cell biology Flashcards

1
Q

what do cell membrane do

A

Maintain differences between the cytosol and extracellular environment

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2
Q

what does the cell membrane do

A

Provides attachment sites
Functions in cell signalling

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3
Q

What does amphiphilic moelcules mean

A

regions of both hydrophobic and hydrophilic

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4
Q
A

n

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5
Q

what type of bond do hydrophobic tails contain

A

have a cis double bond

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6
Q

how does the cis double bond affect membrane fluidity and width

A

The cis double bond makes chains more difficult to pack , hydrocarbon chains are more spread out and lipid bilayers are thinner

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7
Q

whta do phosphilids do at low temp

A

due to reduced energy they move less and pack together tighter

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8
Q

what do saturated hydrocarbons allow for

A

closer packing

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9
Q

At low temp how does cholesterol affect fluidity in cell membrane

A

cholesterol increases the spacing between the hydrocarbons and increases fluidity

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10
Q

At high temp how does cholesterol affect fluidity in cell membrane

A

cholesterol pulls the hydrocarbon tails together and decreases fluidity

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11
Q

what is flip flopping in the cell membrane

A

movement of a lipid / protein from one side of a cell membrane to another

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12
Q

how do lipid fats form

A

this occurs from membrane enriched in cholesterol and sphingolipids that form rafts and move laterally

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13
Q

what is NLS - Nucleaur Localisation Signal

A

Amino acid sequence tha tags a protein for entry into the nucleus

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14
Q

What is the Nuclear Export Signal

A

Amino acid sequence that tags a protein for exit from the nucleus

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15
Q

what does the nucleur pore complex do

A

Regulates movement in/out of nucleus

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16
Q

why is the function of the nucleur pore complex so important

A

allows small moelcules to repaidly move freely in and out
larger proteins move more slowly

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17
Q

how does the co-translational protein import into the ER occur

A

-ribosome binds to ER membrane
-Protein imported into ER
-Requires ER signal sequence
-Transloctaor closed until ribosome binds
-N-terminal signal peptide iniates passage of protein through translocator
-signal peptide cleaved by signal peptidase

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18
Q

what is a polysome

A

group of ribosomes that are attached to a strand of mRNA and work together to translate the mRNA into protein

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19
Q

whats an oligosaccharide

A

carbohydrate made up of a small number of simple sugars

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20
Q

How do vesicles move from the ER to the Golgi

A

-Vesicles bud off the ER at specialised exit sites with a COPII coat
-COPII plays a role in recruiting proteins with “exit or transport “ signals
-Incorrectly folded proteins retained in the ER

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21
Q

how do vesicles get from the ER to the cis Golgi

A

Vesicles move from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) to the cis-Golgi by budding off from the ER membrane and fusing with the cis-Golgi membrane. This process is called vesicular transport

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22
Q

what is the cis golgi

A

a large network of tubules and vesicles that is part of the Golgi apparatus and receives and processes proteins and lipids from the endoplasmic reticulum

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23
Q

what are the 2 routes that vesicles can take to get from the ER to the Golgi

A

cisternal maturation
vesicle transport

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24
Q

what is the cystosol

A

The aqueous portion of the cytoplasm

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25
Q

What do mitochondria do

A

highly fodled so increase SA
move in straight lines
can bind into the microtubules via the mito protein

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26
Q

what is the strucuture of mitochondrion

A

Porins - allow small molecules through
Outer membrane-Includes porins , membrane channels permeable to molecules 5KDa or less
Intermembrane space-Similar composition to cytoplasm for smaller molecules
Inner membrane-Cristae , includes an unusual double phospholipid Cardiolipin(different lipid composition - cardiolipin - has 4 tails instead of the usual 2 )-Function - makes membrane impermeable to ions
Electron transport chain - series of proteins embedded in the membrane which allow transport of protons across the membrane
ATP synthase - embedded , allow production of ATP
Matric - space enclosed by cristae
Mitochondrial DNA - usually circular

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27
Q
A
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28
Q

what are the two parts of mitochondrial fission

A

Midzone fission
Peripheral fission

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29
Q

what happens in midzone fission

A

Mitochondria breaks into two

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30
Q

what happens in peripheral fission

A

1)Pinching of end region
2)All material packed into one end of mitochondrion
3)This end is pinched off and gets rid of the material which isnt useful

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31
Q

what can peripheral fission be used for

A

To get rid of damaged material

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32
Q

what happens during stage 1 of the chemiosmotic coupling

A

(E=electrons)
-E trasnffered along series of E carriers embedded in membrane
-This releases energy used to pump H+ across membrane
-Protein gradient by moving protons across inner mitochondrial membrane
-Oxides NADPH
-2 electrons reduce oxygen to water

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33
Q

what happens during stage 2 of chemiosmotic coupling

A

-Fats broken down releasing high energy electrons
-This is broken down by the citric acid cycle , releasing electrons
-2 electrons picked up by NAD+ creating NADH
-Glycolysis converts glucose to pyruvate

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34
Q

Features of prokaryotic ribosomes

A

-70s ribosomes
-50s large subunit
-30s small subunit

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35
Q

Features of eukaryotic ribosomes

A

-80s ribosomes
-60s large subunit
-40s small subunit

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36
Q

What are the three domains on the ribosomes

A

E site
P site
A site

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37
Q

what do the sites on the ribosomes do

A

A site=incoming aminoacyl tRNA( binding site where amino acids are brought in )
P site =binding site that holds tRNA
E site = Exit of deacylated tRNA

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38
Q

What are RIPS

A

Ribosome inactivating proteins

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39
Q

How does peroxisome biogenesis and maturation occur

A

-Budding of vesicles from the ER
-Import proteins recruit peroxisome proteins
-Peroxisomes undergo fission to replicate

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40
Q

what hydrolytic enzymes do lysosomes contain

A

proteases,nucleases,phospholipases

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41
Q

what is autophagy

A

Process that occurs in cells to break down

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42
Q

Why does the lysosome not digest itself

A

-Modified lipid membrane with highly glycosylated proteins
-Membrane transporters to remove and recycle / extract digestion products
-Vacuolar H+ ATPase - hydrolyzes ATP and pumps protons into the lysosome

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43
Q

what are proteasomes

A

protein complexes that break down proteins in cells

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44
Q

What are proteasomes important for

A

Important for degredation in the cell , to only make the correctly folded functional proteins

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45
Q

What are the functions of the cytoskeleton

A

-Gives the cell its shape
-Capacity to move or alter its shape
-Organisation of organelles
-Transport of organelles

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46
Q

What are the components of the cytoskeleton

A

-Microfilaments
-Intermediate filaments
-Microtubules

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47
Q

What are microfilaments comprised of

A

Comrpised of a linear assemblies of 43kDa actin protein monomers

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48
Q

What do actin filaments consist of

A

Consist of 2 strands of F-actin

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49
Q

What are ends of the microfilament called

A

It is polar with a “barbed”- the plus end and “pointed”the minus end

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50
Q

What modulates the rate of microfilament synthesis

A

Profilin and thymosin levels

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51
Q

What does profilin do in terms of actin

A

-Competes with thymosin for binding to actin monomors
-Binds to actin subunit , making it more available for binding
-Thymosin causes no binding

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52
Q

Whta does a -Tublin have that b-Tublin doesnt

A

Has a bound molecule of GTP

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53
Q

what is the major Microtubule Organising Centre of animal cells

A

The centrosome

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54
Q

What can microfilaments do

A

Can polymerise and deploymerise

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55
Q

How does the regualtion of microfilament length occur

A

-CA2+ dependent binding of gelsolin can cause cleavage of the microfilament
-The gelsolin / microfilament complex can act as a primer for chain elongation
-Gelsolin is freed by PIPZ producing free positive ends for rapid microfilament elongation

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56
Q

What do Microtubule associated proteins do

A

They allow crosslinking of microtubules

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57
Q

What end of the microtubule does the motor protein Kinesin move towards

A

The plus end

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58
Q

What end does Dynein (a motor protein)move towards on the microtubule

A

The minus end

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59
Q

How many binding regions does myosin have

A

2

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60
Q

characteristics of motor proteins

A

Globular head region-engages the filament and actively moves along it
Tail region-Point of attachment of the motor protein and its cargo
Power stroke-ATP hydrolysis causes a conformational change thrusting the head backwards creating tension in the tail
This moves the tail and cargo forward

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61
Q

characteristics of kinesin

A

Dimer of a heavy and light chain
Forms a tetrameric structure
Three domains:
1-Large globular head
Binds microtubules and ATP
2-Stalk
3-Small globular head
Binds to vesicles

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62
Q

what is kinesin

A

a motor protein that moves along microtubules in eukaryotic cells to transport cellular cargo

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63
Q

How does a cilium move

A

-Primary force is an ATP-driven ciliac movement of ciliary dynein
-Dynein movements cause MTs in cilium core to slide against each other
-Causes cilium to bend

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64
Q

Whats the difference between power stroke and recovery stroke of a cilia

A

The power stroke is the active, force-generating phase of ciliary movement
The recovery stroke is the reset phase that occurs after the power stroke.

