40% blood loss, critical heart rate (>140 bpm), critical blood pressure, >35 breath rate, patient feel lethargic

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27
Q

What are the three types of bleeding?

A

Arterial, Venous, & Capillary

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28
Q

What is arterial bleeding?

A

Blood coming from an artery. Will spurt and will be bright red because it is oxygenated blood

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29
Q

What is venous bleeding?

A

Blood coming from a vein. Will flow and be dark red because it is not oxygenated

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30
Q

What is capillary bleeding?

A

Blood coming from a capillary (low pressure). Will ooze and is a bright red color

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31
Q

What is the first way to control excessive bleeding?

A

Direct, constant pressure

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32
Q

If direct pressure does not work, you should ______ __ _____________.

A

apply a tourniquet

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33
Q

What are the main signs of shock?

A
  • rapid/shallow breathing
  • capillary refill greater than 2 seconds
  • failure to follow simple commands (“squeeze my hand”)
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34
Q

What are ways you can maintain someone’s body temperature?

A
  • remove wet clothing
  • placing something between the patient and the ground
  • wrap the injured person with dry layers
  • shield person from the wind (your body or surrounding objects)
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35
Q

What are things you can use to separate an injured person from the ground?

A

cardboard, jacket, or blanket

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36
Q

What is the recovery position?

A

body laid on its side, bottom arm reached outward, top arm placed on bicep of bottom arm, head rested on hand, legs slightly bent, chin raised forward, and mouth pointed downward

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37
Q

What should you do in you suspect a spine injury when moving someone into the recovery position?

A

1) support the head and neck when rolling them over
2) do not move them more than necessary

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38
Q

What is the epidermis?

A

The outer layer of the skin that contains nerve endings and is penetrated by hairs

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39
Q

What is the dermis?

A

The middle layer of of skin, containing blood vessels, oil glands, hair follicles, and sweat glands

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40
Q

What is the subcutaneous?

A

The innermost layer of skin that contains blood vessels and overlies the muscle

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41
Q

Superficial burns affect what layer of the skin?

A

epidermis

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42
Q

What are the signs of superficial burns?

A
  • reddened dry skin
  • pain
  • possible swelling
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43
Q

Partial thickness burns affect what layer of the skin?

A

epidermis and partial destruction of the dermis

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44
Q

What are signs of partial thickness burns?

A
  • reddened blistered skin
  • wet appearance
  • pain
  • possible swelling
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45
Q

Full thickness burns affect what layer of the skin?

A

complete destruction of the epidermis and dermis, possible destruction of the subcutaneous

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46
Q

What are signs of full thickness burns?

A

whitened, leathery, or charred (brown or black), painful, or relatively painless

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47
Q

The guidelines for treating heat burns are…

A

Cooling the burn and dressing the burn

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48
Q

What should you do when cooling a heat burn?

A

1) remove the patient from burning source and remove clothing unless it is stuck to the skin
2) cool skin and clothing if they are still hot: immerse them in cold water for more than 1 minute and covering them with cold compresses that have been soaked in cold water and sprung out
3) do not use ice because it can cause vessel constriction
4) rapid temperature changes can lead to shock

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49
Q

What should you do when dressing a heat burn?

A

1) cover loosely with dry, sterile dressings to keep air out, reduce pain, and prevent infection
2) when treating burns on hands and feet, wrap fingers/toes loosely and individually
3) loosen clothing, remove jewelry, but ALWAYS document what was taken off, by whom, and who it was given to
4) do not apply antiseptics, ointments, or other remedies
5) do not remove shreds of tissues, break blisters, or remove adhered particles of clothing

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50
Q

True or False: Chemical burns are a lot different than traditional burns

A

True

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51
Q

What should you do if you suspect a chemical burn?

A

1) Protect yourself from the substance
2) Remove affected clothing/ jewelry
3) If the iirtiant is dry, gently brush away from the patient and yourself
3) Use cooling water to flush the chemical from the skin for at least 10 minutes
4) Apply a wet, cool compress to relieve pain
5) Cover the wound very loosely with a dry, sterile cloth (so that it does not stick!)
*for chemical burns it is best to defer treatment to trained professionals

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52
Q

The main treatment for wounds include:

A

control bleeding, and apply dressing/bandage

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53
Q

How are dressing and bandages different?

