Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Term 10/11 > CECONMA LQ2 > Flashcards

CECONMA LQ2 Flashcards

1
Q

started in the 1960s as a method for integrated project cost and schedule control

A

Earned Value Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Objectives of EVM

A

For effective internal cost and schedule management control systems
For more reliable and timely data to determine product-oriented contract status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Five steps in EV analysis

A

Determine (work)
Determine (money)
Calculate
Analyze
Extrapolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

represents the baseline schedule and budget

budgeted amount of cost for work scheduled to be accomplished plus the amount or level of effort or apportioned effort scheduled to be accomplished in a given time period.

A

Budgeted cost for work scheduled (BCWS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

contractor’s earning for work performed, based on the contract price (earned value)

the budgeted amount of cost for completed work, plus budgeted for level of effort or apportioned effort activity completed within a given time period.

A

Budgeted cost for work performed (BCWP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

represents the actual costs spent so far

the amount reported as actually expended in completing the work accomplished within a given time period.

A

Actual cost for work performed (ACWP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T or F: Minor variances are usually expected and tolerated

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T or F: Major variances aren’t always investigated

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T or F: For a negative variance (schedule or cost), it could be an indication of underperformance or unrealistic baseline

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T or F: A large positive variance may not be a reason for celebration. It may indicate an error or an overestimation in the baseline budget and/or schedule.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T or F: Schedule performance and budget
performance are dependent of each other.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Earned value (BCWP) and actual cost (ACWP) may be plotted against the baseline (BCWS) as shown below. Both curves are usually extrapolated to forecast what

A

estimate at
completion (EAC) and the
date of completion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Part of project control focused on quality feedback, progress of work, prognosis

A

Monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Part of project control focused on revisions and adjustments

A

Updating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Parts of Project Control

A
  • Budget control
  • Schedule control
  • Quality
  • Safety control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tasks in Monitoring Project

A
  • Feedback from direct contact
  • Feedback from photography
  • Feedback from check-off list
  • Feedback from Gantt charts
  • Feedback from networks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tasks in Updating Project

A
  1. Correction of the target plan to economically meet the project’s overall
    objectives
  2. Planning and scheduling the remaining work after some time interval has
    elapsed.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Factors affecting updating phase

A
  1. Errors in activity durations and network logic
  2. Changes in project design or in project scope
  3. Procurement
  4. Impending strikes, jurisdictional disputes, and sudden changes in the availability of workers
  5. Accidents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

a schedule that is prepared by the contractor, usually before the start of the project, and is used for performance comparison.

A

Baseline Schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

reflects actual performance information—including time of occurrence and amount (or percentage) of work completed - on the schedule and indicates on the schedule any changes to future work.

A

Updated Schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

date on which all progress on a project is reported. It is also called the as-of date, the cut-off date, and the status date.

A

Data Date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Type of information needed for updating schedules

A
  • Past information
  • Future information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most common frequency of updating

A

Weekly and biweekly schedule updates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Methods in measuring work progress

A
  • Involves mainly
    calculating or estimating
    the percent complete for
    each activity.
  • May also include
    estimating the percent
    complete for the entire
    project
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Methods for Determining Percent Complete for Individual Activities

A
  • Units completed
  • Cost or time ratio
  • Start-finish
  • Supervisor’s opinion
  • Incremental milestones
  • Weighted or equivalent units
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  • Works well for activities with small, identical, repetitive components
  • E.g. laying bricks or CMUs (concrete masonry units), excavating, installing tile or carpet
A

Units completed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

applies to those activities that are continuous and uniform throughout the project, such as Safety Inspection and project management–type activities.

A

Cost or Time Ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  • Works best for small activities or those with no duration or a short duration.
  • Project manager may assign one of
    three stages: have not started yet (0%), started but not yet finished (an arbitrary amount, say, 40% or 50%), or finished (100%).
A

Start-Finish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  • Most subjective method
  • Used when no other method can be
    suitably applied
  • Relies totally on the foreman or
    supervisor judgment
A

Supervisor’s Opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  • More suitable for large and complex or multistage activities.
  • Each stage of a given activity is assigned a “weight” that is approximately equal to its percentage share of effort in the total activity.
  • Then, each stage is treated as “all or nothing.”
A

Incremental Milestones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Steps in computing Weighted /Equivalent Units

A
  1. Assign a weight to each sub-activity so that total weight = 100%.
  2. Multiply the weight of each sub-activity by the quantity of the total activity. is the “equivalent weight” in units for each sub activity.
  3. Determine the percent complete for each sub-activity by using one of the previously discussed methods.
  4. Multiply the percent complete for each sub-activity by its equivalent weight. result is the “earned quantity.”
  5. Add earned quantities for all activities and divide by total quantity.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Methods for Determining Percent Complete
for the Entire Project

A
  • Units completed
  • Cost/budget
  • Man-hours
  • Duration
  • Workday unit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cost/budget formula

A

Baseline Cost/Budget Method:
Percent complete = Budgeted cost to date/Baseline budget

Actual Cost/Budget Method:
Percent complete = Actual cost to date/Estimated cost at completion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

represents percent complete that is supposed to be achieved at this point.

A

Baseline Ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Man-hour Formula

A

Baseline Man-Hour Method:
Percent complete = Budgeted man-hours to date/Baseline man-hours

Actual Man-Hour Method:
Percent complete = Actual man-hours to date/Estimated man-hours at completion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Duration Formula

A

Baseline Duration:
Percent Complete = (Data Date − BL Start Date)/Total BL Duration

Actual Duration:
Percent Complete = Actual Duration/At Completion Duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  • Based on the assumption that activities have weights that are proportional to their durations
A

Workday Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ways to Evaluate and Forecast

A

Bar chart and S-curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

a plot of targeted costs versus time with the appearance of letter ‘S” that has been somewhat flattened.