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65
Q

What is the cytoskeleton important for

A

The cytoskeleton is important to have an accurate partitioning of the chromosomes during division(important in anaphase)

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66
Q

How do actin and the membrane interact

A

-Interaction between actin and the membrane is indirect via specific groups of actin binding sites
-Around 100 actin binding proteins have been described

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67
Q

what are three examples of actin binding proteins and what do they do

A

Type1-ABPs that bind to the membrane via interaction with lipids
Type2-Integral membrane proteins
Type3-ABPs that associate with an integral membrane protein

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68
Q

How does Duchenne muscular dystrophy (GMD) occur?

A

Mutations in dystrophin

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69
Q

What is chromatin

A

complex of DNA and proteins(histones) and non-histone proteins

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70
Q

what does Peroxisome Biogenesis and Maturation mean

A

Peroxisome Biogenesis and Maturation refer to the processes by which peroxisomes, essential organelles within cells, are formed and developed to carry out their vital functions

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71
Q

How does a cilium move

A

-Primary force is an ATP-driven cycli movement of ciliary dyein
-Dynein movements cause MTs in cilium core to slide against each other
-Causes cilium to bend

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72
Q

What two functional domains do each of the core histones from the octomer possess

A

amino - terminal tail and histone fold

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73
Q

whats a dimer

A

dimer is a molecule composed of two identical or similar subunits, known as monomers, that are chemically bonded together

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74
Q

whats a histone octamer

A

A histone octamer is a structural complex composed of eight histone proteins that play a key role in organizing and packaging DNA into a compact structure called chromatin in eukaryotic cells

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75
Q

Histone octamer is formed from what dimers

A

H3-H4 and H2A-H2B

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76
Q

what do linker histones do

A

bind both DNA and nucleosome core. They can change the path of DNA that exits nucleosome. Hence, it affects the linker DNA accessibility, organisation of higher order chromatin fibre and chromatin compaction

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77
Q

What two kind of complexes form from proteins from the (SMC) structural maintenance of chromosomes

A

Cohesion and condensin

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78
Q

what stage of the cell cycle is chromatin organised into loops

A

Interphase

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79
Q

what are loop domains organised by

A

Organised by Cohesin complexes and CTCF protein

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80
Q

Is mitotic chromatin organised into loops

A

Yes

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81
Q

What happens to cohesion and condensin in prophase

A

Cohesion is removed and condensin is used more which form loops randomly

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82
Q

what is the definiftion of interphase

A

Interphase-the period between the end of one M phase and the beginning of the next

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83
Q

what occurs during M phase in the cell cycle

A

M phase: the cell - cycle phase during which the duplicated chromosomes are segregated and packaged into daughter nuclei (mitosis) and distributed into daughter cells (cytokensis)

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84
Q

what is chromatin

A

Chromatin: complex of DNA , histones , and non-histone proteins found in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell

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85
Q

what are histones

A

Histones : a group of small abundant proteins , rich in basic amino acids , that combine to form the nucleosomes cores around which DNA is wrapped in eukaryotic chromosomes

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86
Q

Where are the three checkpoints in mitosis

A

-G1 checkpoint (start transition)
-G2 checkpoint (G2/M transition)
-Metaphase checkpoint( metaphase to anaphase transition)

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87
Q

what is cyclin

A

Cyclin is a type of regulatory protein that plays a crucial role in controlling the progression of the cell cycle. Cyclins bind to and activate cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs), forming complexes that drive the cell through different stages of the cell cycle.

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88
Q

is Cdk active or inactive with cyclin

A

active

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89
Q

What do G1 clyclins do ( in mitosis- at the start )

A

Cyclins that bind and activate Cdks that stimulate entry into a new cell cycle at start:their concentration depends on the rate of cell growth or on growth-promoting signals rather than on the phase of the cell cycle

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90
Q

What do cyclins do

A

Bind to different Cdks

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91
Q

what regulates Cdks -cyclin depdendent kinase

A

CAKS- cyclin activating kinases

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92
Q

What are CAKs responsible for

A

Cdk-activating kinases (CAKs) are responsible for fully activating the cyclin-CDK complexes.

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93
Q

How does CAK activate Cdk

A

-Cyclin binds to inactive Cdk
-The T loop then moves out of the active site
-Phosphorylation of the T loop causes the Cdk to become now fully active as the shape of the T loop has now changed

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94
Q

How does the wee1-Cdc25 regulatory pathway work in order to control the Cdk activity

A

-Phosphorylation inactives the cyclin-Cdk complex whilst dephosphorylation by the phosphate Cdc25 leads to reactivation

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95
Q

How do Cdk inhibitor proteins inactivate cyclin-Cdk complexes

A

-CKI ( CDk inhibiting proteins) binds to the Cdk , changing the structure of it so that it becomes inactive
-CKI is a protein that interacts with Cdks/Cdk-cyclin complexes to block their activity

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96
Q

What are the three control mechanisms for the cell cycle

A

signalling pathways
transcriptional regulation
regulated proteolysis

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97
Q

whats a polyubiquitin chain

A

Polyubiquitination: The addition of multiple ubiquitin molecules to a protein results in a polyubiquitin chain, which serves as a signal for recognition by the proteasome.

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98
Q

what is the proteasome responsible for

A

Proteasome is a large protein complex with proteolytic activity that is responsible for degrading proteins marked by polyubiquitin modification

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99
Q

How are proteins digested by the proteasome

A

-The polyubiquitin chain is translocated into the proteasome core , where its digested
-This is cleaved from the susbtrate protein and recycled

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100
Q

What is APC/C

A

Anapahase promoting complex / cyclosome

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101
Q

What does APC/C do

A

The APC/C is a highly regulated E3 ligase complex that plays a pivotal role in the regulation of the cell cycle, particularly during anaphase and metaphase-to-anaphase transition. It targets proteins for degradation that regulate mitosis, ensuring proper chromosome segregation and progression through the cell cycle.

