biochem MQ Flashcards

1
Q

How many chromsomes do humans have

A

23 pairs of chromosomes

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2
Q

what are condensed regions of DNA called?

A

Heterochromatin

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3
Q

what did Treptococcus, Griffith and colleagues prove?

A

That bacteria can transfer genetic materail

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4
Q

What is the bacteriophage labelled with in the Hershey-Chase experiment

A

Sulfure-35

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5
Q

Does the number of chromosomes correlate with the complexity of an organism

A

No

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6
Q

Does the BCR-Abl fusion protein arise from chromosomal translocation

A

yes

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7
Q

does sickle-cell diease arise from a single nucleotide change in the alpha-globin gene

A

no

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8
Q

In the avery experiment did the DNAase treatment of heat killed smooth strain material result in transfromation of rough strain

A

No

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9
Q

Do mutations in the CFTR gene affect calcuim balance in the airway epitheluim

A

No

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10
Q

Why is the smooth strain of Streptococcus deadly to mice

A

Due to the ability to evade the host immune system

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11
Q

What purine base is contained within DNA

A

Adenine

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12
Q

What carbon of deoxyribose is the primary alcohol on

A

5

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13
Q

What properties of DNA did Rosalind Franklin and Maurice whilkins provide via their x-ray diffraction

A

double helix
phsphates on the oustide

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14
Q

What effect does high salt have on DNA melting

A

Increases melting temperature by neutralising negatively charged phosphate backbone

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15
Q

Is B-DNA is a right handed- helix

A

yes

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16
Q

What type of handed helix is Z-DNA

A

left

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17
Q

If the conservative model of replication would have been proven by Meselson and Stahl , what woudl you expected at the 1st generation

A

50% at the 14N density , 50% at the 15N density

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18
Q

What is the primary reason for the use of a DNA polymerase , such as Taq for PCR

A

Due to its ability to withstand high DNA denaturing temperatures

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19
Q

What is required for next generation sequencing?

A

Polymerase chain reaction
Nucleotides with a 3’ reversible blocking group

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20
Q

what subunit stabilises the assembled E.Coli RNA polymerase

A

omega

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21
Q

What subunit directs the E.Coli RNA polymerase to the correct trasncription initaion sites?

A

sigma

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22
Q

Where are the signals for termination

A

in the newly synthesised RNA

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23
Q

What does the poly A tail do

A

Increases stability and assits in nuclear export

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24
Q

What does the 5’cap added to MRNAS in eukaryotes contain?

A

7-methyl-cytidine

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25
Q

What is the splicesome comprised of

A

protein and snRNA

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26
Q

What do miRNAS do and whats their aim

A

miRNAS destabilise mRNAS eitjer leading to their degradation or blocking translation , the aim is to block protein production

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27
Q

What did Avery prove about DNA

A

Proved that DNA caused the transformation

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28
Q

How many hydrogen bonds between pairs AandT and GandC

A

A-T=2
G-C=3

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29
Q

What are the histones in chromatin?

A

H1,H2A,H2B,H3,H4

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30
Q

What is the role of H1 histone

A

its a linker histone and helps compact DNA

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31
Q

What tells the polymerase when to stop?

A

Termination signals

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32
Q

what enhances and blocks promotors?

A

enhance-activators
block-supressors

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33
Q

What is an operon

A

A group of genes that are trasncribed together to produce a single messenger RNA molecule that encodes multiple proteins

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34
Q

What are genes called that are expressed all of the time

A

constitutive expression

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35
Q

what are genes called that are expressed under certain conditions

A

regulated expression

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36
Q

What does allolactose do?

A

Binds to the repressor and prevents it from binding to the operator so that the gene cant be transcribed
allolactose is an inducer of the lac operon , binds to the lac repressor protein, which is normally bound to the operator region of the lac operon, preventing transcription of operon genes

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37
Q

what is an operator

A

an operator is a DNA sequence that controls the transcription of genes by binding to regulatory proteins

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38
Q

What does microRNA do

A

Bind to specific mRNA and leads to degradation of mRNA

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39
Q

What are the characteristics of fibrous proteins?

