Cell processes Flashcards

1
Q

Steroid hormone pathway for cell communication (e.g testosterone)

A

Testosterone + carrier protein (prevents it disintegration as hydrophobic and lipophilic)
- reaches target - detatches from carrier protein- crosses PM an NM- SH (testo)+ Receptor on promoter (TESTOSTERONE TESTOSTERONE RECEPTOR COMPLEX) - recruits TF and TA for translation and transcription

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2
Q

AIS treatment and cause

A
  • defective testosterone receptor
    -X linked recessive disorder
  • Female cannot
    -Treatment:
    Complete- vagionoplasty, estrogen
    Mild: Androgen, hypospadius repair
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3
Q

Flutamide what does it do

A

potent inhibitor of testosterone

  • non streoidal anti androgen
  • no 4 ring structure
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4
Q

What are anti estrogens used for

A
  • breast cancer

- BC often caused by excessive estrogen

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5
Q

intracellular transduction pathway (inside the cell)

A
  • extracellular signal + receptor - intracellular signalling proteins - splits to metabolic enzyme (altered metabolism) or gene regulatory (altered gene expression)
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6
Q

Extracellular responses diagram (on the surface of cells)

A

Extracelluar signal+ cell surface receptor- slow (Transcription)- altered protein synthesis OR fast (intracellular signalling) lead to altered protein function
- BOTH lead to altered cell behaviour

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7
Q

cAMP endocrine pathway

A

signal molecule+ G protein coupled receptor– a of HT G protein complex activated– activates adenylyl cyclase– Convertes ATP to cAMP- activates PKA

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8
Q

Phosphorylation of of protein kinase

A
  • transfer of phosphate of ATP to SER, THR, TYR (of target protein)
  • this activates target protein or inactivate sometimes = REVERSIBLE
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9
Q

What response phosphorylation give

A

PKA– [phosphorylates TARGET PROTEINS] –which are metabolic. enzyme (altered metabolism) or gene regulatory protein (Altered gene expression)

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10
Q

How does glycogen turn to glucose with the trigger of PKA

A

adrenaline(SM) — PKA– phosphorylase kinase active– acts as signal for Glugogen phosphorylase to activate– glycogen cleaved onto muscle cell receptors and onto glucose making it active for muscle action

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11
Q

How is adrenaline also involved in the fight or flight response

A
  • adrenaline (produced my adrenal medulla) + GPCR on muscle cell (b adrendenic receptor) - glucose then made as a store of energy
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12
Q

What do beta blockers do

(altering pathway to stop metabolic action) FAST RESPONSE

A
  • blocks interaction of adrenaline with receptor- treats hypertension (high BP), stops heart muscle contraction by stopping glucogenlysis
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13
Q

How can we alter the triggering pathway to alter gene expression (SLOW RESPONSE)

A
  • CREB activated by PKA (transcription factor)– binds to CRE of promotor of somatostain gene– recruits CBP (creb binding protein) [transcriptional co activator] – transcription and translation– new protein
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14
Q

How are signals from outside the cell converted to inside

A
  • Extracellular signal delivered through blood stream/ adjacent cell
  • receptor picks this up and converts it to intracellular signals
  • determines the cell needs to be replicated
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15
Q

How do the amount and type of signal determine cell behaviour

A
  • cell respond to multiple of signals
  • many signals together of different combinations result in different survival behaviour
  • all have independent factors and protein receptors in how they will convert extracellular signals to intracellular events that will ultimately control cell behaviour
  • absesnce of signals mean cell enters apoptosis
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16
Q

How do transmembrane receptors relay signals to intracellular signals and alter cell behaviour

A

EC signal membrane bound receptors—- intracellular signals—- metabolic enzyme (altered metabolism), (cytoskeletal protein) altered cell shape, (transcription regulator) altered gene response

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17
Q

How can we turn enzyme activity on or off

A
ADDING PHOSPHATE (kinase)
REMOVING PHOSPHATE (phosphatase)
- adding phosphate by ATP= confirmational change in enzyme = active
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18
Q

How does an epidermal growth factor lead to cell proliferation

A
  • epidermal growth factor+ receptor tyrosine kinase (two halves)– two halves come together (dimer)– phosphate by ATP adds to protein such as RAS – GTP will also add to RAS to activate it too
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19
Q

