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Molecules, Cells and Diseases (MCD) and Epidemiology in Practice (EiP) > Cell Pathology > Flashcards

Cell Pathology Flashcards

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Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards
1
Q

Give 2 causes of generalised oedema.

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure (e.g. due to heart failure)

Reduced plasma oncotic pressure (e.g. due to reduced albumin).

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2
Q

Give 3 causes of a thrombus.

A 
Endothelial injury
Static or turbulent blood flow
Blood hypercoagulability (can be genetic or acquired).
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3
Q

Compare the composition of a pale thrombus and a red thrombus.

A

A pale thrombus is composed of fibrillin and platelets. Red thrombi are made from fibrillin, platelets and red blood cells.

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4
Q

Describe a venous thrombus.

A

Composed of RBCs + platelets. Occlusive thrombus due to sluggish blood flow. Veins of lower extremities most commonly affected.

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5
Q

Describe an arterial thrombus.

A

Composed of RBCs, platelets, leukocytes + fibrillin. Occlusive thrombus superimposed on atherosclerotic plaques (atherosclerosis leads to endothelial injury and abnormal blood flow). Mostly in coronary, cerebral and femoral arteries.

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6
Q

What is an embolus?

A

Abnormal material within the circulatory system which is carried in the blood to a site distant from its point of origin. 90% arise from thrombi.

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7
Q

Apart from thrombi, give examples of other types of emboli.

A 
Gas (interventional procedures, divers)
Fat (fractures)
Tumour
Amniotic fluid (childbirth)
Foreign Material (IVD user).
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8
Q

What is infarction?

A

Necrosis due to ischaemia.

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9
Q

What are red infarcts?

A

Occur due to venous occlusion. Occur in loose tissues (e.g. lungs). Occur in organs with dual circulation (lung, bowel).

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10
Q

What are white infarcts?

A

Occur due to arterial occlusion in dense/solid organs.

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11
Q

What is shock?

A

Systemic hypotension due to reduced circulatory volume or reduced cardiac output resulting in tissue hypoxia.

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12
Q

What is acute inflammation?

A

A rapid non-specific response to cellular injury, allowing rapid delivery of leukocytes and plasma proteins to the site of injury.

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13
Q

What are 4 signs of inflammation on examination?

A

Redness, heat, swelling, pain.

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14
Q

How is vascular permeability increased by histamine?

A

Endothelial cells contract: increased interendothelial spacing.

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15
Q

What is the transudate?

A

Fluid pushed through capillary walls due to high hydrostatic pressure.

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16
Q

What is the exudate?

A

What leaves blood vessels due to ‘leaky’ vessel walls.

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17
Q

Which leukocytes are most important in the initial phase of typical acute inflammation?

A

Those which phagocytose (neutrophils and macrophages) which kill the bacteria and eliminate foreign and necrotic material.

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18
Q

Describe the termination of a typical acute inflammation.

A

Inflammation mediators and neutrophils have a short half-life. Macrophages, mast cells and lymphocytes produce anti-inflammatory products. The cause of cell injury is removed, so it comes to a stop.

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19
Q

Define chronic inflammation.

A

Inflammation of prolonged duration in which inflammation, tissue injury and attempts at tissue repair coexist.

20
Q

What may cause chronic inflammation?

A

Persistent infection, prolonged exposure to toxins or autoimmunity.

21
Q

What is granulation tissue?

A

A loose network of connective tissues and blood vessels with lots of lymphocytes, plasma cells and fibroblasts. It is made to replace damaged tissue.

22
Q

Give 2 types of wound healing.

A

Resolution: regeneration of parenchymal cells with restoration of function.
Scarring: angiogenesis, migration and repair of fibroblasts, scar formation, connective tissue remodelling.

23
Q

What is neoplasia?

A

Growth which continues even when the initial stimulus is removed, is independent of the body’s normal growth regulation mechanisms, and is purposeless. CANCERS ARE MALIGNANT NEOPLASMS.