A

S-curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Assignment of the required resources to each activity, in the required amount and timing

A

Resource Allocation/Resource Loading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Process of making adjustments to reduce the demand for resources on various project dates.

Schedule non-critical activities at times other than their earliest possible time

A

Resource Leveling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Sharing of resources among projects

A

MULTI-PROJECT RESOURCE LEVELING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Objectives of Resource Leveling

A
  1. To meet the physical limits of the resource
  2. To avoid the day-to-day fluctuations in resource demands
  3. To maintain an even flow of application for the resource
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Types of Resource Leveling

A
  1. Limited RL (Traditional)
  2. Unlimited RL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Minimization of the duration time of the project while keeping the resource limits fixed.

A

Limited Resource Leveling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Minimization of the levels, and thereby the cost, of the resource while holding to the CPM project duration.

Minimum Moment Algorithm

A

Unlimited Resource Leveling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

represent the demands for the resource over the time duration of the project.

A

Daily Resource Sums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The length of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the
entire project.

A

Float / Total Float / Slack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Time span in which the completion of an activity may occur and not delay the finish of the project nor delay the start of any following activity

Amount of leeway of an activity if all the activities of the project are to be started at their earliest possible time

A

Free Float

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The time span in which the completion of an activity may occur and not delay the
termination of the project, but within which completion will delay the start of some following activity

A

Interfering Float

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The amount of leeway an activity can have and not be affected by the early or late starts and finishes of any of the other activities.

A

Independent Float

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Disadvantages of Traditional Approach

A

 Procedure tends to cause a buildup of resources towards the end of the project.
 Procedure permits fluctuations to remain in the resource histogram when the demand is below the assumed limit.
 There is a possibility that the project duration may need to be extended to accommodate the assumed resource limit.
 Time consuming.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Causes of Shifting

A

Delaying the start of an activity to any date up to and including its late start date.

Interrupting an activity and resuming it later (breaking the activity into two or
more segments) but finishing it no later than its late start date.

Fluctuating the amount of resources assigned to an activity, day to day, according to resource availability, until the activity gets all the required resource demand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Types of Compacting Equipment

A
  • Impact – sharp blow
  • Pressure – static weight
  • Vibration – shaking
  • Kneading – manipulation or rearranging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Types of Excavators

A

Two types
* Front shovel (Power shovel) – to excavate usually in levels higher than the ground level
* Back shovel (Backhoe) – to excavate usually in levels lower than the ground level

Two types based on control method
*Cable control
*Hydraulic control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Excavator Mounting Types

A

Truck Mounting
Crawler Mounting
Wheel Mounting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Types of Tower Cranes

A

Top Slewing Tower Crane
Bottom Slewing Tower Crane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Types of Mobile Cranes

A

Crawler
Telescoping Boom Truck Mounted
Lattice Boom Truck Mounted
Rough Terrain Crane
All Terrain Crane
Modified Crane for Heavy Lifting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Loading and Hauling Equipment

A

Dozer - Crawler and Wheel Type
Loader - Track Type and Wheel Type (Straight or Articulated)
Scraper
Dumptruck
Off-highway Truck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Dozer Blade Adjustments

A

Tilting
Pitching
Angling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Types of Dozer Blades

A

Straight
Angle
Universal
Cushion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Parts of Front Shovel Excavator

A

Boom
Arm/Stick
Stick Cylinder
Bucket
Bucket Cylinder
Boom Cyinder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Parts of Backhoe

A

Boom
Dipper Arm Cylinder
Dipper Arm
Dipper Cylinder
Attachment Hoist Cylinder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Types of Cranes

A

Mobile
Tower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Types of Attachments for Backhoe

A

Draglines and Clamshells
Orange Peel Bucket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Used to handle and transport bulk material, such as earth or rock, to load trucks from stockpiles, to excavate earth and to charge aggregate bins at asphalt and concrete plants

A

Loader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Types of Loader Attachments

A

Tractor shovel, scoop loader, frontend loader, bucket loader, tractor shovel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Types of Concrete Equipment

A

Truck Mixer
Truck Mounted Pump
Walk-behind single rotor trowel
Ride-on double rotor trowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

tracking performance

A

Monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

taking the necessary steps to correct unfavorable situations

A

control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Cost control includes what

A
  • cost estimating
  • cost accounting
  • project cash flow
  • company cashflow
  • direct labor costing
  • overhead rate costing
  • other tactics, penalties, incentives, profit-sharing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Phases of a Management Cost and Control System

A

Phase 1 - Planning
Phase 2 - Work Authorization and Release
Phase 3 - Cost Data Collation and Reporting
Phase 4 - Cost Accounting
Phase 5 - Customer and Management Reporting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Purposes of Control

A

Verification process and decision-making

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Operating Cycle Components

A

Phase 2-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

management technique that relates resource planning to schedules and technical performance requirements.

A

Earned value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

a systematic process that uses earned value as the primary tool for integrating cost, schedule, technical performance management, and risk management.

A

Earned Value Management (EVM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Benefits of EVMS

A
  • Accurate display of project status
  • Early and accurate identification of trends
  • Early and accurate identification of problems
  • Basis for course corrections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

is defined as any schedule, technical
performance, or cost deviation from a specific plan.