A

Dressings should be applied directly on the wound and should be sterile (if possible)

A bandage holds the dressing in place

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54
Q

What are the rules of dressings?

A

1) if the dressing is soaked with blood, redress over it and maintain pressure
2) In the absence of active bleeding, maintain the pressure and keep the wound bandaged until further treatment by a medical professional

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55
Q

What are signs of possible infection?

A
  • swelling around wound site
  • discoloration
  • discharge from the wound
    -red striations from the wound site
56
Q

True or False: CERT volunteers can amputate body parts

A

False

57
Q

When a severed body part is located, CERT volunteers can…

A
  • Save tissue parts: wrap in a clean material, put into a plastic bag, and write patients name, date, and time
  • Keep tissue parts cool, but not in direct contact with ice
  • Keep severed body part near the patient
58
Q

Scenario: You arrive to a scene where a building collapsed and you have a patient with a large piece of wood impaled in their leg, what should you do?

A

Not attempt to remove the impaled object, but try to control bleeding, clean and dress wound making sure to stabilize the object, and wrap bulky dressings to keep the object from moving

59
Q

A broken bone with some kind of wound that allows contaminants to enter into or around the fracture site is an…

A

open fracture

60
Q

A broken bone with no associated wound is a….

A

closed fracture

61
Q

What is a displaced fracture?

A

A fracture in which the fractured bone is no longer aligned

62
Q

What is a nondisplaced fracture?

A

A fracture in which the fractured bone still remains aligned

63
Q

True or False: You can fix an open fracture with only a splint

A

False; closed fractures are generally treated with only splinting, but open fractures are more complicated

64
Q

What should you do when treating an open fracture?

A
  • Do not draw the exposed bone ends back into the tissue
  • Do not irrigate the wound
  • Cover the wound with a sterile dressing and apply pressure
  • Splint the fracture without disturbing the wound
  • Place a moist 4 by 4 inch dressing over the bone to keep it from drying out
65
Q

A dislocation is…

A

An injury to the ligaments around a joint that is so severe that it permits separation of the bone from its normal position in the joint

66
Q

True or False: You should treat a suspected dislocation, sprain, or strain like a closed fracture

A

True

67
Q

What does a sprain involve?

A

A sprain involves a stretching or tearing of ligaments at a joint.

68
Q

Tenderness at the site of injury, swelling/bruising, and restricted use or loss of use are signs of a…

A

sprain

69
Q

What types of materials can be used for splinting?

A

cardboard, towels, blankets, pillows, metal strip, magazines, or newspapers

70
Q

What is hypothermia?

A

A condition that occurs when the body’s temperature drops below normal

71
Q

What is frostbite?

A

Occurs when extreme cold shuts down blood flow to extremities causing tissue death

72
Q

What are the primary signs of hypothermia?

A
  • a body temperature <95 F
  • redness or blueness of the skin
  • numbness accompanied by shivering
    in later stages:
  • slurred speech
  • unpredictable behavior
  • listlessness
73
Q

What are the key symptoms of frostbite?

A
  • skin discoloration (red, white, purple, black)
  • burning or tingling sensation (not always near injury site)
  • partial or complete numbness
74
Q

True or False: You should warm up a frostbite victim as QUICKLY as possible

A

False: Warming up the body too quickly can caused chilled blood flow to the heart, shocking and/or stopping it

75
Q

True or False: Massaging the body is a good way to warm up the body

A

False; never do this!

76
Q

Muscle spasms brought on by over-exertion in extreme heat are…

A

heat cramps

77
Q

____ __________ occurs when an individual exercises or works in extreme heat, resulting in loss of body fluids through heavy sweating. Blood flow to the skin increases, causing blood flow to decrease in the vital organs. This results in a mild form of shock

A

Heat exhaustion

78
Q

What is a heat stroke?

A

a life-threatening condition when the patient’s temperature control system shuts down, and body temperature can rise so high that brain damage and death may result

79
Q

Heat exhaustion symptoms include:

A
  • cool, moist, pale, or flushed skin
  • heavy sweating
  • headache
  • nausea or vomiting
  • dizziness
  • exhaustion
  • near normal body temperature
80
Q

Heat stroke symptoms include:

A
  • hot or red skin
  • lack of perspiration
  • changes in consciousness
  • rapid, weak pulse and rapid, shallow breathing
  • very high body temperature
81
Q

What is the difference in body temperature in heat exhaustion vs heat stroke?