What are the stages of the cell cycle G0,G1, S, G2 (interphase

A

G0- cyclin-dependent kinases disappear- cell remain in the G0 phase until there is a reason for them to divide

G1- cell grows- most proteins made for DNA replication and mitosis (monitor intra+extra environ to check if conditions correct)

S-DNA replicates chromosomes perfectly (ensures double genetic material)

g2- more checks that genome fully replicated and more growth

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20
Q

What are the main regulators of the cell cycle and how are they activated

A
  • Cyclin- cyclin dependent kinase
  • activated with cyclin attached to it (heterodimer)
  • to deactivate cyclin breaks down
  • main regulators
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21
Q

How does S phase get triggered to start replication

A
- G1 forms a pre replicative complex preparing s phase
containing Cdc6 (which inhibits it proceeding to s phase)
  • Scdk phosphorylate cdc6– degration of Pcdc6— enables replication to proceed– assembly of replication fork– DNA replication
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22
Q

What factors does p53 check for in damaged DNA in G1

A
  • sees if there is UV ionizing radiation. lack of nucleotides, oncogene signalling (genes that can cause cancer), lack of oxygen)hypoxia)
  • p53 fixes it - cell cycle arrest (stopping) or cell death
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23
Q

How does Rb check for extracellular unfavourable environments in the cell cycle

A
  • active Rb and inactivates transcription factor = NO TF binding- NO CELL GROWTH
  • when Growth factor released– upregulate cyclin– cyclin cdk phosphorylate Rb- cant bind to TF= cell proliferation
24
Q

When can you see chromosomes and when can you not

A
  • cannot see chromosomes in interphase as DNA is decondensed (being sileced by heterochromatin)
  • in mitosis – chromosome condense- chromosomes seen
25
Q

What are the stages of mitosis

A

prophase- chromosome condense, centrosomes apart
Prometaphase - nuclear membrane breaks down, microtubules attach to keinetochores

meta- chromosomes allign centre, keintochores attach to opposite poles

Ana- sister chromatids separate, keinochore shorten, spindle poles move apart

TELA- chromosomes arrive opposite poles, nuclear envolope reassemples, two new nuclei

CYTOKINESIS- contractile ring formes- divides the two cells

26
Q

Steps during apoptosis

A
  • mitro release cytochrome C + free radicals break down protein site in cell membrane
  • nuc mem break down
  • chromatin consence
  • phagocytosis of apoptotic bodies
27
Q

What chemical reactions lead to damaged DNA

A
  • depurination
  • free radicals
  • deamination
28
Q

What does UV radiation cause

A
  • thymidine dimer: two adjacent thymine bonded - prevent correct hydrogen bond- distorts DNA
29
Q

how does dna repair DNA mutations

A
  • phosphodiester backbone recognised by DNA mismatch repair protein
  • removes the region thats wrong
  • fills gap with dna polymerase and ligase
30
Q

What are the different types of DNA mutations

A
  • deletion / insertion of one or more nucleotides
  • substution of nucleotides
  • point mutations
  • –alteration of single base pair position
  • consequences depend on position of mutation
31
Q

What causes Sickle cell anaemia

A
  • point mutation of B goblin gene (change in one nucelotide)
  • haemaglobin cannot form normal shape + polymerises
  • goes through capilaries- capillaroes block
  • no oxygen delivery (muscle weekness)
32
Q

When does translocation of chromosomes occur

A
  • chromosomal abnormality - chromosome breaks and reattaches to another- fewer alleles for genes- misconjunction - impacts heterocho (inactive) and euchro (active)
33
Q

What does CML (chronic myelogenous leukaemia) show

A
  • inappropiate number of blast cells in myeloid pathway (too many white cells in blood)
  • unregulated myeloid in bone barrow and accumulation in blood
  • translocation of chromosome 9 and 22
34
Q

How is cancer caused

A
  • multiple mutations at multiple genes (multi step process)

- mutations in proteins involved in cell cycle checkpoints

35
Q

How does an adenoma go from benign to malignant

A
  • adenoma (adrenal gland in bowel)– accumulation of more mutations expands – malignant so invade epithelial cell and move around the body
36
Q