A

variance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Methods of measuring variance

A

Measurable efforts, level of effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Any difference between the budgeted cost of an activity and the actual cost of that activity

A

Cost Variance (CV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Any difference between the scheduled
completion of an activity and the actual completion of the activity

A

Schedule Variance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Any difference between the budgeted cost of an activity and the actual cost of that activity

A

Cost Variance (CV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Any difference between the scheduled
completion of an activity and the actual completion of the activity

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Any difference between the scheduled
completion of an activity and the actual completion of the activity

A

Schedule Variance (SV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

the cost efficiency ratio of earned value to actual costs, expressed as the formula CPI =BCWP/ACWP or CPI = EV/AC. It is often used to predict the magnitude of a possible cost overrun using the formulaBAC/CPI = projected cost at completion or EAC.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

the cost efficiency ratio of earned value to actual costs

It is often used to predict the magnitude of a possible cost overrun

A

Cost Performance Index (CPI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

the schedule efficiency ratio or earned value accomplished against the planned value.

describes what portion of the planned schedule was actually accomplished.

A

Schedule performance index (SPI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

sum of all budgets (BCWS) allocated to the project. This is often synonymous with the project baseline. This is what the total effort should cost.

A

Budget at Completion (BAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

identifies either the dollars or hours that represent a realistic appraisal of the work when performed. It is the sum of all direct and indirect costs to date plus the estimate of all authorized work remaining

A

Estimate at Completion (EAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

reports that indicate the physical progress to date of BCWS, BCWP, and ACWP

may also include information on material procurement, delivery, and usage

A

Performance reports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

These reports identify where we are today and use the information from the performance reports to calculate SV and CV

A

Status Reports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Reports that calculate EAC, ETC, SPI, and CPI and other forward-looking projections

emphasize where company will end up

A

Projection Reports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

These reports identify exceptions, problems, or situations that exceed the threshold limits on such items as variances, cash flow, resources and others

A

Exception Reports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Response to Variance Reports

A

Ignoring it
Functional Modification
Replanning
System Redesign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

An indicator, used in the formal discipline of cost-benefit analysis, that attempts to summarize the overall value for money of a project or proposal.

the ratio of the benefits of a project or proposal, expressed in monetary
terms, relative to its costs, also expressed in monetary terms. All benefits and costs
should be expressed in discounted present values.

A

Benefit-Cost Ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The planned allotment of time and cost for unforeseeable elements that may be associated with project planning.

A planned reaction or response established to address an event that may or may not happen

A

Contingency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The summation of the cost baseline and the management reserve.

A

Contact Cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The summation of the contract cost and the profit anticipated.

A

Contract Price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Changes made to bring expected future performance of the project in line with the plan.

Actions taken to return project performance to the planned level or performance or to an acceptable level.

A

Corrective Action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The process of controlling variances to the planned costs of a project.

Managing to remain within a predetermined project budget throughout its various stages or phases.

A

Cost Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The sum of money that is released using the work authorization forms (usually associated with the allocation of project funds to each project phase).

A

Distributed or time-phased budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The number of labor units required to complete an activity or other project element.

Usually expressed as staff hours, staff days, or staff weeks

A

Effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

An assessment of the likely quantitative result.

Usually applied to project costs and durations and should always include some indication of a range of accuracy such as plus or minus a given percent.

A

Estimate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

A sum of money or a percent of the estimated cost that is
added into the cost baseline for possible inaccuracies in the estimating process.

A

Management Reserve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

The uncontrolled and unauthorized changes to the project scope.

Usually results in greater cost, lower quality, and unfavorable performance variances.

A

Scope Creep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

A sum of money that you intend to spend but that hasn’t been allocated yet to the work breakdown structure elements or possibly to work authorization forms.

A

Undistributed Budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Salaried Staff and Hourly Workers are under what

A

Labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

mandates the fixing of the minimum wages applicable to different industrial sectors, namely, non- agriculture, agriculture plantation, and non plantation, cottage/handicraft, and retail/service, depending on the number of workers or capitalization or annual gross sales in some sectors.

A

Wage Rationalization Act or Republic Act No. 6727

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Sectors included in RA 6727

A
  • Agriculture
  • Retail Establishment
  • Service Establishment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Normal Working hours per day

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

one principally engaged in the sale of service to
individuals for their own or household use and is generally recognized as such.

A

Service Establishment

108
Q

one principally engaged in the sale of goods to end-users for personal or household use.

regularly engages in wholesale activities loses its retail character.

A

Retail Establishment

109
Q

Criteria for Compensable Hours Worked

A

a. All time during which an employee is required to be on duty or to be at the employer’s premises or to be at a prescribed work place; and

b. All time during which an employee is suffered or permitted to work.

110
Q

Principles in determining hours worked

A

a. All hours are hours worked which the employee is required to give his employer, regardless of whether or not such hours are spent in productive labor or involve physical or mental exertion.

b. An employee need not leave the premises of the work place in order that his rest period shall not be counted, it being enough that he stops working, may rest completely and may leave his work place, to go elsewhere, whether within or outside the premises of his work place.

c. If the work performed was necessary, or it benefited the employer, or the employee could not abandon his work at the end of his normal working hours because he had no replacement, all time spent for such work shall be considered as hours worked, if the work was with the knowledge of his employer or immediate supervisor.

d. The time during which an employee is inactive by reason of interruptions in his work beyond his control shall be considered working time either if the imminence of the resumption of work requires the employee’s presence at the place of work or if the interval is too brief to be utilized effectively and gainfully in the employee’s own interest.

111
Q

Treatment on Waiting Time

A

a. Waiting time spent by an employee shall be considered as working time if waiting is an integral part of his work or the employee is required or engaged by the employer to wait.

b. An employee who is required to remain on call in the employer’s premises or so close thereto that he cannot use the time effectively and gainfully for his own purpose shall be considered as working while on call. An employee who is not required to leave word at his home or with company officials where he may be reached is not working while on call.

112
Q

Attendance at lectures, meetings, training programs, and other similar activities
shall not be counted as working time if all of the following conditions are met:

A

a. Attendance is outside of the employee’s regular working hours;
b. Attendance is in fact voluntary; and
c. The employee does not perform any productive work during such
attendance.