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102
Q

what do Cdc20 and Cdh1 activate

A

APC/C complex

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103
Q

What do Skp2,FBW7,B-TRCP activate

A

SCF

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104
Q

What is metamaphse to anaphase transition driven by

A

Anaphase promoting complex (APC/C)

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105
Q

What four stages does the cell cycle consist of

A

G1-S-G2-M

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106
Q

What are the regulatory mechanisms that control the Cyclin-Cdk complex activity

A

CAK-activating kinase (stimulation by activating phosphoroylation)
Wee1(Supression by inhibiting phosphoroylation)
CKIs(Supression by binding of Cdk inhibitor roetin)

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107
Q

what occurs during prophase

A

-replicated chromosomes condense
-Mitotic spindle assembles between the two centrosomes , which have replicated and moved apart
-Longest phase

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108
Q

what occurs during prometaphase

A

-Breakdown of nuclear envelope
-After nuclear envelope breakdown(NEBD) chromosomes can attach to spindle microtubules via their kinetochores and undergo active movement
–Open mitosis

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109
Q

What occurs during metaphase

A

-Chromosomes are aligned at the equator , midway between the spindle fibres (metaphase plate).The kinetochore microtubules attach sister chromatids to opposite poles of the spindle

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110
Q

What are chromosomes attached to the mitotic spindle via

A

Kinetchores

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111
Q

where are kinetochores assembled on

A

Assembled on the centromeric chromatin (the centromere)

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112
Q

what are kinetochores responsible for

A

The attachment of microtubules

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113
Q

what holds the sister chromatids together in mitosis

A

held together by cohesion

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114
Q

What leads to the activation of the Spindle Assembly Checkpoint

A

Lack of proper connection between a kinetochore and microtubule fibre leads to the activation of the Spindle Assembly Checkpoint
which leads to the inhibition of APC/C

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115
Q

What does inhibition of APC/C do

A

Inhibited APC/C stops the progression of mitosis in metaphase

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116
Q

What does the spindle assembly checkpoint do

A

Spindle assembly checkpoint
1-Detects incorrect attachments at kinetochores
2-Arrests cells in metaphase
3-Provides more time to correct improper attachments

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117
Q

What keeps APC/C inactive

A

spindle assembly checkpoint(SAC)

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118
Q

what is Ubiquitination

A

Ubiquitination is the process of attaching a small protein called ubiquitin to a target protein

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119
Q

What two major functions does APC/C do when activated

A

-Ubiquitination of securin
-Ubiquitination of Cyclin B

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120
Q

What does Ubiquitination of securin do

A

-seperase removes cohesion from centromers which triggers anapahase

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121
Q

what does securin inhibit

A

Securin inhibits separase, preventing chromosome separation

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122
Q

What does the APC/C do to securin

A

The APC/C complex, activated by Cdc20, ubiquitinates securin, marking it for degradation.

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123
Q

What does seperase do in the cell cycle that allows sister chromatids to seperate

A

Separase cleaves cohesin, allowing sister chromatids to separate and move toward opposite poles, leading to successful anaphase.

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124
Q

What occurs in anaphase

A

-The sister chromatids synchronously separate to form two daughter chromosomes
-Shortening of kinetochore microtubule and the spindle poles move apart

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125
Q

what occurs in telophase

A

-Chromosome decondense
-Nuclear envelope reasembles around chromosome masses
-Microtubules that start to form central spindle
-Contractile ring (composed of actin) start to contract

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126
Q

What occurs in cytokinesis

A

-Cytoplasm divided in two by a contractile ring of actin and myosin filaments , which pinches the cell in two to create two daughter cells

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127
Q

What is the centrosome responsible for

A

The production of microtubules

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128
Q

What do microtubules form in mitosis

A

Form mitotic spindles

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129
Q

Is alpha or beta tubulin exposed on the minus end of a microtubule

A

alpha

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130
Q

What allows for the controlled entry into mitosis

A

accumulation of M-cyclins and regulatory phosphoroylations of Cdk1

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131
Q

why does activated SAC ( spindle assembly checkpoint) inhibit the onset of anaphase

A

Inhibits the anaphase onset until all kinetochores are properly connected to microtubules

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132
Q

What do proper attachments of kinetochores trigger

A

-Inactivation of SAC
-Activation of APC/C

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133
Q

What two activites does APC/C induce

A

-Destruction of M-cyclins
-Activation of separase , which removes centromeric cohesin

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134
Q

How do tumours form

A

From the proliferation of cells

135
Q

What is apoptosis

A

Programmed cell death

136
Q

What do mitogens do

A

stimulate cell division

137
Q

How do mitogens stimulate cell division

A

Mitogens,which stimulate cell division , primarily by triggering a wave of G1/S-Cdk activity that relieves intracellular negative controls that otherwise block progress through the cell cycle

138
Q

What does a mutant receptor do

A

-Oncogenes encode mutant receptors whos tryosine kinase is permantly activated , missing its growth factor so growth factor cant bind

139
Q

What are oncogenes

A

Oncogene; a gene whose protein product promotes cancer, generally because mutations or rearrangements in a normal gene (the proto-oncogene) have resulted in a protein that is overactive or overproduced.

140
Q

What are tumour suppressor genes

A

Tumour suppressor gene; a gene that encodes a protein that normally restrains cell proliferation such that loss of the gene increases the likelihood of cancer formation

141
Q

Why can cancer occur due to mutated p53 (hint-resulting in no cell death)

A

DNA damage , cell cycle abnormalities , but due to mutated p53 the cell cycle continues resulting in cancerous cells

142
Q

what occurs in meisis1

A

-in mitosis homologous chromosomes remain separate.in meiosis homologous chromosomes recognise each other and associate physically

143
Q

What are the homologs (in meiosis) joined by

A

Joined by a protein complex called the Synaptonemal complex (SC)

144
Q

What is homolog synapsis (In meiosis I, specifically during prophase I, homologous chromosomes undergo a critical process called synapsis)

A

homologous chromosomes pair up with their homologs followed by a desynapsis , where they begin to seperate

145
Q

what are the stages prophase 1 of meosis

A

Leptotene
Zygotene
Pachytene
Diplotene

146
Q

What does SC stand for in meosis

A

Synaptonemal complex (SC)

147
Q

what does the Sc - synaptonemal complex - do for chromosomes

A

Holds them together

148
Q

what is a chiasma

A

A chiasma (plural: chiasmata) refers to a point where two homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material during a process called crossing over

149
Q

are haploid or diploid gametes produced during meiosis

150
Q

what occurs in prophase in meiosis

A

Meiosis 1 has a very long prophase , during which homologous chromosomes pair, synaptonemal complex forms to hold them together

151
Q

what are plastids

A

Meiosis 1 has a very long prophase , during which homologous chromosomes pair, synaptonemal complex forms to hold them together

152
Q

what are the features of a plastid

A

-enclosed by an envelope-a pair of membranes
-usually have an internal membrane structure
-Contain a reduced genome of a single circular chromosome of couple (have their own genome)
-stranded DNA
-Retain capacity for protein synthesis with translation using prokaryotic-like ribosomes
-Reproduce by division
The evolution of plastids
-range in size
-in chloroplast genes are organised in polycistronic transcriptional units

153
Q

How are chloroplasts synthesised and transported

A

Chloroplasts are synthesized in the cytoplasm by ribosomes and then transported into the chloroplast.

154
Q

what is photosystem 2

A

An enzyme used to split water

155
Q

what does photosystem 2 contain that allows light to be absorbed

A

A light harvesting antenna

156
Q

How does the light harvesting antenna in photosystem 2 absorb light

A

contains lots of chlorophyll and proteins
-It then transfers the energy to the reaction centre in photosystem 2
-Contains lots of pigemnts so increases range of wavelengths for light absorption

157
Q

In the light harvesting antenna complex what are chlorophyll molecules held in place by

A

-Chlorophyl molecules are held in place by proteins called light harvesting- chlorophylla/b-binding proteins that span the thylakoid membrane
-carotenoids good at absorbing light , transfer this energy to the reaction centre

158
Q

How do the electrons from PS2 get transported to PS1

A

-Pheophytin(modofied chlorophyll) accepts the electrons
- plastoquinone holds the electron and passes it on the cytochrome b6f complex , passes its electron to plastocyanin (in the lumen)
-Plastocyanin passes its electron to photosystem 1
-They then go to ferredoxin which then gets passed to ferredoxin-NADP reductase
-Which is where NADP+ is reduced into NADPH

159
Q

How is ATP produced in the light dependent reaction (page 61)

A

-Membrane impermeable to protons generating the proton gradient
-High Ph in the lumen
-Low Ph outside the lumen allows for more protons
-ATP synthase enzyme takes the protons and passes them though the membrane, generating ATP