A

heat exhaustion will result in a near normal body temperature, while a heat stroke patient will have very high body temperature (as high as 105 F)

82
Q

What are the steps for treating an insect bite/sting?

A

1) Remove the stinger by scraping it with the edge of a credit card or other straight-edge object
2) Wash the site thoroughly with soap and water
3) Place ice wrapped in a washcloth on the site of the sting for 10 minutes then off for 10 minutes (repeat this step)

83
Q

True or False: Tweezers are a way you can removed the stinger when treating an insect bite/sting

A

False; never use tweezers because you can potentially increase the amount of venom released

84
Q

Scenario: You arrive on scene and there is a 7 year old girl that got stung by a bee. You find out she is allergic, what should you do?

A

1) calm the individual
2) administer an epi-pen if available
* no other medication

85
Q

Triage/Assessment is…

A

The initial assessment and sorting of survivors for treatment based on the severity of their injuries

86
Q

Having multiple treatment areas in a mass casualty is also called a…

A

Decentralized treatment area

87
Q

Having one centralized treatment area is known as a…

A

Centralized treatment area

88
Q

**DCAP-BTLS means

A

Deformities
Contusions (bruising)
Abrasions
Punctures/Penetrations
Burns
Tenderness
Lacerations
Swelling

89
Q
  • Change in consciousness
  • Inability to move 1 or more body parts
  • Severe pain in head, neck, or back
  • Tingling or numbness
  • Difficulty breathing/seeing
  • Blood or fluid in the ears or nose
  • Bruising behind the ear
  • “Racoon” eyes
  • Uneven pupils
  • Seizures, nausea, or vomiting
    are all signs of what?
A

Closed-head, neck, or spinal injury

90
Q

What are ways CERT members can maintain hygiene?

A
  • Wash hands frequently using soap and water (hand sanitizer is a good alternative)
  • Wear non-latex exam gloves at all times
  • Keep dressings sterile
  • Wash any areas using soap and water or diluted bleach that come in contact with body fluids
91
Q

How can you purify water in an emergency?

A

1) heat it to a rolling boil for 1 min
2) using water purification tablets
3) or non-perfumed liquid bleach

92
Q

What are the bleach to water ratios for purifying water?

A

8 drops of bleach per gallon of water or 16 drops if the water is cloudy/dirty (1 part bleach, 10 parts water)

Let stand for 30 minutes, if the solution does not smell of bleach add 6 drops and let stand for 15 minutes

93
Q

What is vicarious trauma?

A

a natural reaction of an individual exposed to a survivors trauma; a person may take on that survivors trauma

94
Q

What are the five F’s?

A

the five primary responses to stress
1) Freeze
2) Flight
3) Fight
4) Fright
5) Faint

95
Q

What are possible psychological symptoms to disaster reactions?

A

emotional
- nervousness
- shock
- numbness
- inability to feel love or joy
cognitive
- difficulty making decisions
- dreams
spiritual
- loss of hope
- questioning
- redefining meaning to life

96
Q

What are possible physical symptoms to a disaster reaction?

A
  • loss of appetite
  • headache
  • chest pain
  • stomach problems
  • hyperactivity
  • increase in alcohol/drug consumption
  • nightmares/no sleep
  • fatigue
97
Q

“Listen, _______, Connect” is a common saying when approaching individuals after a disaster

A

Protect

98
Q

True or False: When providing support you can say “I understand”, “You are strong”, “Don’t feel bad”, etc.

A

False; all of these can be misinterpreted, instead say:
“I’m sorry for your pain”
“Can I help you with…”
“What do you need”
“ I can’t imagine what this is like for you”

99
Q

How should a CERT member manage a death scene?

A
  • Cover the body for respect
  • Follow local laws/protocols
  • Talk with authorities to determine a plan
100
Q

Fire requires 3 elements. What are the 3 elements?

A

Heat, fuel, and oxygen

101
Q

Ordinary combustibles, such as paper, cloth, wood, rubber, and many plastics are in which class of fires?