113
Q

Meal and Rest Periods

A

Every employer shall give his employees, regardless of sex, not less than one (1) hour time-off for regular meals, except in the following cases when a meal period of not less than twenty (20) minutes may be given by the employer provided that such shorter meal period is credited as compensable hours worked of the employee:

a. does not involve strenuous physical exertion;

b. Where the establishment regularly operates not less than sixteen (16) hours a day;

c. In case of actual or impending emergencies or there is urgent work

d. Where the work is necessary to prevent serious loss of perishable goods.

Note: Rest periods or coffee breaks running from five (5) to twenty (20) minutes shall be
considered as compensable working time.

114
Q

those who are paid every day of the month, including
unworked rest days, special days, and regular holidays. Factor 365 days in a year is
used in determining the equivalent monthly salary of monthly-paid employees.

A

Monthly-paid employees

115
Q

are those who are paid on the days they actually worked and on unworked regular holidays.

A

Daily-paid employees

116
Q

Penalty for noncompliance to RA 6727

A

shall be punished by a fine of not less than Twenty-five Thousand Pesos (P25,000.00) nor more than One Hundred Thousand Pesos (P100,000.00) or imprisonment of not less than two (2) years nor more than four (4) years, or both such fine and imprisonment at the discretion of the court

The employer concerned shall be ordered to pay an amount equivalent to double the unpaid benefits owing to the employees: Provided, That payment of indemnity shall not absolve the employer from the criminal liability imposable hereof.

117
Q

Except to the minimum wage rates

A

All workers paid by results, including homeworkers and those who are paid on piece rate, takay, pakyaw or task basis

118
Q

Except to the minimum wage rates

A

All workers paid by results, including homeworkers and those who are paid on piece rate, takay, pakyaw or task basis

119
Q

Wage of apprentices and learners shall in no case be less than what percent of the applicable minimum wage rates.

A

75%

120
Q

Effective January 1, 2018, salaried individuals earning annual gross compensation of how much or below per year are exempted from paying income taxes

A

250,000

121
Q

Income of MWE’s exempt from income tax

A
  1. Statutory Minimum Wage (SMW) inclusive of the COLA;
  2. Holiday pay;
  3. Overtime pay;
  4. Night shift differential pay; and
  5. Hazard pay.
122
Q

Holiday Pay

A

refers to the payment of the regular daily wage for any unworked regular holiday.

123
Q

employee is entitled to at least 100% of his/her minimum wage rate even if he/she did not report for work, provided he/she is present or is on leave of absence with pay on the work day immediately preceding the holiday.

A

Holiday Pay Rule

124
Q

Regular Holidays

A

New Year’s Day 01 January 1 (Saturday)

Araw ng Kagitingan 09 April (Saturday)

Maundy Thursday 14 April (Thursday)

Good Friday 15 April (Friday)

Labor Day 01 May (Sunday)

Eidl Fitr Movable Date

Independence Day 12 June (Sunday)

Eidl Adha Movable Date

National Heroes’ Day 29 August (Monday)

Bonifacio Day 30 November (Wednesday)

Christmas Day 25 December (Sunday)

Rizal Day 30 December (Friday)

125
Q

Guidelines on Absences

A

All covered employees shall be entitled to holiday pay when they are on leave of absence with pay on the workday immediately preceding the regular holiday.

Employers shall grant the same percentage of the holiday pay as the benefit granted by competent authority in the form of employee’s compensation or social security payment, whichever is higher, if the employees are not reporting for work while on such leave benefits.

Where the day immediately preceding the holiday is a non-work day in the establishment or the scheduled rest day of the employee, he/she shall not be deemed to be on leave of absence on that day, in which case he/she shall be entitled to the holiday pay if he/she worked on the day immediately preceding the nonwork day or rest day.

126
Q

In cases of temporary or periodic shutdown and temporary cessation of work of an establishment, as when a yearly inventory or when the repair or cleaning of machineries and equipment is undertaken, the regular holidays falling within the period shall be compensated in accordance with the Rules Implementing the Labor Code, as amended.

A

memorize mo lang

127
Q

Special Nonworking Holidays

A

Chinese New Year 01 February

EDSA People Power Revolution Anniversary 25 February

Black Saturday 16 April

Ninoy Aquino Day 21 August

All Saints’ Day 01 November

Feast of Immaculate Conception of Mary 08 December

128
Q

Special Working Holidays

A

All Souls’ Day 02 November

Christmas Eve 24 December

Last Day of the Year 31 December

129
Q

Every employee who has rendered at least one (1) year of service is entitled to what for five (5) days with pay.

may be used for sick and vacation leave purposes and commutable to its money equivalent at the end of the year

A

Service Incentive Leave (SIL) - Article 95

130
Q

means service within twelve (12) months, whether continuous or broken, reckoned from the date the employee started working. The period includes authorized absences, unworked weekly rest days, and paid regular holidays. If through individual or collective agreement, company practice or policy, the period of the working days is less than twelve (12) months, said period shall be considered as one year for the purpose of determining the entitlement to the service incentive leave

A

one year of service

131
Q

RA 8282, as amended by RA 11210

A

Maternity Leave

132
Q

Coverage of Maternity Leave

A

applies to all covered female employees, regardless of civil status, employment status, and the legitimacy of her child.

