cell structure topic 2 Flashcards

1
Q

describe the structure of nucleus

A
  • Nucleus is a double membrane called the envelope containing ~3000 nuclear pores
    that enables molecules to enter and leave. It also contains chromatin and a nucleolus
    which is the site of ribosome production.

A granular jelly like material called
nucleoplasm makes up the bulk of the nucleus.

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2
Q

function of nucleus

A

-site of Mrna transcription
-semi conservative replication
-mitosis
-gene expression

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3
Q

describe the function of mitochondria

A

site of aerobic respiration which produces ATP

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3
Q

describe the structure of mitochondria

A

Mitochondria are oval shaped, bound by a double membrane called the envelope.
The inner membrane is folded to form projections called cristae with a matrix on the inside
containing all the enzymes needed for respiration.

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4
Q

describe the structure of chloroplast

A

surrounded by a double membrane
-had thylakoids ,folded membranes containing pigment)
-fluid filled stroma containing enzymes for photosynthesis

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5
Q

describe the structure of lysomes

A

-bags of digestive enzymes

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6
Q

describe the function of lysosome

A

hydrolyse phagocytic cells
break down dead cells (autolysis)
-exocytosis -release enzymes to outside the cell to defeat the material
-

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7
Q

describe the structure of ribosomes

A

made up of two sub units -protein and Rna

80S - found in eukaryotic cells (larger ribosomes )
70S found in prokaryotes

site of protein synthesis

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8
Q

describe the structure of endoplasmic reticulum

A

has folded membranes called cisternae
rough ER has ribosomes on the cisternae

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9
Q

describe the structure of the Golgi apparatus

A

folded membranes making cisternae
Golgi vesicles pinch of cisternae

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10
Q

describe the function of the golgi appararus

A

synthesises for glycoproteins
modifies proteins

produces lysosomes

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11
Q

describe the function of the rough and soft endoplasmic reticulum

A

SER- stores lipids and carbohydrates

RER- synthesis of proteins

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12
Q

describe the function of soft endoplasmic reticulum

A

SER- stores lipids and carbohydrates

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13
Q

describe the cell surface membrane

A

begins with a phospholipid bi layer which forms due to the hydrophillic and hydrophobic interactions
hydrophobic inwards
hydrophilic outwards

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14
Q

What is the function of the phospholipid bilayer

A

allow lipid-soluble substances to enter and leave the cell
• prevent water-soluble substances entering and leaving the cell
• make the membrane flexible and self-sealing

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15
Q

what is found in the bilayer

A

intrinsic and extrinsic protein
glycoproteins
cholesterol
glycolipids

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16
Q

what are intrinsic proteins

A

they bind to ions like glucose or amino acids ,change shape ,in order to move across membrane

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17
Q

what is co-transport

A

occurs when two substances are simultaneously transported across a membrane

This occurs particularly in epithelial cells of the ileum.

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18
Q

Describe cell specialisation

A

In multicellular organisms, cells become specialised to carry out specific functions

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19
Q

What are the features of prokaryotic cell

A

Cell wall:
Capsule:
Cell-surface
Circular DNA:
Plasmids:
Flagellum

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20
Q

What is a capsule

A

some bacteria have a capsule made of slime
Helps protect bacteria from attack and allows groups of bacteria to stick together

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21
Q

What is plasmid

A

small extra loops of DNA that carry genes that can help with survival eg antibiotic resistance

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22
Q

What is flagellum

A

a long hair-like structure found in some species (some prokaryotes can have more than one)
used to make the cell move

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23
Q

Describe the virus and its structure

A

Viruses are non-living and acellular (not cells)
Made up of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat called a capsid
Attachment proteins are found on the surface of the virus to allow it to attach to and enter a host cell

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24
Q

What are the two types of cell division in eukaryotes

A

There are two types of cell division in eukaryotes: mitosis and meiosis

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25
Q

What is the main difference between mitosis and meiosis

A

Mitosis produces two identical ‘daughter’ cells for growth or repair of tissue
Meiosis produces four genetically different daughter cells for reproduction