24
Q

What are hamartomas (hamartomatous tumours)?

A

Localised benign overgrowths: ARCHITECTURAL but not cytological abnormalities.

25
Q

Give differences between tumour cells and the cells from which the tumours are derived.

A

Tumour cells have larger nuclei, more mitoses and abnormal mitoses (e.g. tripolar) and also have marked pleomorphism (variable nuclear shape and size).

26
Q

What is haematogenous spread?

A

Metastasis by the blood vessels, often the veins and capillaries as they have thinner walls.

27
Q

What is perineural spread?

A

Metastasis by the nervous system.

28
Q

What is grade and stage of a tumour?

A

Grade is how differentiate the tumour is.

Stage is how far has the tumour spread.

29
Q

What is the TNM system for assessing stage?

A 
T = tumour (the tumour size/extent of local invasion)
N = Nodes (number of lymph nodes involved)
M = metastases (presence of distant metastases)
30
Q

Which cases are referred to the coroner?

A

If…
The cause of death is unknown
Not seen by doctor after death or within 14 days before death
Death was violent, unnatural or suspicious
Death may be due to an accident (even if it occurred in the past)
Death may be due to neglect by self or others
Death due to industrial accident or disease from work
Death may be due to an abortion
During operation or before effects of anaesthetic finish
Due to suicide
In police or prison custody
Death may be related to poisoning.

31
Q

What is the difference between a coroner and hospital autopsy?

A

Coroner autopsy –> no consent required. Only disease-related material taken.
Hospital autopsy –> consented, thorough examination, teaching and research.

32
Q

What are some epidemiological uses of death certificates?

A

Used to monitor the nation’s health, to allocate resources and detect environmental risk.

33
Q

What is atrophy?

A

Shrinkage in size of cells by loss of cell substance.

34
Q

What is an ulcer?

A

An open sore on an external or internal surface of the body, caused by a break in the skin or mucous membrane which fails to heal.

35
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

A REVERSIBLE change in which one adult cell type is replaced by another.

36
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Pre-cancerous cells which show the genetic and cytological features of malignancy but not invading the underlying tissue (can’t metastasise).

37
Q

Give the Beer-Lambert Law.

A

A = E c I — A = absorbance; E = extinction coefficient; c = concentration, I = path length.

38
Q

What are the 5 types of shock?

A

Cardiogenic shock: heart failure; reduced cardiac output
Hypovolaemic shock: fluid loss / haemorrhage
Septic shock: infection activates immune system, resultant vasodilation and blood pooling.
Neurogenic shock: loss of vascular tone, cord injury / anaesthetic.
Anaphylactic.

39
Q

What is the purpose of exudate?

A

Dilute pathogens
“Wall off” pathogens
Permit spread of soluble inflammatory mediators.
Provide substrate for inflammatory cell migration.

40
Q

What is anaplasia?

A

Cells with poor differentiation, losing the morphological characteristics of mature cells.

41
Q

Describe the structure of the dermis.

A

A DENSE, IRREGULAR connective tissue, since its collagen fibres are randomly orientated to give equal strength in all directions.

42
Q

Give some key characteristics of apoptosis

A

Apoptosis is ACTIVE and energy dependent. It is NOT associated with inflammation.

43
Q

What are the 4 fates of thrombi?

A

Propagation, embolization, dissolution, organisation and recanalization.

44
Q

What is a multinucleated giant cell?

A

A mass formed by the union of several distinct cells, usually histiocyes

45
Q

What is the difference between a cut and a stab?

A

Cut: length > depth of wound
Stab: depth > width of wound.
Both are made by a sharp object with clean edges to the wound.

46
Q

Name 3 outcomes of a Helicobacter Pylori infection.

A

Inflammation (acute and chronic)
Cell damage: atrophy, metaplasia, dysplasia
Neoplasia: carcinoma, lymphoma.

Molecules, Cells and Diseases (MCD) and Epidemiology in Practice (EiP) (9 decks)

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