133
Q

Maternity Leave Benefits

A

one hundred five (105) days with full pay

additional fifteen (15) days with full pay in case the female employee qualifies as a solo parent under RA 8972, or the “solo Parents’ Welfare Act of 2000”

in case of miscarriage or emergency termination of pregnancy, the maternity leave shall be for sixty (60) days with full pay.

an additional maternity leave of thirty (30) days without pay, can be availed of, at the option of the female employee, provided that the employer shall be given due notice

134
Q

Maternity Leave Eligibility

A

the female employee must have at least three monthly contributions to the SSS in the twelve-month period immediately preceding the semester of childbirth, miscarriage, or emergency termination of pregnancy

shall have notified her employer of her pregnancy and the probable date of her childbirth, which notice shall be transmitted to SSS in accordance its rules and regulations.

135
Q

Maternity Leave Salary Differential

A

employer shall pay for the difference between the full salary and the actual cash benefits received from the SSS.

136
Q

RA 8187

A

Paternity Leave

137
Q

Paternity Leave Coverage

A

granted to all married male employees in the private sector, regardless of their employment status (e.g., probationary, regular, contractual, project basis). The purpose of this benefit is to allow the husband to lend support to his wife during her period of recovery and/or in nursing her newborn child.

138
Q

Paternity Leave Benefits

A

shall apply to the first four (4) deliveries of the employee’s lawful wife with whom he is cohabiting

shall be for seven (7) calendar days, with full pay, consisting of basic salary and mandatory allowances fixed by the Regional Wage Board, if any, provided that his pay shall not be less than the mandated minimum wage.

Usage of the paternity leave shall be after the delivery, without prejudice to an employer’s policy of allowing the employee to avail of the benefit before or during the delivery

139
Q

Paternity Leave Conditions for Entitlement

A
  1. He is an employee at the time of the delivery of his child;
  2. He is cohabiting with his spouse at the time that she gives birth or suffers a
    miscarriage;
  3. He has applied for paternity leave with his employer within a reasonable period of time from the expected date of delivery by his pregnant spouse, or within such period as may be provided by company rules and regulations, or by collective bargaining agreement;
  4. His wife has given birth or suffered a miscarriage
140
Q

Application for Paternity Leave

A

The married male employee shall apply for paternity leave with his employer within
a reasonable period of time from the expected date of delivery by his pregnant spouse,

or within such period as may be provided by company rules and regulations,

or by collective bargaining agreement.

In case of a miscarriage, prior application for paternity leave shall not be required.

141
Q

T or F: In the event that the paternity leave is not availed of, it can be convertible to
cash and shall not be cumulative.

A

False

142
Q

T or F: If the existing paternity leave benefit under the collective bargaining agreement, contract, or company policy is greater than seven (7) calendar days as provided for in RA 8187, smaller benefit will prevail.

A

False

143
Q

If the existing paternity leave benefit is less than that provided in RA 8187, the employer shall what

A

adjust the existing benefit to cover the difference

144
Q

RA 8972

A

Parental Leave for Solo Parents

145
Q

RA 9262

A

Leave for Victims of Violence against Women and Children

146
Q

RA 9710

A

Special Leave for Women

147
Q

Any female employee regardless of age and civil status shall be entitled to a special leave benefit under such terms and conditions provided herein

A

Special Leave for Women

148
Q

refers to disorders that would require surgical procedures.

A

Gynecological disorders

149
Q

PD 851

A

13th Month Pay

150
Q

Coverage of PD 851

A

All employers are required to pay their rank-and-file employees thirteenth-month pay, regardless of the nature of their employment and irrespective of the methods by which their wages are paid, provided they worked for at least one (1) month during a calendar year. The thirteenth-month pay should be given to the employees not later than December 24 of every year.

151
Q

T or F: The thirteenth-month pay shall not be less than one-twelfth (1/12) of the total basic salary earned by an employee in a calendar year.

A

True

152
Q

The above stated exclusions under (a) and (b) shall cover benefits paid or accrued during the year, provided that the total amount shall not exceed how much, which may be increased through rules and regulations issued by the Secretary of Finance, upon recommendation of the Commissioner, after considering among others, the effect on the same of the inflation rate at the end of the taxable year

A

ninety thousand pesos (₱ 90,000)

153
Q

Employers shall make a report of their compliance through the DOLE Establishment
Report System at reports.dole.gov.ph not later than what date of the following year.

A

January 15

154
Q

Articles 298-299

A

Separation Pay

155
Q

An employee is entitled to receive a separation pay equivalent to one-half (1/2) month pay for every year of service, a fraction of at least six (6) months being considered as one (1) whole year, if his/her separation from the service is due to any of the following authorized causes

A
  1. Retrenchment to prevent losses (i.e., reduction of personnel effected by management to prevent losses);
  2. Closure or cessation of operation of an establishment not due to serious losses or financial reverses; and
  3. When the employee is suffering from a disease not curable within a period of six (6) months and his/her continued employment is prejudicial to his/her health or to the health of his/her co-employees.
  4. Lack of service assignment of security guard for a continuous period of six (6) months.

In no case will an employee get less than one (1)
month separation pay if the separation is due to the above stated causes

156
Q

Article 302aa

A

Retirement Pay

157
Q

Coverage for Retirement Pay

A

Employees shall be retired upon reaching the age of sixty (60) years or more but not beyond sixty-five (65) years old and have served the [establishment for at least five (5) years].

158
Q

Exception to Retirement Pay

A
  1. Government employees; and
  2. Employees of retail, service and agricultural establishments/ operations regularly employing not more than ten (10) employees.
159
Q

Amount of Retirement Pay

A

The minimum retirement pay shall be equivalent to one-half (1/2) month salary for every year of service, a fraction of at least six (6) months being considered as one (1) whole year.