160
Q

What occurs in the calvin cycle

A

Phase1-carbon fixation
phase2=reduction
phase3=regeneration of RuBP
1 molecule of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate requires 9ATP and 6NAPDH
1 NADPH=Move 5 protons

Rubisco
Converts ribulose 1,5 bisphosphate to 3-phosphoglycerate

Regeneration of ribulose 1,5 bisphosphate
-Requires ATP

Glyceraldehyde-phosphate is transpired to the cytosol to make sucrose (glucose+fructose)

161
Q

What is the problem with rubisco (hint-problem with recycling the cabron )

A

-When rubisco uses oxygen instead of carbon dioxide it is energetically costly to recycle the carbon
-When its warm , the stomata need to be closed to prevent water loss and this reduces gas exchange and the availability of c02, rubisco activity increases but affinity for c02 decreases and therefore more oxygen is used

162
Q

C4 photosyntheiss is a solution to rubisco (increase co2) , how

A

C4 photosynthesis - the light and carbon reactions take place in specialised cells
In C4 plants , bundle sheath cells are photosynthetic and surrounded by layers of mesophyll layers
-Artificially create conditions where u have high co2 concentration around the rubisco
-Fix c02 differently , fixed as oxaloacetate
-The enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) carboxylase fixes c02 as HCO3 to give oxaloacetate
-When c02 is limiting C4 plants can outcompete and photosynthesise more than C3 plants

163
Q

CAM(Crassulacean Acid Metbaolism is used rather rubisco , how

A

-Adaptation to even more dry , arid conditions and the need to prevent water loss
In c4 plants there is a spatial separation (one cell doing the light reaction and another doing the carbon reaction- c02 fixation) of c02 fixation
-C02 is taken up at night and stored as malic acid in the vacuole until the light period , allow them to only open stomata at night to prevent water loss
-In the day c02 is available for fixation via the calvin cycle even with stomata closed
(in chloroplast malic acid converted to malate into C02)

164
Q

What two things are needed for biochemical signalling

A

-Receptor and ligand

165
Q

what is a ligand

A

-A signal ligand is a small molecule that forms a complex with a macromolecule typically a receptor protein , that results in a conformational change in the receptor and then generates a signal

166
Q

what is a ligand

A

A ligand is a molecule or ion that binds to a specific site on a target protein or other macromolecule, typically through non-covalent interactions such as hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, or van der Waals forces. Ligands can be various types of molecules, including small ions, gases, peptides, or even larger molecules like hormones or neurotransmitters.

167
Q

what are contact dependent signals

A

Signals that target adjacent touching cells (need contact)

168
Q

What are cell matrix signals

A

Signals from the insoluble extracellular matrix

169
Q

What is involved with contact dependent signals

A

-Require interaction between membrane molecules on two cells, cells must be touching
-Signals are transmitted through cell membranes via protein components integral to the membrane of the emitting cells
-change in target cell
-Needs contact

170
Q

what are three signals that are soluble

A

-Autocrine
-Paracrine
-Endocrine

171
Q

How do autocrine signals work

A

-Autocrine signals are secreted and affect the target cell itself via its own receptor
-Releasing extracellular signal , binds ligand and causes a response
-cell that produces the signal has the receptor for that molecule
-Target site on same cell

172
Q

what occurs in intacrine signalling (inta=in cell )

A

-Intracrine signals - produced by and stay within target cells
-receptor for that ligand is within the cell (intracellularly)
-Steroid hormones have their receptors in the cell so can act as intracrine
a signaling molecule, typically a hormone or other ligand, is produced within the cell and acts inside the same cell without being released into the extracellular space.

173
Q

what occurs in paracrine signalling (neurotransmitters)

A

-Paracrine signals target cells in the vicinity of the emitting cell
-Very localised - eg neurotransmitters
-Target cell sits within the vicinity , but doesnt have to be in contact with it

174
Q

What occurs in endocrine signalling

A

-Endocrine signals target distant cells by producing hormones that travel through the circulation to reach all parts of the body
-only going to bring a response if the cell has the correct receptor
-hormones have a low Kd ,hormone receptors are part of amplification cascades
-Only a few receptors are bound to the ligand
-Need to amplify signal to get a response
(page 64)

175
Q

Where are the receptors for hydrophilic moelcules)

A

Have to sit on the outside of the membrane
Cant cross the plasma membrane so receptors at the cell surface
page 65

176
Q

Where are the receptors for thyrodi hormones (inside or outside cell)

A

are hydrophobic but have a carrier at the cell surface to bring the ligand into the cell and have receptors in the cytoplasm

177
Q

How is signal transduction defined

A

Defined as :How chemical or physical signals are transmitted through a cell as a series of molecular events

178
Q

what is a ligand in simple form

A

In simple terms, a ligand is a molecule or ion that binds to a specific site on a protein or receptor to trigger a response. Think of it like a key that fits into a lock to activate or change something in a cell.

179
Q

what do first messengers do in the signalling pathway

A

In a signaling pathway, first messengers are the signals or molecules that initiate the pathway by binding to a receptor on the cell’s surface or inside the cell. These messengers are typically extracellular (outside the cell) and include molecules like hormones, neurotransmitters, growth factors, or environmental signals.

180
Q

do cell surface receptors need second messengers

181
Q

Ways to turn off singals in signalling pathways

A

-Enzymatic breakdown-cleavage of signal molecule to inactive components(acetylcholinesterase breaking down acetylcholine)
-Reuptake(Many neurotransmitters transferred back into the secreting cell)

182
Q

In lipophilic signalling (hydrophobic) where are the receptors

A

inside the cell

183
Q

How does nitric oxide signalling occur

A

-The target for Nitric Oxide is called Guanylate Cyclase , nitric oxide binds to the active site of this and activates it
-This leads to an increase in the production of cyclic GMP (cGMP) from GTP.
-The cGMP produced acts as a secondary messenger + causes relxation
-The effects of NO are temporary. Phosphodiesterase enzymes break down cGMP, thus terminating the signal and returning the cell to its normal state
-Phosphoroylated enzymes converted back to original form by phosphatases

184
Q

What are the three forms of NO synthase

A

eNOS-blood vessel endothelial cells
nNOS-neuronal cells
iNOS-inducible isoform occurring in cells of the immune system

185
Q

How does steroid signalling occur

A

-cant be stored in vesicles so released into blood
(bind to protein so helps being carried in blood )
-Readily diffuse into cells where they bind to cytoplasmic receptors
-Binding to their receptor unmasks DNA binding sites and nuclear localisation sites on the receptor
Transported to the nucleus as complex where DNA binding by receptor regulates gene expression
-Signal removed by metabolism of the steroid

186
Q

Do thyroid hormones cross the cell membrane or diffuse into the cell membrane

A

-Thyroid hormones cant cross the cell membrane but have transporters to bing them into the cell
-They diffuse into nucleus
-Their receptors are already in the nucleus and bind

187
Q

As steroid and thryoxine hormones are already in the cytoplasm what type of messenger dont they need

188
Q

What are the three classes of receptors for the hydrophilic signals

A

-Ligand-gated ion channels
-G protein-linked receptors
-Enzyme-linked receptors

189
Q

Nicotinic Acetylcholine receptor is an example of what type of receptor(-Ligand-gated ion channels or
-G protein-linked receptors or
-Enzyme-linked receptors
)

A

-Ligand gated ion channel

190
Q

what is the structure of a nicotine acetylcholine receptor

A

Structure:5 polypeptides(5 subunits)
-4 alpha helices ,
3 (M1,M3,M4) of these sit within the lipid membrane (they are hydrophobic)
M2 is amphiphilic so lines the pore , this acts as the channel
-The 5 amphipathic helices produce a channel across the membrane
-The alpha subunits have the acetylcholine binding regions
-Conformation changes on binding on binding of 2 acetylcholine molecules

191
Q

how does acetylcholine binding occur (page 69)