A

insoluble , silk-web, intracellular cytoskeleton, extracullar matrix

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40
Q

what are the charactertics of globular proteins?

A

soluble, exact 3d shape is critical in their fucntion

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41
Q

how many different side chains are used in proteins?

A

20

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42
Q

what are the 20 different amino acids?

A

glycine
alanine
cysteine
phenylalanine
methionine
tryptophan
valine
leucine
isoleucine
proline
serine
threonine
asparagine
glutamine
tyrosine
aspartic acid
glutamic acid
lysine
arginine
histidine

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43
Q

what are the non polar amino acids

A

glycine
alanine
valine
cysteine
proline
leucine
isoleucine
methionine
tryptophan
phenylalanine

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44
Q

what are the amino acids with a positive charge

A

lysine
arginine
histidine

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45
Q

what are polar amino acids?

A

serine
threonine
tyrosine
asparagine
glutamine

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46
Q

What are the amino acids with a negative charge

A

aspartic acid
glutamic acid

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47
Q

why do non-polar groups like to cluster together?

A

Because of their inability to form H-bonds , they group together because of a need to avoid water

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48
Q

What did Brenner and Crick suggest?

A

suggested that each codon must contain three bases

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49
Q

Where do release factors bind to

A

They bind to the A site

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50
Q

what three stages is translation divided into

A

initiation
elongation
termination

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51
Q

What did Linus Pauling and Robert Corey try to do?

A

They tried to work out the structure of the fibrous protein a-keratin using X-ray diffraction data

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52
Q

What three rules did they(Linus and Pauling)have to follow to fit the data?

A

1-there can be no rotation around the planar peptide bonds
2-other parts of the chain must be felxible
3-structure must have the maximum number of stabilising forces between residues and stabilising forces must be indepdent of primary structure

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53
Q

why is the anti parallel beta sheet more stable than parallel

A

Anti -parallel is more stable as it contains more H-bonds and the H-bond atoms are aligned directly opposite making for stronger bonds

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54
Q

what is calmodulin

A

calmodulin is a protein that binds to calcium and regulates processes

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55
Q

how many calcuim binding sites does calmodulin have and how many different proteins can it bind to?

A

4 calcuim binding sites
can bind to two different proteins

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56
Q

How does calmodulin activate a protein

A

by binding to them and inducing a conformational change that allows the protein to interact with other signaling molecules

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57
Q

What are the two important uses of DNA polymerase reactions

A

-DNA amplification(PCR)
-DNA sequencing

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58
Q

How do you amplify DNA (PCR)

A

-Denature to produce SS DNA
-Add short primer (complementary)
-Lower temp to anneal, add DNA polymerase to join back together
-Add thermostable DNA polymerase , required for DNA extension

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59
Q

what are ddNTPs

A

moelcules used in DNA sequencing that terminate action of DNA polymerase

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60
Q

What is the gel Agarose used for

A

To seperate double stranded DNA fragments

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61
Q

Would DNA run to the positive or negative electrode during electrophersis

A

Positive end (Due to DNA being negatively charged)

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62
Q

what are the steps of next generation sequencing

A

-Oligonucleotide adaptor annealed to short fragment of DNA
-Use of PCR to create copies
-Use of flourescent nucleotides for sequencing
-Use of reversible terminator

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63
Q

What are rNTPS

A

monomeric building blocks that are used to synthesize RNA oligonucleotide chains

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64
Q

What are promotors

A

DNA sequence that initiates the transcription of a gene

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65
Q

What do promtors in prokaryotes contain

A

-A conserved AT-rich region at around -10 (Pribnow box)
-A consensus sequence (TTGACA) at -35

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66
Q

What do termination signals do

A

Tell the polymerase when to stop

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67
Q

How many different RNA polymerases do euakroytes have

A

3

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68
Q

what does RNA polymerase 1 do in eukroytes

A

ranscribe the three largest ribosomal RNAs (rRNAs) that make up the ribosome’s basic structure(18s , 5.8s and 28s)

