Cellular vs Humoral Innate Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

The study of a host’s reactions when foreign substances are introduced into the body

A

Immunology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The condition of being resistant to infection

A

Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A foreign substance that induces an immune response

A

Antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Variolation is the practice of deliberately exposing an individual to material from____________

A

smallpox lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Discovered a remarkable relationship between exposure to cowpox and immunity to smallpox

A

EDWARD JENNER (1700s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Edward Jenner deliberately injected individuals with material from cowpox lesions to protect them from smallpox, known as ___________

A

vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

“_____“=cow

A

Vacca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the phenomenon in which exposure to one agent produces protection against another agent

A

Cross-immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Often called the “Father of immunology”

A

LOUIS PASTEUR (1800s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Louis Pasteur discovered his attenuated vaccine while working with the bacteria that caused _________

A

chicken cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

___________ or change may occur through heat, aging, or chemical means

A

Attenuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Discovered phagocytosis (cells that eat cells)

A

ELLIE METCHNIKOFF (late 1800s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ellie Metchnikoff hypothesized that immunity to a disease was based on the action of the _______________

A

scavenger cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Demonstrated that diphtheria and tetanus toxins, which are produced by specific microorganisms as they grow, could be neutralized by the noncellular portion of the blood of animals previously exposed to the microorganisms

A

EMIL VON BEHRING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The discovery of Emil Von Behring gave birth to the theory of ______________

A

Humoral Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Linked the two theories by showing that the immune response involved both cellular and humoral elements

A

ALMROTH WRIGHT (1903)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Almroth Wright observed that certain humoral, or circulating, factors called ____________acted to coat bacteria so that they became more susceptible to ingestion by phagocytic cells

A

opsonins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ALMWROTH WRIGHT (1903)

These serum factors include specific proteins known as _________ as well as other factors called ________________ that increase nonspecifically in any infection

A

antibodies
acute-phase reactants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

_______________: the important process in host defense by which particles or complexes are made readily ingestible for uptake by phagocytic cells.

A

Opsonization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Specific serum proteins, known as opsonins, coat particles and cause the particles to bind avidly to __________ and trigger _________

A

phagocytes
ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A cellular process for ingesting and eliminating particles, including foreign substances, microorganisms, and apoptotic cells

A

PHAGOCYTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

c

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CHEMOTAXIS

Enumerate the bacterial factors

A

bacterial proteins
capsules
LPS
peptidoglycan
teichoic acids, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CHEMOTAXIS

Example of complement proteins

A

C5a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

CHEMOTAXIS

Example of chemokines

A

chemotactic cytokines such as interleukin-8 secreted by various cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CHEMOTAXIS

Enumerate the attractans

A

Bacterial factors
Complement proteins
Chemokines
FIbrin split products
Kinin
Phospholipids released by injured host cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The movement of leukocytes (neutrophils) out of the blood vessels and towards the site of tissue damage or infection

A

DIAPEDESIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Both cells and soluble factors play essential parts

A

INTERNAL DEFENSE SYSTEM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Designed to recognize molecules that are unique to infectious organisms

A

INTERNAL DEFENSE SYSTEM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

White blood cells seek out and destroy foreign cells by participating in phagocytosis

A

INTERNAL DEFENSE SYSTEM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is being described?

Normal serum constituents that increase rapidly by at least ____________ to infection, injury, or trauma to the tissues

A

ACUTE-PHASE REACTANTS

25 percent due

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ACUTE-PHASE REACTANTS

Produced primarily by hepatocytes within ___________________ in response to an increase intercellular signaling polypeptides – cytokines

A

12-24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

C-reactive protein

Respone time (hr):_________
Normal conc. (mg/dL):___________
Increase:___________

A

6-10
0.5
1000x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

C-reactive protein function

A

Opsonization, complement activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Serum amyloid A

Respone time (hr):_________
Normal conc. (mg/dL):___________
Increase:___________

A

24
3.0
1000x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Serum amyloid A function

A

Removal of cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Alpha1-antitripsin

Respone time (hr):_________
Normal conc. (mg/dL):___________
Increase:___________

A

24
200-400
2-5x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Alpha1-antitripsin function

A

Protease inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Fibrinogen

Respone time (hr):_________
Normal conc. (mg/dL):___________
Increase:___________

A

24
110-400
2-5X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Fibrinogen function

A

Clot formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Fibrinogen function

A

Clot formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Haptoglobin

Respone time (hr):_________
Normal conc. (mg/dL):___________
Increase:___________

A

24
40-200
2-10X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Haptoglobin function

A

Binds hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Ceruloplasmin

Respone time (hr):_________
Normal conc. (mg/dL):___________
Increase:___________

A

48-72
20-40
2x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Ceruloplasmin function

A

Binds copper an oxidizes iron

46
Q

Complement C3

Respone time (hr):_________
Normal conc. (mg/dL):___________
Increase:___________

A

48-72
60-140
2X

47
Q

Complement C3 Function

A

Opsonization, lysis

48
Q

Mannose-binding protein

Respone time (hr):_________
Normal conc. (mg/dL):___________
Increase:___________

A

?
0.15-1.0
?

