Cell structure and function Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of the polyadenelation signal?

A

During termination of transcription the polyadenaletaion signal (AAUAAA) causes the RNA polymerase II to remove itself 10-35 base pairs downstream of the polyadenelation signal.

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2
Q

What are the functions of the protein in the plasma membrane?

A
TESCAI 
Transport
Enzyme
Signal
Cell-cell communication 
Attachment 
Intercellular
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3
Q

Explain how transcription is initiated in eukaryotic cells

A

A eukaryotic promoter includes a TATA box (TATAAA)
in which several transcription factors must bind to the DNA before RNA polymerase II can do so.
(the TATAAA box is before the start point)
More transcription factors along with RNA polymerase II bind to the promoter region.

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4
Q

Does transcription include both translated and untranslated sequences?

A

YES

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5
Q

What is the transcription rate in eukaryotes?

A

40 nucleotides per second

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6
Q

What are three steps involved in cell signalling?

A

Reception, transduction and response

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7
Q

What are the four different types of receptors?

A

G (globular) protein receptors
receptor tyrosine kinases
ligand gated channels
intracellular receptors

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8
Q

Explain how the G protein coupled receptors work, using adenylyl cyclase as an example

A

A ligand (for example a hormone) induces a protein conformational change of the receptor.
This activates a specific cytoplasmic G protein to exchange its low energy GDP for a high energy GTP.
Activated G protein activates an effector enzyme such as adenylyl cyclase (in the cholera effected signalling pathway)
This produces the second messenger cAMP
The cAMP activates protein kinases which causes a cascade of phosphorylation reactions.
G protein then inactivates itself by HYDROLYSING its GTP into GDP

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9
Q

Explain how the Receptor Tyrosine Kinases work:

A

RTK are membrane bound proteins, where its cytoplasmic region is made of three TYROSINE amino acids
Binding of the signalling molecule causes the RTK to dimerise and form a DIMER.
cross phosphorylation of the tyrosine amino acids occurs.
Relay proteins then recognise these phosphorylates tyrosine proteins and these relay proteins then become activated themselves.
This causes a cascade of phosphorylation reactions downstream using usually protein kinases.

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10
Q

Explain how ligand gated channels work, using the post synaptic membrane as an example

A

Specific signal molecules (e.g. neurotransmitters) cause ligand gated ion channels to open in the post synaptic membrane resulting in an influx of sodium ions and localised depolarization. The amino acids lining the pore of the channel are selective and only let in certain molecules of a specific size and charge.

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11
Q

Can hormones pass through the plasma membrane and activate intracellular receptors?

A

Yes, they are hydrophobic so can pass through membrane and attach to receptor proteins INSIDE the cell.

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12
Q

What are the two types of signal transduction pathways?

A

cAMP and Ca2+

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13
Q

What is a phosphorylation cascade?

A

A series of protein kinases add phosphate groups to the next one in line, to effect the final EFFECTOR, which may be an enzyme.
Phosphate is added via ATP turning into ADP and donating an inorganic phosphate to each of the protein kinases.

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14
Q

How are Ca2+ ions removed before signalling in the cell?

A
Ca2+ pumps are in the 
plasma membrane (pumping Ca2+ out of the cell)
mitocondria (pumping Ca2+ into the mitochondria)
Endoplasmic reticulum
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15
Q

What is the signalling pathway used for muscle contraction?

A

A ligand (for example a hormone) induces a protein conformational change of the receptor.
This activates a specific cytoplasmic G protein to exchange its low energy GDP for a high energy GTP.
Activated G protein activates an effector enzyme such as phospholipase (in the cholera effected signalling pathway)
phospholipase cuts PIP2 into half into IP3 which acts as a ligand (a second messenger)
IP3 gated ligand channel lets in Ca2+ ions from the endoplasmic reticulum
Ca2+ acts as a second messenger to activate other proteins such as myosin

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16
Q

What are examples of cellular response?

A

PRIM G or GRIMP

Gene expression
Protein function 
Ion channel
Metabolism
Regulation of cellular organelles or organisation
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17
Q

What form of energy is used during translation?

A

GTP turning into GDP

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18
Q

What are the post translation modifications that can occur in the golgi apparatus?

A

BAMPCCC

Biotinylation
Acetylation
Methylation 
Phosphorlyation 
Carboxylation
Carbohydrate addition
Cleavage
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19
Q

When blood sugar levels are low, the hormone

A

glucagon is released, to increase blood sugar levels.

Released from alpha cells in islets of langarhan in pancreas

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20
Q

When blood sugar levels are high, the hormone

A

insulin is released, to decrease blood sugar levels.

Released from beta cells in islets of langarhan in pancreas

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21
Q

What are the four major cycles in cellular respiration?

A

Glycolysis
Formation of Acetyl co enzyme A
Krebs cycle
Electron transport chain

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22
Q

What is produced in glycolysis?