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26
Q

What does the cell cycle consist of

A

The cell cycle consists of interphase and mitosis

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27
Q

What are the four stages of mitosis

A

Prophase

Metaphase

Anaphase

Telophase

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28
Q

Describe what happens during prophase

A

chromosomes condense and become visible

centrioles move to opposite ends of cell and start forming a network of fibres called the spindle

nuclear envelope breaks down and chromosomes are free in the cytoplasm

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29
Q

What happens during metaphase

A

The chromosomes line up along the equator (middle) of the cell and attach themselves to the spindle via their centromere

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30
Q

What happens during anaphase

A

The centromeres divide and the sister chromatids separate
Each sister chromatid is pulled to the opposite end of the cell

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31
Q

What happens during telophase

A

The chromosomes reach their respective poles and become longer and thinner
The nuclear envelope reforms
The cell become longer and thinner in the middle and eventually splits into two

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32
Q

How can cancer treatments become unaffective

A

however this also targets normal body cells that are rapidly dividing

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33
Q

Describe the process of binary fission

A

1.The circular DNA replicates once and plasmids replicate multiple times
2.The cell gets bigger and the loops of DNA move to opposite poles of the cells
3.The cytoplasm divides and a new cell membrane and cell wall begins to form
4.Two ‘daughter’ cells are formed, each with one loop of circular DNA and a variable number of plasmids

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34
Q

Describe how viruses replicate

A

Viruses are non-living so they cannot replicate by themselves
They use a host cell to replicate
1.The attachment proteins bind to complementary receptors on the cell-surface membrane of the host cell
2.They then inject their DNA or RNA into the host cell and it
3.reverse transcriptase converts RNA into DNA
4. begins producing new viral components which are assembled into new viruses

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35
Q

What is resolution

A

Resolution: a measure of how detailed the image is

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36
Q

Describe magnification

A

Difference in size between the image and the real object

37
Q

What are two main types of microscopes

A

Light and electron

38
Q

What is the difference between electron microscope and light microscope

A

Light microscopes

  • uses light to form an image
    -lower magnification (x1500)
    -lower resolution (x 0.2)

Electron microscope

-uses electrons to form an image
-higher magnification (x1,500,000)
-higher resolution (x0.0002)

39
Q

What are two types of electron microscopes

A

TEM and SEM

40
Q

How does Transmission electron microscope work

A

Uses electromagnets to focus electrons into a beam

that passes through a thin section of the specimen and onto a screen behind

to form a photomicrograph

41
Q

How is an image formed using TEM

A

Denser areas of the specimen absorb more electrons and so appear darker

42
Q

What are the pros and cons of transmission electron microscopes

A

Pros: Extremely high-resolution images

Cons: Can’t use living specimens, specimen must be extremely thin, high-energy electron beam could damage specimen, image is not in colour, image is 2D, artefacts can form on image

43
Q

How do scanning electron microscopes work

A

Uses electromagnets to scan the beam of electrons over the surface of the specimen

Electrons are scattered and with computer analysis, a 3D image can be produced that show the surface of the specimen

44
Q

What are the pros and cons of scanning electron microscopes

A

Pros: Can use thicker specimens than TEM, resulting image is 3D

Cons: Can’t use living specimens, specimen must be extremely thin, a, high-energy electron beam could damage specimen, image is not in colour, lower resolution than TEM

45
Q

What is cell fractionation

A

Cell fractionation is a method of breaking cells up and separating the components

46
Q

What are the three steps of cell fractionation

A

1.Homogenisation

2.Filtration

3.ultracentrifugation

47
Q

Describe the process of homogenisation

A

1.can be done by grinding the cells in a blender or vibrating them
2.The solution should be ice-cold
and isotonic (same pH as cell - use a buffer)

48
Q

In the homogenisation process ,why must the solution be ice cold

A

(to reduce activity of enzymes that may break down organelles)