49
Q

Mannose-binding protein Function

A

Complement activation

50
Q

C-reactive proteins are elevated in:

A

bacterial infections
rheumatic fever,
viral infections
malignant diseases
tuberculosis, and
after a heart attack

51
Q

Capable of opsonization (the coating of foreign particles), agglutination, precipitation, and activation of complement by the classical pathway

A

C-reactive protein

52
Q

An apolipoprotein that is synthesized in the liver, associated with HDL cholesterol, removing cholesterol from cholesterol-filled macrophages

A

Serum Amyloid A

53
Q

At the site of tissue injury, facilitates recycling of cell membrane cholesterol and phospholipids for reuse in building membranes of new cells required during acute inflammation

A

Serum Amyloid A

54
Q

Refers to a series of serum proteins that are normally present and whose overall function is mediation of inflammation

A

Complement

55
Q

Major functions of _________ are opsonization, chemotaxis, and lysis of cells

A

Complement

56
Q

An opsonin able to recognize foreign carbohydrates such as mannose and several other sugars found primarily on bacteria, some yeasts, viruses, and several parasites

A

Mannose-Binding Protein (MBP)

57
Q

A general plasma inhibitor of proteases (enzymes that contributes to the virulence of bacteria) released from leukocytes, especially ___________

A

Alpha1-Antitrypsin

elastase

58
Q

an endogenous enzyme that can degrade elastin and collagen

A

Elastase

59
Q

T/F: Once bound to Serum Amyloid A, the protease is completely inactivated and is subsequently removed from the area of tissue damage and catabolized

A

FALSE; Alpha1-antitripsin

60
Q

Binds irreversibly to free hemoglobin released by intravascular hemolysis, the complex is cleared rapidly by _________ and ___________ cells in the liver, thus preventing loss of free hemoglobin

A

Haptoglobin

Kupffer, parenchymal

61
Q

The most abundant of the coagulation factors in plasma, and it forms the fibrin clot.

A

Fibrinogen

62
Q

T/F: formation of a clot also creates a barrier that helps prevent the spread of microorganisms further into the body

A

True

63
Q

The principal copper-transporting protein in human plasma, circulating copper is absorbed out by the ________ and either combined with ceruloplasmin and returned to the plasma or excreted into the _________

A

Ceruloplasmin

liver, bile duct

64
Q

Contain a large number of neutral staining granules, which are classified as primary, secondary, and tertiary granules

A

Neutrophils

65
Q

Contain enzymes such as myeloperoxidase, elastase, proteinase 3, lysozyme, cathepsin G, and defensins, small proteins that have antibacterial activity

A

PRIMARY GRANULES/AZUROPHILIC GRANULES

66
Q

PRIMARY GRANULES/AZUROPHILIC GRANULES

Enumerate the enzymes/small proteins that have antibacterial activity

A

Myeloperoxidase
Elastase
Proteinase 3
Lysozyme
Cathepsin G
Defensins

67
Q

PRIMARY GRANULES/AZUROPHILIC GRANULES

The enzymes are attracted to a specific area by ______________

A

Chemotactic factors

68
Q

Enumerate Azurophilic Granules

A

Neutrophil elastase
Myeloperoxidase
Cathepsin G
Proteinase 3
Azurocidin
Defensins

69
Q

Enumerate Specific Granules

A

Collagenase
Gelatinase
Lactoferrin
Lysozyme
Lipocalin

70
Q

Enumerate Gelatinase Granules

A

Collagenase
Gelatinase
Acyl transferase
Cathepsin

71
Q

Enumerate Secretory Vesicles

A

Plasma proteins
Membrane receptors

72
Q

characterized by the presence of collagenase, lactoferrin, lysozyme, reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) oxidase, and membrane proteins normally associated with the plasma membrane

A

Secondary granules

73
Q

Secondary granules are characterized by the presence of:

A

Collagenase
Lactoferrin
Lysozyme
Reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) oxidase
membrane proteins

74
Q

gelatinase and plasminogen activator

A

Tertiary granules

75
Q

chemical messengers that cause cells to migrate in a particular direction

A

Chemotaxins

76
Q

Most important role is neutralizing basophil and mast cell products and killing certain parasites

A

Eosinophils

77
Q

EOSINOPHILS

Primary granules contain:

A

Acid phosphatase
Arylsulfatase

78
Q

EOSINOPHIL

Eosinophil-specific granules contain

A

Major basic protein
Eosinophil cationic protein
Eosinophil peroxidase
Eosinophil-derived neurotoxin

79
Q

Constituents of these granules are histamine, a small amount of heparin, and eosinophil chemotactic factor-A,

A

Basophils

80
Q

Constituents of Basophils

A

Histamine
Small amount of heparin
Eosinophil chemotactic factor-A

81
Q

T/F: all constituents of basophils all have an important function in inducing and maintaining immediate hypersensitivity reactions

A

True

82
Q

They are connective tissue cells of mesenchymal origin, and they have a long-life span of between ____________________. They are widely distributed throughout the body and are larger than __________