A

Reactants:
oxidizing Glucose

Products:
2ATP
2NADH + 2H+
2 pyruvate molecules

anaerboic cytoplasm

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23
Q

What is produced in the formation of acetyl co enzyme A?

A

Reactants:
2 pyruvate molecules

Products:
2 CO2
2 NADH + 2H+
2 acetyl co enzyme A

aerobic
mitochondrial matrix

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24
Q

What is produced in the Krebs cycle?

A

Reactants:
2 acetyl co enzyme A

Products:
2 ATP
4 CO2
6 NADH + 6H+
2 FADH2

mitochondrial matrix

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25
Q

Explain the electron transport chain and chemiosmosis:

A

NADH and FADH2 donate electrons to a series of electron carriers in the inner membrane of the mitochondria.
As electrons pass from each protein carrier to carrier, it transfers energy for hydrogen ions (protons) to be pumped into the inter membrane space,
electrons are then transferred to oxygen, reducing it to become water.

Chemiosmosis:
Proton gradient is established in the inter membrane space.
Protons passively move through ATP synthase and H+ movement powers rotation through a turbine like thing to mass produce ATP from ADP + Pi

26 or 28 ATP is produced

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26
Q

What is the enzyme involved in converting glucose to pyruvate in glycolysis?

A

Phosphofructokinase

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27
Q

What are the two products in the repsiration process which can INHIBIT Phosphofructokinase?

A

ATP and

Citrate from Krebs Cycle

28
Q

What is a molecule which can STIMULATE Phosphofructokinase?

A

AMP

29
Q

What is Diabetes Mellitus?

A

a disease caused by the lack of functional insulin, either none being produced by the pancreas (type I) or the insulin produced is not recognised or functioning properly (type II).
In either cases glucose levels in the blood build up, well beyond normal homeostatic limits.
Glucose affects the volume and osmolarity of blood.

30
Q

Side effects of diabetes include:

A
excessive thirst 
frequent urination 
extreme hunger 
unexplained weight loss
glucose in urine 
fatigue 
high frequency of infection 
changes in vision 
numbness in toes and fingers
31
Q

What cells do not undergo further divisoon after maturity?

A

nerve cells

muscle cells

32
Q

What are the phases of the cell cycle?

A

G1 phase
S phase
G2 phase
Mitotic phase (PMAT - prohphase, metaphase, anaphase, telephase)

33
Q

What happens in the G1 phase?

A

cell is metabolically active, duplicates organelles and cytosolic components, EXCEPT DNA and nucleus, replication of centromeres begins

34
Q

What happens in the S phase?

A

DNA and centrosome are replicated

35
Q

What happens in G2 phase?

A

cell growth continues, enzymes and other proteins are synthesised.

36
Q

What happens during prophase?

A

chromatin condenses into chromosomes with the two copies held together at centromere, mitotic spindle starts to form (extension of microtubules from centrosomes), nucleolus disappears and nuclear membrane breaks down.

37
Q

What happens during metaphase?

A

microtubules of mitotic spindle align centromeres at centre of mitotic spindle (metaphase plate).

38
Q

What happens during anaphase?

A

centromere’s split so that one copy of each chromosome (chromatid) is sent towards each centrosome, dragged by microtubules of mitotic spindle.

39
Q

What happens during telephase?

A

chromosomes revert to chromatin, the nuclear envelopes reform, each nucleolus reappears, and the mitotic spindle breaks down.

40
Q

What happens during cytokenesis?

A

division of the cytoplasm, to form two complete cells, each with the exact same cellular organelles, constituents and genetic material.

41
Q

Explain the regulation of the cell cycle at the G2/M checkpoint

A

CDK protein is ordinarily produced by the cell;
• On its own, CDK is inactive;
• During late S phase and early G2 phase, cyclin protein is produced;
• At late G2 phase, cyclin binds to CDK;
• CDK in bound state is activated, due to shape (conformation) change, the protein
complex is now called Mitotic Promotion Factor (MPF);
• Activity of MPF promotes rapid onset of mitosis;
• Once mitosis is initiated, cyclin is degraded, dissociating MPF and inactivating CDK;
• CDK is recycled until next required.

42
Q

What two genes are involved in controlling whether a cell proceeds or not in the cell cycle?

A

Genes that ordinarily promote growth: proto oncogene; Genes that ordinarily stop or inhibit growth: tumor suppressor genes.

43
Q

What is the difference between a protooncogene and oncogene?

A

Proto‐oncogene: gene that produces a protein that promotes progress through the cell cycle, now functioning “normally”, expressed for a short time, at a specific point in cell cycle, then usually degraded;
Oncogene: gene that produces a protein that used to promote progress through the cell cycle, now functioning “ab‐normally”, may be expressed for a short time or may persist in cell longer than required, at a specific point in cell cycle, then usually degraded.