160
Q

Other Inclusions of Retirement Pay

A
  1. Fifteen (15) days salary based on the latest salary rate;
  2. Cash equivalent of five (5) days of service incentive leave; and
  3. One-twelfth (1/12) or 2.5 days of the thirteenth-month pay.
161
Q

Other Inclusions of Retirement Pay

A
  1. Fifteen (15) days salary based on the latest salary rate;
  2. Cash equivalent of five (5) days of service incentive leave; and
  3. One-twelfth (1/12) or 2.5 days of the thirteenth-month pay.
162
Q

Other Inclusions of Retirement Pay

A
  1. Fifteen (15) days salary based on the latest salary rate;
  2. Cash equivalent of five (5) days of service incentive leave; and
  3. One-twelfth (1/12) or 2.5 days of the thirteenth-month pay.
163
Q

PD 626

A

The Employees’ Compensation Program

164
Q

a government program designed to provide a compensation package to public and private sector employees or their dependents in the event of workrelated sickness, injury, or death.

A

The Employees’ Compensation Program

165
Q

a government
program designed to provide a compensation package to public and
private sector employees or their dependents in the event of workrelated sickness, injury, or death.

A
166
Q

a government program designed to provide a compensation package to public and private sector employees or their dependents in the event of work-related sickness, injury, or death.

A

The Employees’ Compensation Program

167
Q

Coverage of the Employees’ Compensation Program

A
  1. Private sector workers who are compulsory members of the Social Security System (SSS) and sea-based Overseas Filipino Workers (OFWs) Employees shall be covered starting on the first day of their employment.
  2. Government sector employees who are members of the Government service Insurance System (GSIS), including members of the Armed Forces of the Philippines, elective government officials who are receiving regular salary and all casual, emergency, temporary and substitute or contractual employees.
  3. Active self-employed members of the SSS
168
Q

Conditions of Compensability

A

A sickness, injury, disability or death resulting from an employment accident is compensable if:
1. The employee is injured at the workplace;
2. The employee is performing official functions; and
3. If the injury is sustained elsewhere, the employee is executing an order for the employer.

No compensation will be allowed to an employee or the dependents if the injury, sickness, disability or death is due to:
1. Drunkenness;
2. Willful intention to injure or kill himself or another; or
3. Notorious negligence

169
Q

The conditions for the compensability of COVID-19

A
  1. There must be a direct connection between the offending agent or event and the worker based on epidemiologic criteria and occupational risk (g., healthcare workers, screening and contact tracing teams, etc.);
  2. The tasks assigned to the worker would require frequent face-to-face and close proximity interactions with the public or with confirmed cases for healthcare workers;
  3. Transmission occurred in the workplace; or
  4. Transmission occurred while commuting to and from work.
170
Q

The conditions for the compensability of COVID-19

A
  1. There must be a direct connection between the offending agent or event and the worker based on epidemiologic criteria and occupational risk (g., healthcare workers, screening and contact tracing teams, etc.);
  2. The tasks assigned to the worker would require frequent face-to-face and close proximity interactions with the public or with confirmed cases for healthcare workers;
  3. Transmission occurred in the workplace; or
  4. Transmission occurred while commuting to and from work.
171
Q

Benefits of PD 626

A
  1. Loss of income benefits
    a. Temporary Total Disability (TTD)
    b. Permanent Total Disability (PTD)
    c. Permanent Partial Disability (PPD)
  2. Medical Services
  3. Career’s Allowance
  4. Rehabilitation Services/KaGabay Program (Katulong at Gabay sa Manggagawang May Kapansanan)
  5. Death benefit
  6. Funeral benefit
172
Q

RA 7875, as amended by RA 9241 and RA 10606

A

PHILHEALTH BENEFITS/ The National Health Insurance Program

173
Q

is a compulsory health insurance
program of the government established to provide universal health insurance coverage
and ensure affordable, acceptable, available and accessible health care services for all
citizens of the Philippines

A

National Health Insurance Program (NHIP)

174
Q

Coverage of RA 7875

A

all Filipinos are now members of PhilHealth. Families who are not yet registered/enlisted with PhilHealth will be assisted by their health care provider with the next steps.

175
Q

Benefits of RA 7875

A
  1. Inpatient Benefits
  2. Outpatient Benefits
  3. Z Benefits
  4. SDG Related
176
Q

RA 1161, as amended by RA 11199

A

Social Security Benefits

177
Q

Coverage of RA 1161

A

Covered employees are entitled to a package of benefits under the Social Security and Employees’ Compensation
(EC) Programs in the event of death, disability, sickness, maternity and old age. Self-employed and voluntary members also get the same benefits as covered employees, except those benefits under the EC program

SSS provides for a replacement of income lost on account of the aforementioned contingencies.

178
Q

Benefits of RA 1161

A

Sickness
Maternity
Retirement
Disability
Death
Funeral
Unemployment

179
Q

Benefits of RA 1161

A
  1. Serious misconduct;
  2. Willful disobedience to lawful orders;
  3. Gross and habitual neglect of duties;
  4. Fraud or willful breach of trust/loss of confidence;
  5. Commission of a crime or offense; or
  6. Analogous cases like abandonment, gross inefficiency, disloyalty/ conflict of interest/ dishonesty
180
Q

Mandatory Coverage of 1161

A
  1. Employer (Business or Household Employer);
  2. Employee;
  3. Self-Employed;
  4. Househelper or Kasambahay; and
  5. Overseas Filipino Workers
181
Q

RA 9679

A

Pag-ibig Benefits

182
Q

is a mutual provident savings system for private and government employees and other earning groups, supported by matching mandatory contributions of their respective employers with housing as the primary investment.