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69
Q

How is pre-MRNA processed

A

-Addition of a polyA tail to the 3 end of the RNA transcript ( increases stability)
-Addition of a cap to the 5 end

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70
Q

What are genes called that are expressed all of the time

A

Constitutive expression

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71
Q

How do you estimate the molecular mass of a protein

A

Multiply number of residues by 100

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72
Q

What direction is the mRNA read in

A

The 5 to 3 direction

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73
Q

What is the movement from triplet to triplet called

A

Translocation

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74
Q

What mutations occur when there are errors in the DNA/mRNA sequence

A

wild type
Mis-sense
Nonsense
Silent
Frameshift base deletion

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75
Q

What did Linus Pauling and Robert Corey do

A

tried to work out structure of the fibrous protein a-keratin using X-ray diffraction data
-Their work on a-keratin led to the discovery of the alpha helix
–They proposed that a-keratin is made up of two aligned alpha helices twisted into a coiled coil

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76
Q

How does calcuim activate a protein

A

-Binds to calmodulin
-Causes its shape to change
-Binds to a protein activating it

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77
Q

What does the Andinsen experiment on Ribonuclease show

A

The folded, active form of protein has the lowest free energy
All of the information needed by a protein to fold to this structure is encoded in the primary structure
Not all proteins fold as easily
Some require protein disulphide isomerases (PDIs)

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78
Q

What breaks electrostatic bonds

A

heat,pH and salt

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79
Q

What is the pKa of the ionsing group of an amino acid side chain

A

is the pH where 50% ionisation has occurred

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80
Q

What factors affect the pKa

A

polarity of environment , absence or presence of water and nearby charges

81
Q

What makes/breaks salt bridges and ionic bonds

A

changes in pH
-Causes the charge on side chain to appear/disappear

82
Q

what are protein folding funnels

A

Series of increasingly restricted movements until a low energy minimum is reached
Protein folding funnels are a theoretical model that shows how a polypeptide chain folds into a protein

83
Q

What are the factors that disrupt protein structure

A

-Heat
-pH
-Ionic strength
-Denaturing agents( organic solvents, chaotropic agents)
-Uv

84
Q

What bonds are weak in the tertiary structure

A

hydrogen bonds and hydrophobic interactions

85
Q

What bonds are strong in the tertiary structure

A

electrostatic and covalent

86
Q

what proteins catalyse phosphoroylation

87
Q

what are the two main categories of kinases

A

Ser/Thr kinases and Tyr kinase

88
Q

what removes a phosphate group from a protein

A

phosphatases

89
Q

How does chromatin become transcriptionally active in terms of acteylated chromatin

A

Due to removing the acetyl groups from the lysines of histones , which loosens up the chromatin and the gene is now turned on

90
Q

Is chromatin compact in deacetylated chromatin

A

yes its compact and transcriptionally repressed so gene is turned off

91
Q

Where does glycosylation occur

A

In the golgi and ER

92
Q

What is glycosylation

A

The addition of complex carbohydrate group

93
Q

What is palmitoylation

A

The addition of hydrophobic groups (fatty acids) to proteins

94
Q

What is ubiquitination

A

The post -translation modification process that attached a ubiquitin protein to a target protein

95
Q

Are the processes of : modifications of amino acids and proteolytic cleavage irrerversiable modifications or reversible

A

irrerverisble

96
Q

what is proteolytic maturation

A

Proteolytic maturation is a process that involves the cleavage of proteins at specific sites to create mature proteins and functional enzymes

97
Q

what are zymogens

A

They are precursors of enzymes that are activated in a proteolytic cascade after release as granules into the duodenum
Zymogens (also known as proenzymes) are inactive enzyme precursors that require a biochemical change, such as cleavage of one or more peptide bonds, to become an active enzyme.