44
Q

Give an Example of HEALTHY ras Signaling in oncogenes:

A

Growth factor binds to a cell surface receptor;
• Receptor dimerises (two form a complex together), and each receptor phosphorylates
the other receptor;
• Presence of the now activated receptor activates the ras protein, so it binds GTP, also
entering an active state;
• Active ras‐GTP activates a protein kinase phosphorylation cascade, resulting in the up‐
regulation of one or more transcription factors;
• Transcription factors promote gene expression of proteins that stimulate progression
through the cell cycle;
• Meanwhile, the ras protein slowly hydrolyses the GTP to GDP, reaching a now inactive
state.

45
Q

Give an Example of UNHEALTHY ras Signaling in oncogenes:

A

the ras protein is mutated, so it binds
GTP, entering and maintaining an active state;
0
• Transcription factors promote gene expression of proteins that stimulate progression through the cell cycle.
• Active ras‐GTP activates a protein kinase phosphorylation cascade, resulting in the up‐ regulation of one or more transcription factors;

46
Q

What is the difference between tutor suppressor genes and mutated tumour suppressor genes?

A

Tumor Suppressor Genes: gene that produces a protein which functions to halt cell cycle progression when appropriate, so that cells are able to perform “checks” that cell cycle is going well, and being done correctly;
Mutated Tumor Suppressor Genes: gene that produces a protein which functions to allow progression through cell cycle regardless of whether is it appropriate, without any checks at all.

47
Q

Explain a healthy process of p53 signalling

A

DNA damaged by UV light;
• DNA Damage is sensed by protein kinases;
• p53 gene is up‐regulated, producing p53 protein;
• p53 protein acts as a transcription factor to inhibit progression through cell cycle;
• EITHER DNA damage is repaired, and cell is allowed to complete cell cycle
OR damage is unable to be repaired, and cell undergoes apoptosis.

48
Q

Explain a unhealthy process of p53 signalling

A

p53 gene is mutated and DNA damaged by UV light;
• DNA Damage is sensed by protein kinases;
• p53 gene is up‐regulated, producing INACTIVE p53 protein;
• p53 protein is UNABLE to act as a transcription factor, and cell is allowed to complete
cell cycle INCORPORATING THE DNA DAMAGE.

49
Q

How does cancer spread?

A

Once developed, cancer can spread through body fluids (blood, lymph) to different areas of the body, and start to colonise, called metastases or metastatic cancer.

50
Q

What does adenyl cyclase convert ATP into?

A

cAMP

51
Q

What secondary protein structure is found in receptor tyrosine kinase?

A

alpha helix

52
Q

What is the transcription initiation complex?

A

transcriptor proteins and RNA polymerase II

53
Q

DNA is made in the

A

5’-3’ direction

54
Q

What is the purpose of the UTR in mRNA?

A

it gives information to the cell on how to handle this mRNA

55
Q

What does snRNPs stand for?

A

small nuclear ribonuclear proteins

56
Q

What energy transformation is used to bind the large subunit to the small subunit of the ribosome?

A

GTP –> GDP

57
Q

What are the two energy steps of elongation of translation?

A

bond breaking and moving the tRNA

58
Q

What molecule does the release factor bring during termination of translation?

A

an H20 molecule instead of an amino acid

59
Q

What energy transformation is used to break apart the large subunit to the small subunit of the ribosome?

A

2GTP –> 2GDP

60
Q

What are the three categories of amino acids?

A

polar
non polar
charged

61
Q

What is the N terminus and C terminus of an amino acid?

A

N is the amine end

C is the carboxylic end

62
Q

What direction to beta pleated sheets run from?

A

C to N terminal direction

63
Q

Where are disulphide bridges only found?

A

in proteins that contain the amino acid CYSTINE

64
Q

How many H+ pumps in the electron transport chain?

A

four but three major ones

65
Q

Why 26 OR 28 ATP produced in electron transport chain & chemiosmosis? Why not just 26? Why not just 28?

A
  1. Phosphorylation and redox reactions are not directly coupled, so have a ratio rather than a straight number;
  2. Glycolytic NADH electrons must be shuttled into the mitochondria, and transferred to another NAD+ or FAD, the latter of which promotes production of less ATP;
  3. Energy stored in the H+ gradient maybe used solely to produce ATP or may be split between making ATP and powering other mitochondrial processes.
66
Q

How are secretory and membrane bound proteins sent to the ER?

A

While being translated on free ribosomes, a signal peptide will emerge at the ribosomal surface and this is recognised by signal recognition particles, which targets these ribosomes to specific receptors in the ER membrane.
This signal sequence is usually located on the N-terminus of the protein and it inserts itself into the ER membrane (going N-terminus first).
For secretory proteins, the chain is completely translocated and the signal sequence is cleaved off be SIGNAL PEPTIDASE, which causes the protein to become soluble in the ER lumen.