A

Home Development Mutual Fund, otherwise known as Pag-IBIG (Pagtutulungan sa kinabukasan: Ikaw, Bangko, Industriya at Gobyerno) Fund

183
Q

Programs and Benefits of RA 9679

A

The Fund offers its members the following programs and benefits:

  1. Housing Loans
    a. Pag-IBIG Housing Loan
    b. Special Housing Loan Restructuring 2
    c. Pag-IBIG Home Equity Appreciation Loan (HEAL)
    d. Affordable Housing Loan for Minimum-Wage Earners
    e. Home Savers Programs
  2. Short-Term Loans
    a. Multi-Purpose Loan
    b. Calamity Loan
  3. Other Services
    a. Pag-IBIG Savings Claim (Regular & MP2 Savings)
    b. Loyalty Card Plus
184
Q

Membership Contribution

A

Employee - 1%, 2%
Employer - 2%

185
Q

Objective of Equipment Economics

A

Provide the right equipment at the right time and place, so that work can be accomplished at the lowest cost.

186
Q

Is the working time duration, not the calendar duration

A

Utilization

187
Q

Types of Utilization Data

A

Is the working time duration, not the calendar duration

188
Q

Types of Ownership Cost

A

 Depreciation (Purchase expense)
 Insurance
 Taxes
 Salvage Value
 Shop expenses

189
Q

Include the cost of all attachment and delivery charges in initial machine cost (delivered price)

Deduct tire cost for wheel-type machines

A

Ownership Cost

190
Q

Types of Operating Cost

A

 Consumables – fuel, oil, grease, filters
 Repair
 Maintenance
 Tires or tracks
 High wear items – cutting edges, teeth

191
Q

Types of High Wear Items

A

 Bucket teeth
 Cutting edges
 Ripper tips

192
Q

Productivity Factors

A

 Soil features
 Equipment Capacity
 Equipment Power

193
Q

Types of Soils

A

 Organic soils
- Usually have to be removed before building
 Non-cohesive
- Well rounded, sub rounded, subangular, angular

194
Q

number of units produced per cycle

Function of size of the machine, the state of the material that is to be processed and the unit to be used in measurement

A

Cyclic Capacity

195
Q

time required to complete 1 cycle

A

Cyclic Rate or Speed

196
Q

required in computing for power

A

rolling resistance (RR) and grade resistance (GR)

197
Q

The power resulting from internal equipment friction and friction developed between the when or tracks and the traveled surface.

Measure of the force (lb/ton) that must be overcome to rotate a wheel over the surface on which it makes contact.

A

ROLLING RESISTANCE (RR)

198
Q

The power resulting from slope of the traveled way.

A

GRADE RESISTANCE (GR)

199
Q

measured in % slope: ratio between vertical rise (fall) and horizontal distance in which the rise/fall occurs.

A

Grade

200
Q

assists the machine when traveling down grade

A

gravity or grade assistance

201
Q

Controlled by the engine size of the equipment and the drive train, which allows transfer of that power to the driving wheels or power take-off point.

A

Power Available

202
Q

more power, less speed to overcome hills and rough surfaces

A

when using lower gears

203
Q

less power, high speed

A

when using higher gears

204
Q

Force that can be delivered at the pulling point in a given gear for a given tractor type

A

Tracked vehicle – drawbar pull

205
Q

force that can be developed by the wheel at its point of contact with the road surface

A

Wheeled vehicle – pound of rimpull

206
Q

level of power that is developed in a given gear under normal load and over extended work periods

Base or reference level of power that is available for continuous operation.

A

rated power

207
Q

peak power in a gear for a short period to meet extraordinary power requirements

A

maximum power

208
Q

Constraints of usable power

A

 road surface traction characteristics (for wheeled vehicles only)
 altitude at which operations are conducted

209
Q

measure of the ability of a particular surface to receive and develop the power being delivered to the driving wheels and have been determined by experiments.

A

coefficient of traction

210
Q

T or F: Decrease pounds pull 4% for each 1,000 feet (above 3,000 feet).

A

3%

211
Q

RA 11058

A

An Act Strengthening Compliance with Occupational Safety and Health Standards and Providing Penalties for Violations Thereof

212
Q

Coverage of RA 11058

A

It shall apply to all establishments, projects and sites, including Philippines Economic Zone Authority (PEZA) establishments, and all other places where work is being undertaken in all branches of economic activity except in the public sector

a) Establishments located inside special economic zones and other investment promotion agencies (e.g., Philippine Economic Zone Authority [PEZA], Clark Development Corporation [CDC]);
b) Utilities engaged in air, sea, and land transportation;
c) Industries such as mining, fishing, construction, agriculture, and maritime;

213
Q

Every employer, contractor, subcontractor shall what (1-3)

A

Furnish the work is a place of employment free from hazardous conditions that are causing or are likely to cause death illness or physical harm to the workers

Give complete job safety instructions or orientation to all the workers especially to those entering the job for the first time including those relating to familiarization with their work environment

Inform the workers of the hazards associated with their work health risks involved or to which they are exposed to preventive measures to eliminate or minimize the risks and steps to be taken in cases of emergency

214
Q

Every employer, contractor, subcontractor shall what (4-7)

A

Use only approved devices and equipment for the workplace

Comply with OSH standards including training medical examination and where necessary provisions of protective and safety devices such as personal protective equipment (PPE) and machine guards

Allow workers and their safety and health representatives to participate actively in the process of organizing planning implementing and evaluating the safety and health programs to improve safety and health in the workplace

Provide where necessary for measures to deal with emergencies and accidents including first aid arrangements

215
Q

Every worker shall what

A

Every worker shall participate in ensuring compliance with aush standards in the workplace the worker shall make proper use of all safeguards and safety devices furnished for the workers protection And that of others and cell of surface tractions to prevent accidents or imminent danger situations in the workplace the worker shall observe the prescribed steps to be taken in cases of emergency

The worker shall report to the supervisor and work hazard that may be discovered in the workplace