What does Darwinian model of cancer progression sugges

A
  • more mutations you accumulate the faster cells grow– more they invade – faster lead to tumor– malignance
37
Q

What is the process of clonal mutation

A

1 mutation= hyperplasia
2nd mutation=more aggressive rapid growth
3rd mutation=increase growth and metastasis spread (invade tissues – dangerous tumors– invade other tissues– proliferate in other tissues)

38
Q

What is an onco gene and how does it work

A

oncogene upregulates cell growth leading to proliferation
proto-oncogene promote entry into cell cycle– becomes oncogene
- RTK= PO – mutate (O)– recognises growth factors– upregulate cell growth as it will always be proliferation
- RAS= PO– mutate - always active- upregulation

39
Q

What 2 things do we need for cancer

A
  • oncogenes to upregulate genes

- proteins such as RB and p53 to mutate to not check cell cycle

40
Q

what are the 3 stem cell stages of what it can become

A

pluripotent- gives rise to many different cell types in body

Multipotent- in progenitor state number of choices becomes fewer of which cell type

Unipotent - gives rise to only one cell type

41
Q

What is haemopoiesis

A
  • BLOOD DIFFERENTIATION
  • pathway depends on conditions of body and signals
  • can either go to myeloid progenitor (many diff cell types)
  • Lymphoid progenitor(either B cell or T cell)
42
Q

What makes cells different to one another

A
  • proteins defining cell type features
  • metabolic proteins
    -structural proteins
    REGULATORY PROTEIN such as histone shared by every cell
43
Q

How do genes control cell differentiation

A
  • gene expression defines the cell that is
  • stem cells = different pattern of gene expression
  • stem cell genes will be switched off
  • genes needed for the differentiated cell will be switched on during progenitor stage
44
Q

How is gene regulation controlled

A

by transcription factor and enhancers = transcriptional regulatory sequences - lets RNA polymerase to activate gene or silence gene for cell differentiation- each cell have specific pattern of gene expression

45
Q

What is an example of specific transcriptional factors in control of red blood cell or platelet differentiation

A

RBC- TF 4,2,1 expressed in early progenitor stage – turn on red blood cell specific genes
PLA– TF 8– pl specific gene

TF3 common in both cells

46
Q

How are gene signals determined from environment

A
  • environment factors talk to stem cells/ early progenitor to up regulate cells we need
47
Q

What is EPO signalling and how does it work

A

Low O2 in body– EPO binds to EPO receptor on CM on progenitor cell— up regulation of TF for RBC– TF binds to promotor– red blood cells made

48
Q

What happens to patients with B cell acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A
  • stem cells–precursor (on way to becoming B cells)
    • something goes wrong with differentiated pathway – blasts (b cell presucors) made instead of B cells – blast tumour in the blood
49
Q

How can we use cell based therapies to treat diseases

A

1st way: convert differentiated cell into another differentiated cell by inserting cell specific proteins (transcription factors) for that cell

2nd way: differentiated cell– step cell by stem cell transcriptional factors–turn it into patient specific cell

50
Q

Why is in vitro transcription inefficient

A
  • general transcription factors (basal machinary) (TFIID) – TATA binding protein and TBF assosiated factors and RNA polymerase – minimal factors for pre initiation complex– makes small amount of MRNA– inefficient
51
Q

What is a gene promoter

A
  • promote transcription - when TF bind to promoter, RNA polymerase activated
  • promoter= binding site for basal transcription, RNA polymerase and co factors (minimal required for transcription)
52
Q

What distorts the promoter DNA

A

TATA binding proteins (TBP) bend the DNA promoter

53
Q

Why is Activated transcription more efficient

A
  • more protein sequences and more transcription factors– higher level of transcription activity – more mRNA made
54
Q

What do we use in addition to TFIID in cell specific transcription

A
  • multiple enhancers (act like switches and make TC specific)
  • multiple transcription activators (up regulate gene activity and tell RNA P and BM to make mRNA)
55
Q

How do gene regulatory proteins communicate with RNA polymerase

A
  • by touching and bending the flexible DNA to bind and twist to the promoter to communicate whether gene is active or not