A

Class A

102
Q

Flammable liquids, including oils and gasoline as well as combustible liquids such as charcoal lighter fluid and kerosene. Only the vapor burns when ignited.
This is which class of fires?

A

Class B

103
Q

Energized electrical equipment, such as wires and motors. When the electricity is turned off, the fire becomes a class A. This is a class __.

A

Class C

104
Q

Combustible metals, including aluminium, magnesium, and titanium are a part of which class of fires?

A

Class D

105
Q

Cooking oils such as vegetable oils, animal oils, and fats are part of which class of fires?

A

Class K

106
Q

What are the four types of fire extinguishers?

A
  • water
  • dry chemical
  • carbon dioxide
  • specialized
107
Q

How should you operate a fire extinguisher?

A

PASS
Pull
Aim
Squeeze
Sweep

108
Q

What type of extinguishers should you use for a class A fire?

A

water, foam, dry chemical

removes air, heat, and breaks chain reaction

109
Q

What type of extinguishers should you use for a class B fire?

A

foam, CO2, dry chemical

removes air and breaks chain reaction

110
Q

What type of extinguisher should you use for a class C fire?

A

CO2 and dry chemical

removes air and breaks chain reaction

111
Q

What type of extinguisher should you use for a class D fire?

A

special agents

usually removes air

112
Q

What type of extinguisher should you use for a class K fire?

A

chemical

usually removes air

113
Q

______ ________ is an odorless, colorless, poisonous gas that is lighter than air

A

Carbon monoxide

114
Q

Materials are considered ___________ if they…
- corrode other materials
- easily ignite or explode
- react strongly with water
- are unstable when exposed to heat/shock
- are otherwise toxic

A

hazardous

115
Q

On the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 704 diamond the red quadrant describes ___________.

A

flammability

116
Q

On the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 704 diamond the blue quadrant indicates ______ ________.

A

health hazard

117
Q

On the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 704 diamond the yellow quadrant indicates ________

A

reactivity

118
Q

On the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 704 diamond the white quadrant indicates ___________ ____________.

A

special precautions

119
Q

What is the NFPA 704 diamond?

A

a diamond divided into four quadrants, each with a rating number inside it, which indicates the degree of risk associated with it (0-4). The higher the #, the higher the risk

120
Q

A “W” on the NFPA 704 diamond indicates what?

A

material displays unusual reaction with water

121
Q

An “OX” on the NFPA 704 diamond indicates what?

A

a material that possesses oxidizing properties

122
Q

“ACID” on the NFPA 704 diamond indicates what?

A

material is an acid

123
Q

“ALK” on the NFPA 704 diamond indicates what?

A

the material is a base

124
Q

“COR” on the NFPA 704 diamond indicates what?

A

the material is corrosive

125
Q

What are signs exhibited by a potential terrorist?

A
  • surveillance
  • elicitation
  • test of security
  • funding
  • acquiring supplies
  • impersonation or suspicious people who do not belong
  • rehearsal or dry runs
  • deployment
126
Q

How should you react if an active shooter is in your vicinity?

A

1) run
2) hide
3) fight

127
Q

The ___ Zone is referred to as the incident scene and the contaminated area around the scene

A

Hot

128
Q

The ____ Zone in a decontamination situation would be upwind from the Hot Zone and is used to isolate survivors during decontamination. In a non-decontamination situation, such as a terrorist attack, this zone will be the area immediately outside of the incident scene

A

Warm

129
Q

The ____ Zone is located beyond the Warm Zone. Survivors will be evacuated to this zone and kept there until professional responders authorize them to leave

A

Cold

130
Q

CBRNE stands for…

A

Chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-yield explosive

131
Q

Phase 1

A

Death within minutes as a result of overwhelming and irreversible damage to the vital organs

132
Q

Phase 2

A

Death within several hours as a result of excessive bleeding

133
Q

Phase 3

A

Death is several days or weeks as a result of infection or multiple-organ failure

134
Q

Earthquakes are classified based on the _______ scale.

A

Richter

135
Q

Citizen Corps is …

A

a movement to strengthen community safety and preparedness

136
Q

What is the elevation level

A

wound above heart

137
Q

The “Killers” are…

A

1) Airway obstruction
2) Excessive bleeding
3) Signs of shock

CERT Skills (4 decks)

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