A

-Acetylcholine binding causes the helices to rotate pulling charged residues from the pore opening it
-When closed the L faces inwards so there are no gaps
-When Ach bind they rotate and point outwards to allow molecules to enter,allow cations to enter
-It is non-selective but it permeable for Na and K
-Blocks larger + negatively charged ions
-Opening sodium channels will depolarise the cell as the membrane potential and sodium gradient result in sodium entering the cell

192
Q

what is the structure of a G-protein linked receptor

A

-All have a 7 pass structure-cross the membrane 7 times
-N to C terminus

193
Q

what is the mechanism for the activation of GPCR (G protein linked receptors)

A

-When a ligand binds to a GPCR it causes a conformational chain in the receptor
-Activation of G-protein: The conformational change activates the associated G-protein, which is composed of three subunits: α, β, and γ.
The α-subunit exchanges GDP for GTP, becoming active.
The βγ-dimer can also initiate signaling pathways.
Signal transduction: Activated G-proteins then regulate various intracellular signaling pathways by activating or inhibiting enzymes, ion channels, or other proteins
–When GTP bound an active signalling complex is formed , when converted to GDP it is inactive
-The large G proteins link to the inner plasma membrane and associate with receptors
-In the inactive state , the GPCR is bound to a heterotrimeric G protein complex
-Binding of a ligand at the surface of the GPCR results in a conformational change in the receptor that is transmitted to the bound Galpha subunit
-This causes the Galpha subunit to release GDP and exchange it for GTP
-This triggers the dissociation of Galpa subunit from the dimer and from the receptor

194
Q

How many signalling proteins do G proteins dissociate into when activated

195
Q

What are the targets of the actiated Gas (gamma alpha stimulation) subunit (hint-kinase)

A

-In case of the B-adrenergic receptor the alpha subunit of the activated G protein activates Adenylyl Cyclase
Adenylate Cyclase converts ATP to the second messenger cyclic AMP(cAMP)
-cAMP activates a protein kinase called Protein Kinase A (PKA)
-cAMP binds to the regulatory subunits of protein kinase A releasing the active catalytic subunits

196
Q

What are the targets of the activated Gai (gamma alpha inhibitory) (hint-second messenger response)

A

-The alpha subunit inactivates the membrane bound enzyme andeyl cyclase
-Reduces second messenger cAMP
-Protein kinase A inactivated

197
Q

how does calcluim act as an intracellular messenger

A

-Calcium binds to the protein calmodulin
-Calcium activated calmodulin activates calmodulin dependent kinase
-CaM kinase regulates the activity of many proteins

198
Q

with juxtacrine signalling is it cell to cell contact

A

yes , cell to cell contact at the plasma membrane, cells must intercat with each other

199
Q

what are the three types of specialized junctions

A

occluding junctions
anchoring junctions
communicating junctions

200
Q

what are the features of communicating junctions (how does it work)-page 75

A

-form little pores between cells , calcium potassium and sodium can move through these cells
-Pore is regulatable
-Linked by gap junction
-Made from proteins called connexons
-Channels are regulatable so can close and open channels
- electrochemical signalling
-Gap junctions are regulated (eg the channels close at high ca+ concentrations allowing regulation of the coupling cells)

201
Q

what is the role of communicating junctions

A

Role: Facilitate direct communication between adjacent cells, allowing the transfer of ions, small molecules, and electrical signals.

202
Q

what is the role of occluding junctions

A

Role: Create barriers that regulate the passage of ions, solutes, and water between adjacent cells, helping to maintain tissue polarity and integrity.

203
Q

what do tight junctions do (theyre a form of occluding junctions)

A

Tight Junctions (in vertebrates): Form a seal between adjacent epithelial cells, preventing the leakage of substances between cells. Tight junctions are critical for the regulation of paracellular transport and maintaining the compartmentalization of different tissue regions.

204
Q

what do tight junctions result in

A

-Tight junctions result in a separation of a lumen about an epithelium
-Tight junctions compartmentalise the membrane as well as the surrounding cells,(cells have two separate surfaces)
-Produce impermeable bonds between cells limits paracellular permeability , maintains an osmotic variance across epithelia
-Built by two transmembrane proteins , both self interact
Have the claudins and the occludins
-Act as centres on the inner surface , form bands at the apex of epithelial cells , to interact to form an impermeable cells , also to act as a signalling cell
-Failure in tight junctions:Auto immune disease

205
Q

what is the role of anchoring junctions

A

Role: Provide mechanical stability and structural support by connecting cells to one another and to the extracellular matrix. They also help maintain tissue integrity during mechanical stress.

206
Q

what are the two types of anchoring junctions

A

adheren junctions
desmosomes

207
Q

what are cadherins

A

Cadherins : calcium dependent adherence molecules of cell-cell anchoring junctions
Meaning their functions is regulated by the presence of calcuim ions

208
Q

are cadherens calcuim dependent

209
Q

what is homophilic interactions

A

Homophilic interactions refer to the binding of similar or identical molecules between adjacent cells. These interactions are crucial for maintaining cellular adhesion and tissue organization. In the context of cadherins, homophilic interactions occur when cadherins on one cell bind to cadherins on an adjacent cell of the same type.

210
Q

what is notch

A

a signalling pathway

211
Q

what are lectins

A

proteins that bind to a sugar

212
Q

what are the roles of the extracellular matrix

A

-Scaffold for tissue support , tensile and compressive strength
-Integrates cells into a tissue
-Limits a tissue by setting boundaries
-Signals information to cells about their surroundings

213
Q

what three protein groups does the extracellular matrix contain

A

-Structural proteins(collagen,elastin)
-Proteoglycans(proteins but they have long chains of sugars on them which are important for how they behave)
3-cell adhesive proteins(which can link the structural and proteoglycans to the cell themselves , they have receptors -fibronectin,laminin

214
Q

what is the role of collagens

A

collagens are the primary structural proteins responsible for providing tensile strength to tissues

215
Q

how do collagen fibrils form (page 81)

A

-secretory pathway
–non collagenous parts are cleaved away whcih allows mature collagen trimer to be laid down into a fibril

216
Q

What are MMPs (Matrix metalloproteinases)

A

Matrix Metalloproteinases (MMPs) are a group of enzymes that play a critical role in the regulated breakdown of the extracellular matrix (ECM), including collagen and other matrix proteins

217
Q

characteristics of elastin

A

-Elastic fibres formed of the polymer elastin laid around microfilaments of fibrillin
-These molecules are cross linked to each other by hydroxylysine linkages
-Elastin is highly hydrophobic , giving random coils - hence it gives behaviour (stretching and relaxing), no defined structure
-Elastin synthesis in foetus and childhood
-Elastase is secreted by neutrophils , destroyed elastin isnt replaced after inflammation resulting in collagen being laid down more and end up in scarring and the elasticity is lost over time and more cross links formed (Instead collagen is laid down resulting in scarring of fibrosis)

218
Q

what are the functions of secreted proteoglycans

A

-Resistant to compression(alters charge density on pressure)
-Hydrated gel allows motion of nutrients and waste products about isolated cells
-High charge acts as a binding site for many molecules : growth factors (FGFs) and cytokines, released on proteoglycan damage
-Co-receptors / inducers for growth factors

219
Q

what do cell adhesion molecules do

A

-Link the extracellular matrix ( including collagen and proteoglycans )to the cell surface

220
Q

what are the key features of laminin ( a protein in the basement membrane)

A

-Heterotrimeric protein ( has three different polypeptide chains - alpha,beta,gamma)
-Has a globular region
-Binds to intergin receptors

221
Q

what are integrins

A

Integrins are a family of heterodimeric cell surface receptors that mediate cell-matrix interactions by linking the extracellular matrix (ECM) to the cytoskeleton inside the cell.

222
Q

what are the key features of intergins

A

-Dimeric molecules(composed of alpha and beta subunit)
-Theyre heterodimeric matrix receptors
-Specific integrins bind to specific ECM components

223
Q

what are focal adhesions

A

Focal adhesions are dynamic, protein-rich complexes that form at the plasma membrane where cells adhere to the ECM via integrins. They play a key role in linking integrins to the actin cytoskeleton and facilitating cell signaling.