A

Mast cells

9 and 18 months, basophils

83
Q

This granules actually have two types

A

Monocytes

84
Q

MONOCYTES

First type contains

A

Peroxidase
Acid phosphatase
Arylsulfatase

85
Q

The one type of monocyte that contains peroxidase, acid phosphatase, and arylsulfatase indicated that these granules are similar to the lysosomes of __________________

A

Neutrophils

86
Q

MONOCYTE

Second type contains

A

B-glucoronidase
Lysozyme
Lipase

87
Q

MONOCYTE

Second type contains

A

β-glucuronidase
lysozyme, and
lipase

88
Q

T/F: The second type of monocyte has alkaline phosphatase

A

FALSE; (but no alkaline phosphatase)

89
Q

Monocyte-macrophage system plays an important role in initiating and regulating the immune response,

A

Tissue macrophage

90
Q

Tissue macrophage function

A

Microbial killing
tumoricidal activity
Intracellular parasite
Eradication
Phagocytosis
Secretion of cell mediators
Antigen presentation

91
Q

Killing activity is enhanced when macrophages become “activated” by contact with microorganisms or with chemical messengers called ____________, which are released by _____________ during the immune response

A

cytokines
T lymphocytes

92
Q

Main function is to phagocytose antigen and present it to helper T lymphocytes

A

DENDRITIC CELLS

93
Q

After capturing antigen in the tissue by phagocytosis or endocytosis, they migrate to the blood and to lymphoid organs, where they present antigen to T lymphocytes to initiate the acquired immune response.

A

DENDRITIC CELLS

94
Q

They are the most potent phagocytic cell in the tissue

A

DENDRITIC CELLS

95
Q

The process of phagocytosis consists of four main steps:

  1. Physical contact between the _______ and the ____________
  2. Formation of a ___________
  3. Fusion with _______________ to form a phagolysosome
  4. ___________ and release of debris to the outside
A
  1. white cell, foreign particle
  2. phagosome
  3. cytoplasmic granules
  4. Digestion
96
Q

PHAGOCYTOSIS

Enhanced by opsonins, a term derived from the Greek word meaning “___________________”

A

to prepare for eating

97
Q

T/F: Opsonins are serum proteins that attach to a foreign substance and help prepare it for phagocytosis

A

True

98
Q

Enumerate the important opsonins

A

C-reactive protein
Complement components, and
Antibodies

99
Q

Overall reaction of the body to injury or invasion by an infectious agent, cellular and humoral mechanisms are involved

A

INFLAMMATION

100
Q

The four cardinal signs or clinical symptoms are:

A

redness
swelling
heat, and
pain

101
Q

Major events associated with the process of inflammation are:

  1. Increased ________ to the infected area
  2. Increased ____________ caused by retraction of endothelial cells lining the vessels
  3. Migration of white blood cells, mainly __________, from the capillaries to the surrounding tissue
  4. Migration of _____________ to the injured area
A
  1. blood supply
  2. capillary permeability
  3. neutrophils
  4. macrophages
102
Q

Chemical mediators such as ______________, which are released from injured mast cells, cause dilation of the blood vessels and bring additional blood flow to the affected area, resulting in redness and heat.

A

histamine

103
Q

T/F: The increased permeability of the vessels allows fluids in the plasma to retain to the tissues. This produces the swelling and pain associated with inflammation.

A

FALSE; The increased permeability of the vessels allows fluids in the plasma to LEAK to the tissues.

104
Q

What initiate and control the response of redness and heat

A

Soluble mediators (including acute-phase reactants)

105
Q

______________ occurs through formation of clots by the coagulation system and then the triggering of the fibrinolytic system

A

Amplification

106
Q

As the endothelial cells of the vessels contract, neutrophils move through the endothelial cells of the vessel and out into the tissues (____________). They are attracted to the site of injury or infection by the chemotaxins mentioned previously

A

diapedesis

107
Q

_____________ which are mobilized within ___________ after the injury, are the major type of cell present in acute inflammation.

A

Neutrophils,
30 to 60 minutes

108
Q

Neutrophil emigration may last __________________ and is proportional to the level of _____________ present in the area.

A

24 to 48 hours
chemotactic factors

109
Q

Migration of macrophages from surrounding tissue and from blood monocytes occurs several hours later and peaks at _____________

A

16 to 48 hours.

110
Q

___________________ attempt to clear the area through phagocytosis, and in most cases the healing process is completed with a return of normal tissue structure.

A

Macrophages

111
Q

T/F: When the inflammatory process becomes prolonged, it is said to be acute, and tissue damage and loss of function may result

A

FALSE; When the inflammatory process becomes prolonged, it is said to be CHRONIC

112
Q

Events in the inflammatory response:

  1. Increased ___________ to the affected area
  2. Increased __________________
  3. Migration of __________ and ___________ to the tissues.
  4. ________________
  5. Clinical signs at the site include _______ and ______
  6. ______________
A
  1. blood supply
  2. capillary permeability
  3. neutrophils, macrophages
  4. Phagocytosis
  5. erythema, edema
  6. Tissue healing