98
Q

What are precursors

A

a precursor is a substance that is inactive but can be converted into an active enzyme

99
Q

What is a homomeric network

A

a network of proteins made up of multiple identical polypeptide chains, or repeating subunits ( all the same subunit)

100
Q

What are heteromeric networks

A

a complex made up of multiple different proteins

101
Q

Would the affinity be higher of lower with more hydrophobic interactions

A

Higher affinity

102
Q

what do interactions in proteins consist of

A

charges or hydrophobic groups

103
Q

What do oligomeric intercations of proteins require

A

Complementary interfaces

104
Q

how do microtubules form

A

when protein dimers, made of alpha and beta tubulin, join together to create long, tubular polymers

105
Q

What does Beta tubulin hydrolyse into

106
Q

What is PKR (protein kinase)

A

It is a kinase that is activated when double stranded RNA is present in the cell

107
Q

What is the role of Myelin

A

has a lot of lipid present so acts as a good insulator

108
Q

Structure of phospolipids

A

-Glycerol backbone
-Phosphate attached to glycerol and an alcohol attached to the phosphate
-2 Fatty acids attached to glycerol

109
Q

Structure of Sphingolipids

A

-Different acetyl chain to phospholipids
-Has an amine group instead of glycerol
-Major component of neural membrane

110
Q

How do lipids form in the membrane

A

The aceyl chains cluster together because they dont like to interact with water, formation of lipid bilayer due to presence of water

111
Q

What occurs in the crystalline phase for lipids

A

Cis bonds in the lipids prevent the close packing of acyl chains resulting in a bilayer where the acyl chains are mobile
-In the liquid crystalline phase the lipids move around in the plane of the bilayer at biological temperatures

112
Q

What is flip flopping of lipids

A

the process of moving lipids from one side of a cell membrane to the other

113
Q

What is laterla diffusion

A

The ability for lipids to move around rapidly , spinning round

114
Q

What are the two types of proteins

A

Integral membrane proteins
Peripheral membrane proteins

115
Q

What are the major membrane proteins

A

-Channels (ion)
-Transporters(amino acids)
-Receptors
-Structural proteins - important in maintaining tissue integrity

116
Q

What do trans-membrane helices do in order to produce a path for movement

A

They cluster together to produce a poalr route across the bilayer

117
Q

What occurs in a gated ion channel to allow and stop movement through

A

-In the closed state the large leucine residue point into the centre of the channel blocking any acess of sodium
-In the open state , leucine slides away from the middle of the centre , this is do the acetylcholine binding and initaing a conformational change so leucine begins to slide away

118
Q

Are channels hydrophilic or hydropobic pores

A

Hydrophilic pores

119
Q

What are the problems involved with studying the membrane

A

-The integral membrane proteins are held together by lipids so in order to study them , we have to disrupt the membrane to extract the membranes , disrupt lipid bilayer

120
Q

What does the detergent do , used to study the membrane

A

It forms a micelle around the hydrophobic parts of the protein, hydrophobic interactions between detergent and hydrophobic region of protein
–lose 50% of protein due to this detergent

121
Q

How areHydropthay plots used to predict the structure of a membrane protein

A

by analyzing its amino acid sequence and the hydrophobicity of its amino acids

122
Q

Is Phosphorylation post translational modification

123
Q

What do the membrane proteins B-Barrels form

A

hydrophilic pores in the outer membranes of bacteria and mitochondria

124
Q

How can pores be produced in membranes

A

By Beta Barrel structures

125
Q

What are PTMs

A

Post translational modifications

126
Q

What do PTMs do

A

are chemical modifications of proteins that can trigger an action at specific steps in the cell cycle

127
Q

What do PTMs include (Post translational modifications)

A

-Proteolytic cleavage of regulatory subunits or degradation of entire proteins
-Covalent addition:phosphorylation/methylation/glycosylation
-Think of it like attaching a tag , chemical fixed modification

128
Q

What PTMs (post translational modifications do proteins need to do in order to become functional