224
Q

Role of focal adhesions

A

Focal adhesions(have 2 fibroblasts)-actin-adherens junctions
Focal adhesions form where integrins bind to specific sequences on ECM molecules
Roles: anchor cells to the ECM,cell migration and signal from the ECM

225
Q

what do hemideosomes do

A

(Bind epithelial cells to basement membrane )
Specific integrins bind laminin in the basement membrane to intermediate filaments via plectin

226
Q

what is FAK

A

Focal adhesion kinase

227
Q

what does the effectiveness of a hormone system depend on

A

Effectiveness depends on :
-Conc of free hormone
-Number of receptors on cell
-Affinity of hormone for receptor
-Efficiency of amplification
-Stopping signalling

228
Q

what are the three main hormone families

A

-Amine derived hormones
-Peptide hormones
-Lipid and phospholipid hormones

229
Q

What does the term KD (dissocation constant) mean

A

-used to describe the affinity between a ligand (such as a hormone) and its receptor
-It is defined as the concentration of the ligand (hormone) at which half of the receptors are occupied or bound by the ligand.

230
Q

Examples of second messenger systems

A

-Adenylate cyclase
-Guanylate cyclase
-Calcium and calmodulin
-Phospholipase C catalyzing phosphoinositide

231
Q

what three things determines the concentration of hormone seen by target cells

A

Rate of release-synthesis and secretion of hormones are the most highly regulated aspect of endocrine control , controlled by positive and negative feedback loops
Rate of delivery-high blood flow delivers more hormone than low
Rate of degradation and elimination-shutting off secretion of a hormone with a short half-life causes circulating hormone conc to drop

232
Q

Two ways to measure levels of hormones (what two tests)

A

-Radio-immune Assay(here the hormone is the antigen)
-ELISA(here the hormone is the target protein)

233
Q

where are the receptors for hydrophilic hormones

A

Hydrophilic hormones - cell surface transmembrane receptors (ion channel linked receptors , enzyme receptors , tyrosine kinases which all must have secondary messengers)

234
Q

where are the receptors for hydrophobic hormones

A

Hydrophobic hormones - cytoplasmic receptors, dont need secondary messengers

235
Q

what is the main function for primary endocrine organs

A

These organs primarily function to secrete hormones. Their main role is hormonal secretion into the bloodstream, where they act as chemical messengers to regulate various body processes.

236
Q

what happens if too high calcuim present

A

Hyperparathyroidism

237
Q

what happens if too low calcuim

A

Hypoparathyroidism(too little parathyroidism)

238
Q

what are tropic hormones

A

Tropic hormones are hormones that primarily regulate the secretion of other hormones from other endocrine glands. They are not directly involved in regulating physiological processes but instead act on target endocrine glands to stimulate them to produce and release their own specific hormones.

239
Q

what produces primary trophic factors

A

-hypothalamus

240
Q

does the anterior pituitary produce primary or secondary tropic hormones

A

-secondary

241
Q

what gland is the main target for tropic hormones

A

endocrine gland

242
Q

what are the three hypothalamic nuclei(that i need to know )

A

(paraventricular , supraoptic and arcuate nucleus are the three we need to know )

243
Q

what does the hypothalamus do

A

The hypothalamus is a crucial part of the brain that serves as a link between the nervous system and the endocrine system. It plays a central role in regulating various physiological processes, including hormonal regulation, temperature control

244
Q

what are tropic hormones

A

These are hormones secreted by hypothalamic neurons, which are released into the bloodstream to regulate the activity of the anterior pituitary gland

245
Q

Are there any tight junctions in the anterior pituitary

246
Q

Hypothalamic neurones produce hypothalamic releasing and inhibitory hormones , carried in the portal vessels to what gland

A

anterior pituitary glands

247
Q

What are the seven tropic hormones of the hypothalamus (5 pathways)

A

TRH-Thyrotropin releasing hormone
CRH-Corticotropin releasing hormone
GnRH-Gonadotropin releasing hormone
GHRH-Growth hormone-releasing hormone
GHIH-Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone
PRH-Prolactin-releasing hormone
PIH-Prolactin-inhibiting hormone

248
Q

what are the 5 cell types in the anterioir pituitary cell , that the tropic hormones act on

A

-Thyrotropes (respond to TRH)
-Corticotropes(respond to CRH)
-Gonadotropes(GnRH)
-Somatotropes(respond to GHRH)
-Lactotropes(respond to PRH/PIH)

249
Q

what is the mechanism of control (a response to a stimlus from the hypothalamus)

A

-stimulus detected
-hypothalamus releases tropic hormone 1 to the anterior pituitary
-This releases tropic hormone 2 to the endocrine gland
-This produces hormone 3 to the target tissue and a response is made

250
Q

where is ADH produced and released from (a levels)

A

-Produced in the paraventricular hypothalamic nuclei
-Released by posterior pituitary

251
Q

What is the secretion of ADH induced by

A

-Secretion of ADH induced by
Central osmoreceptors responding to increased osmolarity
Reduced plasma volume triggers baroreceptors in aortic arch which signal via vagal nerves to CNS
Angiotensin 2

252
Q

what does ADH do

A

Binds to G coupled receptors in blood vessels and kidney collecting duct
Blood vessel smooth muscle constriction
Kidney for water resorption
Increases water retention and blood pressure

253
Q

what does blood vessel smooth muscle do (hint-pressure of blood and diamter of blood vessel)

A

-Causes vasoconstriction and lowers vessel volume
-Blood pressure rises

254
Q

what is the process for increasing water resorption on collecting duct

A

-Aquaporin 2 inserted
-Stimulates NaCl uptake (produces osmotic gradient for water uptake)
-Increases metabolic activity of these cells (ATP needed for Na ion resoprtion)
-Moves 3 sodiums for 2 potassium

255
Q

where is oxytocin produced from and released by

A

produced in the hypothalamus, specifically in the paraventricular nucleus and supraoptic nucleus
-Then released by the posterior pituitary

256
Q

what gland released ADH and Oxytocin

A

Posterior pituitary gland

257
Q

what gland releases TRH,CRH and GnGH/GHIH

A

anterioir pituitary

258
Q

How does ACTH and cholesterol uptake in the Adrenal Cortex occur

A

-ACTH released by the anterioir pituitary
-ACTH signals increases uptake of and debranching of cholesterol into pregnenolone in the adrenal cortex
-When ACTH present cortisol and corticosterone produced
-Corticosterone converted to aldosterone when angiotensin 2 present

259
Q

what is the process that occurs when CRH,ACTH and cortisol is secreted(CRH first)

A

-CRH produced and secreted in the hypothalamus
-In response to the CRH ,the anterior pituitary releases adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) into the bloodstream.
-The ACTH binds to receptors on cells in the adrenal cortex and causes the activation of cholesterol uptake which is then converted into pregenolone , which is then converted into cortisol

260
Q

What are the three functional domains for steroid hormone receptors(three parts of a steroid hormome receptor)

A

-Ligand binding (steroid binding) domain
-DNA-binding domains
-Ligand depdent transcritpion activating domain

261
Q

what is the process of steroid hormone binding

A

-Steroid binds to specific intracellular receptor
-Receptor undergoes a conformational change
-This causes inhibitory protein complex to dissociate and exposes the nuclear translocation signal region
-the receptor then binds to the coactivator proteins that induce gene transcription

262
Q

is cortisol a glucocorticoid

263
Q

what do glucocorticoids/cortisol do in terms of protein and lipids

A

-Increases protein break down (catabolism-releasing AA )
-Increases lipid breakdown(catabolism - releasing fatty acids for fuel)
-Induces liver gluconeogensis lowers glucose use by most cells , raises blood glucose and increases glycogen formation in liver which means glucose saved for CNS etc

264
Q

where are Mineralocorticoids-Aldosterone produced from and what is it important for (hint-electrolytes)