49
Q

Describe why filtration takes place

A

To removing complete cells and debris)

50
Q

Why does ultracentrifugation occur

A

To separate the organelles

51
Q

Describe the process of ultracentrifugation

A

1.Pour cell fragments into a test tube and put the test tube into a centrifuge

2.Spin the centrifuge at low speed

  1. The heaviest organelles (nuclei) are forced to the bottom to form a thick sediment called the pellet

4.The liquid above is called the supernatant and is transferred to another test tube to be spun again

5.Spin the centrifuge faster to isolate the the mitochondria in the pellet then drain the
supernatant to spin again

6.Continue the process to isolate the next heaviest

52
Q

What is the order organelles are separated

A

1nuclei,
2mitochondria,
3lysosomes,
4endoplasmic reticulum, and
5 then ribosomes

53
Q

What is the cell surface membrane made up of

A

Cell surface membranes are made up of a phospholipid bilayer with other molecules embedded in it such as

proteins, glycolipids, glycoproteins, and cholesterol

54
Q

What are the two functions of a protein in a phospholipid bilayer

A

1.for mechanical support or act as receptors for eg hormones

  1. can be channel or carrier proteins to transport substances in and out of cells
55
Q

What are the 2 roles of glycolipids

A

They act as cell-surface receptors and also help to maintain the stability of the membrane

They can also allow cells to bind together to form tissues

56
Q

What are the two roles of glycoproteins

A

They act as receptors/recognition sites and help cells bind together to form tissues

They also allow immune cells to recognise self cells so they don’t get attacked

57
Q

What are the two roles of cholesterol in bilayer

A

they increase the strength of cell surface membrane by:

They pull the hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids together which limits their movement,

which makes the membrane more rigid especially at high temperatures
This helps to maintain the shape of animal cells

58
Q

Describe simple diffusion

A

It is a passive process (does not require energy from ATP)

occurs when the molecule can move freely through the cell-surface membrane

This occurs for small, non-polar molecules such as oxygen and carbon dioxide

59
Q

Describe facilitated diffusion

A

Facilitated diffusion involves the use of channel and carrier proteins

Large molecules and charged ions aren’t able to move via simple diffusion as they can’t pass through the lipid membrane

Instead, they move through channel or carrier proteins down a concentration gradient

60
Q

How do Chanel proteins and protein carriers work

A

Channel proteins form pores that allow a specific molecule to pass throug

Carrier proteins change shape when a specific molecule binds to them and

61
Q

Describe osmosis

A

It is the movement of water from an area of high water potential to an area of low water potential

It is a passive process (doesn’t require energy from ATP

62
Q

How can you increases the rate of osmosis

A

To increase the rate of osmosis, increase the water potential gradient,
make the exchange surface thinner,
and increase the surface area of exchange surface

63
Q

Is active transport an active process or passive

A

It is an active process (requires energy from ATP)

64
Q

Describe how carrier proteins are used in active transport

A

1.The molecule or ion binds to a specific carrier protein

2.ATP breaks down into ADP and a Pi group which releases energy to change the shape of the carrier protein

3.The molecule/ion is deposited in the cell and the carrier protein reverts to its original shap

65
Q

What is co transport

A

One of the molecules moves down its concentration gradient and this moves the other against its concentration gradient

66
Q

What is an example of co transport

A

Sodium moves into the cells down its concentration gradient and this moves glucose in as well, against its concentration gradient.