A

-Fold
-Associate to other proteins (as dimers fro example)
-Undergo enzyme-catalysed chemical modifications of the protein structure (known as post translational modifications)-labels attached to it

129
Q

How does insulin become its active form

A

-Insulin synthesised as a pro insulin
-Disulfide bridges form between the two red strands (the bottom strands)
-Active form of insulin due to the cleavage (cutting)

130
Q

What is Ubiquitination

A

a post-translational process that modifies proteins with ubiquitin

131
Q

What does phosphorylation of a protein do

A

Alters the charge , structure and dynamids of it

132
Q

Does acetyl-lysin have a neutral or positive charge (page69 picture)

A

Neutral charge

133
Q

What does the post translation modification lipidation do

A

Regulates membrane trafficking,protein secretion,signal transduction,apoptosis
membrane targetting,regulation of protein function,regulation of protein-protein interactions

134
Q

what are polypeptides linked by

A

linear polymers linked by peptide bonds

135
Q

What is starch made up of

A

made up of amylose(1,4 linkage)and amylopectin(1,4 and 1,6 linkages)

136
Q

What is hemicellulose and what is its structure

A

-Different types of biopolymers present in the cell wall
Forms rigid microfibrils
Less rigid than cellulose
-Beta 1,4

137
Q

what are enantiomers

A

each of a pair of molecules that are mirror images of each other

138
Q

what are epimers

A

carbohydrates which vary in one position of for the placement of the OH group
-Differ in the configuration of only one chiral centre

139
Q

What are anomers

A

Type of epimer that differs in their 3D orientation at the anomeric carbon

140
Q

How does glycosylation occur

A

Glycosylation (addition of glycans)is a process catalysed by enzymes known as glycoside hydrolases (GHs)and glycosyltransferases(GTs)

141
Q

What are Gts - Glycosyltransfereases

A

-GTs are enzymes that catalyse the formation of the glycosidic linkage from activated glycoside donors
-Use a sugar donar
-Binds to growing sugar

142
Q

What do GHs do -Glycoside hydrolases

A

GHs are enzymes that catalyse the hydrolysis of the glycosidic linkages (enzymes that catalyse the hydrolysis of glycosidic bonds between sugar molecules in glycosides) .Retaining GHs cleave the glycosidic bond and maintain the stereochemistry of the anomeric carbon , hydrolysis mechanism involves the formation of a covalent enzyme substrate intermediate at the anomeric carbon, while inverting GHs lead to a product with a different stereochemistry ,The product formed by an inverting GH has the opposite stereochemistry at the anomeric center compared to the substrate.

143
Q

What is N-glycan synthesis

A

complex carbohydrate structures, known as N-linked glycans, are attached to proteins

144
Q

What do glycoside hydrolases do

A

Remove monosaccharides

145
Q

What do glycosyltransferases do

A

Add monosaccharides

146
Q

what are the three types of protein glycosylation

A

-N-glycans
-O-glycand
-Glycosaminoglycans(GAGs)

147
Q

What are the 6 classes for enzymes

A

1-oxidoreductases
2-transferases
3-hydrolases
4-lyases
5-isomerases
6-ligases

148
Q

What does the active site of an enzyme contain

A

Binding and catalytic residues

149
Q

What are the two features of substarte specifcity

A

-Shape filter
-Binding affinity

150
Q

What are co-enzymes

A

organic molecules which provide/remove groups for reactions called co-substrates
They assist enzymes in catalyzing biochemical reactions by binding to the enzyme and helping to facilitate the conversion of substrates into products. Coenzymes often act as carriers of specific atoms or groups of atoms during these reactions.