A

Produced by Zona glomerulosa
ACTH needed for secretion but Angiotensin 2 regulates levels
Important for :
NaCl resorption
K+ ions loss
Water resorption

265
Q

what system regulates aldosterone (a mineralocorticoid hormone)

A

Aldosterone, a key mineralocorticoid hormone, is regulated primarily by the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS), which responds to changes in blood pressure

266
Q

what type of cells detect low blood pressure

A

-Juxta glomerula cells(JG)

267
Q

what is the process that causes the secretion of aldoesterone

A

Low Na+/High k+ detected in Distal Convoluted Tubule due to low filtration pressure stimulates Macula Densa (MD) which activates JG cells
JG cells release Renin which cleaves ANgiotensinogen (liver) to Angiotensin 1
ACE (Angiotensin-converting enzyme) on lungs+kidney endothelia converts Angiotensin 1 to Angiotensin 2
Angiotensin 2 causes adrenal zona glomerulosa to secrete aldosterone

268
Q

what is ANF and why is it released

A

The atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) is a hormone released by the atrial muscle of the heart in response to increased blood volume or high blood pressure

269
Q

what are the fucntions for aldosterone(what does it do the levels of K,Na and blood pressure)

A

-Loses K ions
-Increases soduim and water resorption(so increases blood pressure)

270
Q

what is the process that occurs in response to stress

A

-Stress is the stimuli
-CRH is released from the hypothalamus
-ACTH is released from the Anterior pituitary
-causes adrenal steroid production

271
Q

what is the regulator for aldosterone

A

-Angiotensin

272
Q

why does addison disease occur

A

-occurs when the adrenal glands dont produce enough of a hormone, such as cortisol (reduced glucocorticoids)and aldoesteron (reduced mineralcoroticoid)

273
Q

what does reduced minerlocorticoid and reduced glucocorticoids result in , in terms of addisons disease

A

Reduced mineralocorticoid:
-Low blood pressure
-Low blood NA and increased K in extracellular fluids
-Fluid loss
-Muscle weakness
Reduced glucocorticoids:
-Low blood sugar
-Muscle weakness
-Tiredness

274
Q

where is glycogen stored

A

-In the liver and muscles

275
Q

The liver is the neoglucogenesis centre, what does this mean

A

meaning that it uses other nutrient sources to convert them into glucose (new glucose being made

276
Q

what is the process for glycogen metabolism (breakdown of glycogen)

A

-Glycogen is the store of glucose
-1-glycogen is the store , glycogen phosphorylase liberates glycogen which produces glucose
Glycogen synthase in the liver and muscle
2-Glucokinase adds phosphate
3-phosphofructokinase adds second phosphate

277
Q

what is the bodies response to low glucose

A

-lowered glucose , so liver converts fatty acids to ketone bodies , these can enter the blood as a way of transferring c2 to other organs from the liver
In the liver we can oxidise fats into 2 acetyl coA molecules and then ships these out as ketone bodies ( so this can then go to other organs)

278
Q

what are ketone bodies

A

Ketone bodies are a group of water-soluble molecules that are produced by the liver during periods of low carbohydrate availability(low glucose)

279
Q

what is the short term and long term problem with having too high of a blood glucose level

A

he short term problem means glucose is lost in renal filtrate (the urine) , this carriers water and electrolytes with it - leading to dehydration
Long term problem:Induces metabolic changes in many cells , increased / abnormal ECM (fibrosis and glycation) and increased deposition of cholesterol , which can lead to vascular disease which can lead to heart attack etc

280
Q

is insulin produced when blood glucose level too high

281
Q

what causes insulin production

A

-Glucose monitored by beta cells which release insulin when they have lots of ATP, express Glut 2 transporters, intracellular glucose conc directly in proportion to blood glucose
High glucose increases ATP formation which closes ATP gated K+ channels, so once ATP goes up these channels close
-Cellular depolarisation occurs , as sodium is still entering the cell , so membrane becomes depolarized and less negative , this causes the voltage gated calcium channels to open which causes exocytosis and the release of insulin containing vacuoles and goes to nucleus to cause insulin production

282
Q

what increases insulin secretion

A

-increased blood glucose
-increased blood free fatty acids
-increased blood amino acids
-Gastrointestinal hormones(food ingested)

283
Q

what decreases insulin secretion

A

-Decreased blood glucose (Fasting)
-Alpha adrenergic activity (acute stress)

284
Q

what is the structure of an insulin receptor

A

-Two alpha and two beta subunits disulphide linked into a heterotetramer
In simplest form: extracellular alpha subunits-insulin binding domains
Transmembrane beta subunits - tyrosine kinase domains

285
Q

how does insulin signalling work

A

-Insulin receptor is a Class 2 TKR ( Tyrosine kinase receptor)formed from 2 alpha units which bind to insulin and 2 transmembrane and intracellular parts which are the beta units which have the auto phosphorylation sites ,(disulphide linked tetramers , which remind together continually )
-Two alpha and two beta subunits disulphide linked into a heterotetramer
In simplest form: extracellular alpha subunits-insulin binding domains
Transmembrane beta subunits - tyrosine kinase domains
-Insulin binding to alpha subunit causes auto-phosphorylation of beta subunits, allows other molecules to bind and get phosphorylated
-Induces docking of downstream signalling proteins especially insulin receptor substrate 1

286
Q

what are the effects of insulin signalling

A

1-Rapid fusion of intracellular vacuoles with the cell surface , these carry insulin dependent glucose and AA transporters in their membrane causing the plasma membrane to become more permeable to glucose and AA , when insulin levels drop the transporters are lost from cell surface
-This occurs in every cell but red blood cells , neurons and beta cells of pancreas
2-Activation of intracellular enzymes needed for glycogen production and glucose use
3-Increase in gene expression for cell growth and division

287
Q

what is the pathway of insulin binding to its insulin receptor

A

-Insulin binds to receptor causing phosphorylation and allows substrate (IRS) to bind which then gets phosphorylated which can then interact with PI-3 Kinase
-This further phosphorylates it , increasing its charge , deforms the membrane , and opens up binding surfaces for other enzymes (PDK-1)
-PDK-1 is brought in and binds , becomes phosphorylated and this allows phosphokinase B to bind and get phosphorylated itself
-This PKB phosphorylates proteins on the vesicles , causes these to fuse with cell membrane
-PKB phosphorylates glycogensynthasekinase 3 , turning it off (turns off an enzyme which would naturally inhibit glycogen synthase - inactivates an inactivator)

288
Q

how is PKB activated in the insulin receptor signalling pathway

A

Insulin Signaling: PKB is activated by insulin through the insulin receptor signaling pathway, which leads to the activation of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) and subsequent activation of PKB.

289
Q

what does PKB (protein kinase B ) do in terms of glucose

A

-Increases activity of glyocgen synthase
-Glucokinase
Decreases activity of glycogen phosphorylase (lowers glocuse use)

290
Q

what does insulin do

A

-promotes protein formation and storage
-Promotes uptake of amino acids into cekks
-Increases gene transcription and translation
-inhibits AA use in gluconeogensis

291
Q

what type of cells produce glucagon

A

alpha cells

292
Q

why is glucagon released

A

when blood glucose level too low

293
Q

how is glucagon formed (what is the response to low blood glcuose)-the ionic control of glucagon secretion

A

-Low blood glucose leads to low ATP, closes ATP depdended K channels
-Leads to depolarisation and opening of voltage gated soduim channels
-Results in further depolarisation+ voltage gated calduim channels opening
-Cuases glucagon release and induces glucagon formation
(depolarisation = potassuim going out and soduim coming in)

294
Q

overall , what does glucagon cause

A

Glycogenolysis in liver increasing blood glucose
Causes gluconeogenesis , liver forms glucose from AA
Increases AA uptake by liver
-Insulin - AA used for growth
-Glucagon - AA used for energy (AA taken up and used in gluconeogenesis)