67
Q

Describe antigens and the two types of antigens

A

All cells have antigens on their surfaces that allows them to be recognised by other cell

The immune system can distinguish antigens on body cells (self) and antigens on foreign objects (non-self)

68
Q

What are two types of abnormal cell

A

Cancerous

Infected cell

69
Q

Describe phagocytosis

A

1.The phagocyte attaches to the receptors on the surface of the pathogen and recognises the foreign antigens
2.The cytoplasm of the pathogen engulfs the pathogen inside a membrane called a phagosome
3. Lysosomes fuse with the phagosome and break down the pathogen
4.The phagocyte displays the pathogen’s antigens on its cell-surface membrane and is referred to as an APC

70
Q

What are the three main stages of immune response

A

phagocytosis,
cell-mediated response, and
humoral response

71
Q

Describe T cells

A

T cells are a type of immune cell

There are two types of T cells: helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells

72
Q

outline the process for cell mediated response

A
  1. complementary helper T cells bind to antigen on antigen presenting cell
    2.release cytokines that stimulate clonal expansion of complementary helper t cells and become memory cells or trigger humoral response
  2. clonal expansion of cytotoxic T cells : secrete enzyme perforin to destroy infected cells
73
Q

what does cyto toxic cells do

A

When they find an infected cell, they inject it with perforin

which causes the cell membrane to disintegrate and the cell to die

74
Q

outline the humoral response

A

1.Complementary helper t cell binds to foreign antigen on antigen presenting cell
2.Release cytokines that stimulate clonal expansion of complementary B cells
3.B cells differentiate into plasma cells
4. Plasma cells secrete antibodies with complementary variable region to antigen

75
Q

Describe what an antibody is

A

Antibodies are proteins made by B-cells that have a binding site complementary to antigens on a specific pathogen

76
Q

Describe the structure of an antibody

A

Antibodies are made of four polypeptide chains,
two called heavy chains and
two called light chains.
They each have two binding sites

77
Q

What are the three roles of an antibody

A

cause agglutination (pathogens stick together so they can be engulfed easier)

act as markers to stimulate the phagocytes to engulf the pathogen

neutralise the pathogen so it can’t enter any body cells

78
Q

What is the role of memory B cells

A

Memory B-cells activate the secondary immune response in case the pathogen attacks again

If it encounters the pathogen again, it will:

undergo clonal expansion,
differentiate into plasma cells
and release antibodies

79
Q

How does antigenic variation prevent secondary response

A

The changing of their surface antigens this means that the secondary immune response won’t be triggered

80
Q

What is active immunity

A

Active immunity is when the immune system produces its own antibodies and memory cells

81
Q

Describe the difference between artificial active immunity and natural active immunity

A

Natural active immunity: after you catch a disease, you become immune

Artificial active immunity: after you get a vaccine containing dead or weakened pathogens

82
Q

What is passive immunity

A

Passive immunity is when the body receives antibodies from a different organism

83
Q

Describe artificial passive immunity and natural passive immunity

A

Artificial passive immunity: after you get a vaccine containing antibodies against a pathogen

Natural passive immunity: after a baby receives antibodies from its mother in breast milk or through the placenta

84
Q

Outline the difference between passive immunity and active immunity

A

Active

-Involves exposure to the pathogen’s antigens
-Memory cells are produced
-Protection is not immediate
-Immunity is long term as memory cells are formed

Passive
-Does not involve exposure to antigens
-No memory cells are produced
-Protection is immediate
-Immunity is short term as after a while, the antibodies are broken down

85
Q

Describe the structure of HIV

A

HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is made up of two single strands of RNA
enclosed in a capsid
surrounded by a lipid envelope
in which are embedded attachment proteins

86
Q

How do aids develop in people with HIV

A

HIV infects and kills helper T cells and

eventually this leads to weakened immunity which is AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome )

87
Q

Why do individuals with HIV more susceptible to other secondary diseases

A

HIV kills helper T cells
Which are needed for the formation of B cells
So less B cells are made and
less antibodies made

88
Q

explain the principle of vaccination

A

1.vaccine contains dead form of pathogen
2.triggers primary immune response
3.memory cells are produced and remain in the blood stream ,so secondary response is rapid and produces higher concentration of antibodies
4. pathogen is destroyed before it causes symptoms

89
Q

contrast primary immune response and secondary immune response

A
  1. faster rate of antibody production
  2. shorter time lag between exposure and antibody production
  3. higher concentrations of antibody
  4. antibody level remains high after the secondary response