151
Q

How do you work out the specifc activity of an enzyme (whats the formula)

A

enzyme activity/total amount of protein

152
Q

What does V represent in terms of enzymes

A

Reaction velocity

153
Q

What does a small Kd value mean in terms of enzymes

A

a high affinity

154
Q

what does Kd represent in term of enzymes

A

affinity for substrate

155
Q

What is Vmax

A

It is when all of the enzyme are enzyme substrate complexes

156
Q

what are isozymes

A

Different enzymes , same substrate

157
Q

what three factors do you compare when comparing enzymes

A

1-Turnover number
2-Efficiency
3-Potency

158
Q

what is enzyme potency

A

How many times faster a reaction is with the enzyme

159
Q

What does kinase do to an enzyme

A

-kinase attaches a phosphate group which distorts the shape of active site , active site turned off as no longer complementary
-phosphatase reverses this , so active site is turned on

160
Q

Does a v type enzyme affect binding or catatylsis

161
Q

Does a k type enzyme affect binding or catalysis

162
Q

what is meant by cooperativity with enzymes

A

Its where the substarte binding to one site increases the affinity at another

163
Q

What do allosteric enzymes do

A

Its where the substrate binds to an allosteric site (not on active site) and changes its shape , increasing its affinity

164
Q

how do suicide substartes (irreversible inhibitors )work

A

(molecules look similiar enough so it can bind but doesnt produce the right product , enzyme cant bind to normal substrate due to change in active site) This is permanent and enzyme is now damaged so wont work

166
Q

what do uncompetitive inhibitors bind to

A

The enzyme substrate (after substrate has binded)

167
Q

What is the transition state for an enzyme

A

is is the halfway stage between enzyme substrate and enzyme product

168
Q

What are the ways to incraese enzyme reactions

A

a)position the reactant correctly for interaction(pointing in same direction , massively raising conc of substrates in two active sites)
b)distort the reactants making them less stable (making them more likely to react)
c)stabilise transition state (must promote formation of transition state)
d)change the environment to favour the reaction (for example change pH)

169
Q

what are the examples of serine proteases

A

-Trypsin
-Chymotrypsin
-Elactase
-Thrombin
They all do the same reaction , break peptide bond
-They have different substrates (bind to different amino acids within protein), theres binding specificity

170
Q

What is the mechanism action(the 6 step process) for serine proteases

A

The mechanism of action for serine proteases follows a well-known, multi-step process that involves the serine residue in the enzyme’s active site. Serine proteases, such as trypsin, chymotrypsin, and elastase, catalyze the hydrolysis of peptide bonds in proteins by using a catalytic triad consisting of serine, histidine, and aspartate
1-nucleophilic attack
2-formation of tetrahedral group
3-cleavage and loss of c-terminal fragment
4-Nucleophilic attack on polypeptide carbonyl by water
5-Covalent intermediate
6-Cleavage and loss of N-terminal fragment

171
Q

what are the basic steps of gene cloning

A

1-gene isolated
2-inserted into vector
3-transported into host cell
4-multiplication of recombinant DNA
5-Division of host cell clones

172
Q

what vector is most commonly used for gene cloning

A

plasmid vector

173
Q

For gene cloning , how is the gene isolated

174
Q

What does PCR require

A

-Double stranded DNA template
-Pair of oligonucleotide primers
-Dna primers
-Nucleotides

175
Q

What are the steps of PCR

A

1-Denaturing template DNA to single stranded DNA with heat
2-Lower temperature to allow primers to anneal
3-DNA polymerase extends the primer

176
Q

What are basic steps to insert recomimbant DNA into a vector

A

1-Plasmid vectors
2-Restriction enzymes to cut DNA
3-Gel electrophoresis to separate DNA fragments
4-DNA ligase to join DNA fragments

177
Q

What do restriction enzymes do

A

Restriction enzymes recognise specific sequences of bases in the DNA , binds to these sites and cuts the double stranded DNA by hydrolysing the phosphodiester bond

178
Q

What are the two types of restriction enzymes

A

1-Exonucleases-Removing nucleotides from the ends
2-Endonucleases-Break nucleic acid chains in the interior