295
Q

what type of cells produce testosterone

A

Leydgi cells

296
Q

what type of cells are spermatogonium

A

stem cells

297
Q

what do round cells differentiate into in spermiogensis

A

spermatozoa

298
Q

what are leydig cells

A

Leydig cells are specialized cells found in the testes that are primarily responsible for producing and secreting testosterone, the main male sex hormone

299
Q

what does LH stand for

A

luteinizing hormone

300
Q

In response to what hormone doe leydig cells produce testosterone

A

luteinizing hormone (LH)

301
Q

what does FSH stand for

A

follicle stimulating hormone

302
Q

what is an AR

A

Androgen receptor

303
Q

in sertoli cells in the testes , what does the FSH hormone stimulate

A

-FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) stimulates sertoli cells in the testes to express androgen receptors (AR)

304
Q

what type of receptor does testosterone bind to

A

Androgen receptor

305
Q

what does andogenic effects mean

A

sexual effects

306
Q

what does testosterone do (anabolic effects - like growth and tissue / think muscles)

A

-Increases muscle mass
-promotes bone growth

307
Q

what are the reproductive effects of testosterone

A

Drives of mitosis of spermatogonial stem cells and their into entry meiosis
Activates genes in Sertoli cells , which promote differentiation of spermatognia
Lowers GnRH release
Lowers FSH and LH production from anterior pituitary

308
Q

what is the hormonal action in females ( bullet points including hormones such as FSH)

A

-Hypothalamus releases GnRh
-GnRh stimulates the pituitary gland to release FSH(follicle stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone)
-FSH and LH is released by the anterior pituitary in response to the GnRH
-Estrogen is produced by the granulosa cells
-2 cells , androgen production

309
Q

what is Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) and how is it formed

A

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT): A more potent form of testosterone, converted from testosterone by the enzyme 5-alpha reductase.

310
Q

what do sertoli cells convert testosterone into

A

dihydrotestosterone

311
Q

where are granulosa cells and thecal cells found

A

-found in the ovarian follicles
-Granulosa cells surround oocyte
-Thecal cells surround gransulosa cells

312
Q

are androstenedione and testosterone an andorgen

313
Q

Describe the steps that ivolve FSH and LH raises blood 17B-estradoil

A

-FSH and LH released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to GnRH (Gonadotropin releasing hormone) secreted by the hypothalamus
-FSH is more dominant in the early follicular phase and LH increases as ovulation approaches
-LH stimulates the thecal cells to produce androgens (Androstenedione and testosterone)
-FSH stimulates the granulosa cells ( which are responsible for converting androgens into estrogens )
-In response to FSH , granulosa cells express more aromatase enzyme which converts androstenedione and testosterone into 17B-estradoil

314
Q

do males have leydig cells or thecal cells

A

males have leydig cells
females have thecal cells

315
Q

what is the primary fucntion of leydig cells

A

-Primary function of leydig cells (in males ) is to produce testosterone in response to LH (luteinizing hormone)

316
Q

what does LH (luteinizing hormone)

A

stimulates the leydig cells to produce testosterone

317
Q

what are the different responses to LH in males and female(one response for males one for females)

A

-In males the LH stimulates leydig cells to produce testosterone (by converting cholestrol into testosterone)
-In females the LH stimulates thecal cells to convert cholesterol into androgens( testosterone and androstenedione)

318
Q

what does 17 beta estradiol do

A

-stimulates growth of uterus
-stimulates groth of granulosa cells in follicles
-stimulates granulosa cells to make more FSH receptors
-Lowers GnRH releases and FSH and Lh production

319
Q

why does ovulation occur

A

-when the 17 beta estradoil is high it causes GnRH release
-LH levels rise
-Ovulation is triggered by this surge in LH

320
Q

what does the surge in 17 beta estradoil stimukate granulosa cells to do (ie what receptors )

A

stimulate granulosa cells to make LH receptors

321
Q

How is the corpus luteum formed

A

-The formation of the corpus luteum occurs after ovulation when the postovulatory follicle transforms into the corpus luteum
-The surge in LH (luteinizing hormone) triggered by high levels of estradiol induces ovulation
-The oocyte is released (for possible fertilisation)
-After ovulation , the follicle that houses the oocyte is considered a postovulatory follicle/ruptured follicle
-The postovulatory follicle transformers into the corpus luteum due to LH
-The corpus luteum secretes high levels of progesterone as well as estrogen

322
Q

what does progesterone do

A

-Reduces FSH production from pituitary
-Reduces LH production from pituitary
-Changes uterus for implantation

323
Q

the uterus has three layers , name the two layers u need to know

A

-Uterus:Myometrium and endometrium are two of the layers
-Myometirum is a muscle layer
-Endometrium:inner stromal and lining epithelial cells

324
Q

do both syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast form the placenta

325
Q

does Syncytiotrophoblast or cytotrophoblast make HCG(human chorionic Gonadotropin)

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin is made by syncytiotrophoblast

326
Q

what does HCG do

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin-Signals to the mother to keep the Corpus Luteum and uses the LH receptor on the Corpus Luteum cells

327
Q

what is luteolysis

A

-It is the cell death of Corpus Luteum cells , caused by feedback effect of progesterone and lack of pregnancy so no hCG and turning off LH secretion by pituitary so Corpus Luteum is not maintained

328
Q

provide a summary of the hormonal interactions during pregnancy

A

-FSH and LH released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to GnRh secreted by the hypothalamus
-A surge in LH stimulates the release of the oocyte(egg) from the ovary
-After ovulation the ruptured follicle transforms into the corpus luteum which begins to secret progesterone and estrogen
-If fertilized, the syncytiotrophoblast of the embryo starts to secret human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
-hCG signals to the corpus luteum to keep producing progesterone
-hCG prevents the degeneration of the corpus leuteum, allowing it to continue to produce progesterone
-The corpus luteum continues to produce 17 beta estradiol
-After conception , the hypothalamus and pituitary gland reduce the production of LH and FSH because of the negative feedback provided by rising levels of progesterone and estradiol

329
Q

during pregnancy what does progesterone do

A

Blocks further follicle development and ovulation(blocks FSH and LH) so single embryo through pregnancy
Barrier at cervix for sperm entry-mucus plug stops entry of microorganisms (Cervical plug)
Induces uterine endometrium to make a nutrient source for the embryo
Induces breast tissue growth ready for lactation
Keeps the myometrium in a non contractile state
At about 7 weeks there is a luteoplacental shift , the corpus luteum before 7 weeks is producing the progesterone but after 7 weeks the progesterone now starts to be produced by the placenta

330
Q

in other species (not humans ) before brith there is a rise and decrease in progesterone/estorgen , which one is which

A

-Reduced progesterone
-Rise in estrogen

331
Q

Steps involved in the conversion of progesterone into 17beta estradiol stimulated by fetal cortisol(page 124)

A

-During pregnancy the fetus produces cortisol
-Fetal cortisol stimulates the placenta to convert progesterone into 17a-hydroyprogesterone
-17α-hydroxyprogesterone is an intermediate compound that plays a critical role in the synthesis of estrogens.
The conversion of progesterone to 17α-hydroxyprogesterone occurs in the placenta, primarily via the enzyme 17α-hydroxylase
-The fetal cortisol causes in the placenta expression of 17-alpha-hydroxylase
17α-hydroxyprogesterone is then converted to androstenedione, an androgen
-The enzyme aromatase, present in the placenta, converts androstenedione (or testosterone) into estrone, which is then converted to 17β-estradiol
-So progesterone levels go down , estradiol levels go up

332
Q

why do CRH levels rise during pregnancy (positive feedback loop)

A

-Hypothalamus releases CRH
-CRH binds to anterior pituitary
-Anterioir pituitary secretes ACTH to the adrenal cortex
-The adrenal cortex then converts cholesterol into cortisol
-Its a positive feedback loop as cortisol binds to GR(Glucocorticoid receptor ) which causes an increase in CRH production

333
Q

how is oxytocin release regulated parturition(birth)

A

The release of oxytocin at parturition (labor and delivery) is regulated through a positive feedback mechanism