179
Q

Will smaller fragments of DNA move further down agarose gel

180
Q

What enzyme is used to join DNA fragment to plasmid vector

A

DNA ligase

181
Q

How does DNA ligase work

A

-Sticky ends are complementary so form hydrogen bonds
-Reaction catalysed by DNA ligase which catalyses a phosphodiester bond, between the sticky ends and plasmid
-Most experiments use T4 DNA ligase which requires ATP

182
Q

How does blunt end cloning occur

A

-Cut plasmid and PCR product using different enzymes
-They dont come together due to not having comp base pairing
-This mean we have to use another enzyme to cut off the sticky end to create blunt ends which are now complementary

183
Q

How does using DNA polymerase to fill in the end of the vector occur

A

-3 different restriction sites
-Instead of cutting off the overhangs we can instead fill them in using DNA polymerase and dNTPs to create blunt ends

184
Q

How does using linkers and adaptors to insert recombinant DNA occur

A

-PCr product has short piece of DNA stuck onto it - blunt end joining
-Pink part has got a restriction site in it which is compatible with plasmid
-Can then stick restriction site onto each end of DNA
-Need to do blunt end joining to get the adaptors onto DNA
-Have to cut off phosphate group on adaptors so this means it lacks a phosphate group so no phosphodiester bond
-Use polynucleotide kinase to add a phosphate group and can then carry out sticky ended ligation

186
Q

What does TA cloning consist of (using terminal transferase)

A

-Put nucleotides on the ends of the PCR product (adenine onto each end)
-Terminal transferase adds thymine onto the vector , onto the blunt ends
-created sticky overhangs

187
Q

How do you prepare competent E.Coli cells

A

-Treat normal bacteria with cacl2 which modifies it by changing the charge , makes it more likely to bind to negative DNA
-Heat shock it which makes the membrane more fluid , puts energy into the membrane , making phospholipids more mobile , so DNA is more likely to be taken up the cell
-Then grow transformed cells onto agar plate

188
Q

How do we distinguish bacteria that have taken up the recombinant DNA or self ligated vector? - the three examples

A

-Replica plating
-Blue/white selection
-Restriction mapping

189
Q

How does replica plating occur (in order to distinguish bacteria that have taken up recombinant DNA)

A

-Tetracycline is a selectable marker
-The selectable marker helps us distinguish between recombinant and self ligated vectors
-Cuts the middle of the tert resistance gene
-Any plasmid that successfully then incorporated gene of interest is no longer going to have functioning tertr gene
-All those that have self ligated will have amp + tet
-Have a second plate that contains tetr, and stamp the ampliicin plate and transfer in onto tetr plate and stamp it
-In the replica plate , any bacteria that has our gene of interest wont have tetr resistance , they will die

190
Q

How does blue/white selection occur

A

-Dont have tetr resistant gene
-Have the Lac Z gene- encodes the code enzyme beta galactosidase and this converts lactose into galactose and glucose
-Those with self ligated bacteria will have a functioning Lac Z gene so will produce the Beta galactosidase enzyme
-Streak these colonies out onto ampicillin plate
-Look for a colour change - with functioning Lac Z gene

191
Q

How does restriction mapping occur

A

-Transform ligation mix into bacteria
-Plate out on agar and ampicillin
-Grow up bacteria and extract DNA
-Using restriction enzymes to distinguish between recombinant and self ligated vector

192
Q

What is needed to produce protein from a cloned gene

A

An expression vector

193
Q

What are expression vectors

A

Sequences that are required for transcription

194
Q

Why is bacteria used to be the host cell over animal cell

A

-It divides quickly

195
Q

What is an advantage of using animal cells as the host cell rather than bacteria

A

-Animal cells glycosylate proteins whereas bacteria doesnt

196
Q

how do you determine the overall charge of the polypeptide sequence

A

To determine the overall charge of the polypeptide sequence, we need to count the basic (positively charged) and acidic (negatively charged) amino acids. Each basic amino acid will contribute a +1 charge, and each acidic amino acid will contribute a -1 charge.

197
Q

draw the structure of all 20 aa

198
Q

what is the three letter and one letter code for glutamine