216
Q

Duty of any person …

A

It shall be the duty of any person including the builder or contractor who visits builds renovates or installs devices or conducts business in an establishment or workplace don’t lie with the provisions of this act and all other regulations issued by the secretary of labor and employment

217
Q

Duties of workers

A

Participate in capacity building activities in safety and health and other os age related topics & programmes

Proper use of whole safeguards and safety devices furnished for workers protection and that of others

Comply with instructions to prevent accidents or imminent danger situations in the workplace

Observe prescribe steps to be taken in case of emergency cluding participation in the conduct of national and local disaster drills

Report to their immediate supervisor or any responsible safety and health personnel any work hazard that may be discovered in the workplace

218
Q

Other provisions of Chapter 3 RA 11058

A

Section (4-11)
Worker’s Right to Know

Worker’s Right to Refuse Unsafe Work

Worker’s Right to Report Accidents

Worker’s Right to PPE

Safety Signage and Devices

Safety in the Use of Equipment

Occupational Safety and Health Information

Occupational Safety and Health (OSH) Program

219
Q

Section 14. Safety Officer Provisions

A

To ensure that a safety and health program is duly followed and enforced covered workplaces all have safety officers who shall:

Oversee the overall management of the safety and health program

Frequently monitor and inspect any health or safety aspect of the operation being undertaken to

Assist government inspectors in the conduct of safety and health inspection at any time whenever work is being performed or during the conduct of an accident investigation

Issue work stoppage orders when necessary

220
Q

An occupation shall be considered critical when

A

performance of a jo affects people’s lives and safety

job involves the handling of tools, equipment, and supplies

job requires a relatively long period of education and training

performance of the job may compromise the safety health and environmental concerns within the immediate vicinity of the establishment

221
Q

Section 19 Worker’s Welfare Facilities

A

Adequate supply of drinking water

Adequate sanitary and washing facilities

Suitable living accommodation for workers, as may be applicable

Separate sanitary, washing, and sleeping facilities for men and women workers

222
Q

What is OSHA 3150

A

A Guide to Scaffold Use in the
Construction Industry

223
Q

an elevated, temporary work platform

A

scaffold

224
Q

Types of Scaffolds

A

Supported Scaffold
Suspended Scaffold
Other Scaffold

225
Q

Who uses scaffolds

A

Erectors/Dismantlers
Users

226
Q

Parts of Tube and Coupler Scaffold

A

Planking
Runner
Bearer
Post
Sill
Diagonal Brace
Cross Bracing
Guard Rail System
Base Plate

227
Q

Types of clamps

A

Rigid Clamp
Swivel Clamp

228
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Fall Protection/Fall arrest systems

A

Each employee more than 10 feet above a lower level shall be protected from falls by guardrails or a fall arrest system

exception for single-point and two-point adjustable suspension (use personal fall arrest system)

229
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Guardrail Height

A

the toprail for scaffolds
manufactured and placed in
service after January 1, 2000 must be between 38 inches (0.9 meters) and 45 inches (1.2 meters).

If before, 36 and 45 inches

230
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Crossbracing

A

When the crosspoint of crossbracing is used as a toprail, it must be between 38 inches (0.97 m) and 48 inches (1.3 meters) above the work platform.

231
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Midrails

A

Midrails must be installed approximately halfway between the toprail and the platform surface.

When a crosspoint of crossbracing is used as a midrail, it must be between 20 inches (0.5 meters) and 30 inches (0.8 m) above the work platform.

232
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Footings

A

Support scaffold footings shall be level and capable of supporting the loaded scaffold.

The legs, poles, frames, and uprights shall bear on base plates and mud sills

233
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Platforms

A

Supported Scaffold platforms must be fully planked or decked

234
Q

Guying ties, and braces—

A

Supported scaffolds with a height-to-base of more than 4:1 shall be restained from tipping by guying, tying, bracing, or the equivalent.

235
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Guying ties, and braces

A

Supported scaffolds with a height-to-base of more than 4:1 shall be restained from tipping by guying, tying, bracing, or the equivalent.

236
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Capacity

A

Scaffolds and scaffold components must support at least 4 times the maximum intended load.

Suspension scaffold rigging must at least 6 times the intended load.

237
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Training

A

Employers must train each employee who works on a scaffold on the hazards and the procedures to control the hazards.

238
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Training

A

Employers must train each employee who
works on a scaffold on the hazards and the procedures to control the hazards.

239
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Inspection

A
240
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on

A
241
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Erecting and Dismantling

A

When erecting and dismantling supported
scaffolds, a competent person to
must determine the feasibility of
providing a safe means of access
and fall protection for these
operations.

242
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Inspection

A

Before each work shift and after any occurrence that could affect the structural integrity, a competent person must inspect the scaffold and scaffold components for visible defects.

243
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Inspection

A

Before each work shift and after any occurrence that could affect the structural integrity, a competent person must inspect the scaffold and scaffold components for visible defects.

244
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Erecting and Dismantling

A

When
erecting and dismantling supported
scaffolds, a competent person to
must determine the feasibility of
providing a safe means of access
and fall protection for these
operations.

245
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Erecting and Dismantling

A

When erecting and dismantling supported scaffolds, a competent person to must determine the feasibility of providing a safe means of access and fall protection for these operations.

246
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Inspection

A

Before each work shift and after any occurrence that could affect the structural integrity, a competent person must inspect the scaffold and scaffold components for visible defects.

246
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Erecting and Dismantling

A

When erecting and dismantling supported scaffolds, a competent person to must determine the feasibility of providing a safe means of access and fall protection for these operations.

247
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Inspection

A

Before each work shift and after any occurrence that could affect the structural integrity, a competent person must inspect the scaffold and scaffold components for visible defects.

248
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Erecting and Dismantling

A

When erecting and dismantling supported scaffolds, a competent person to must determine the feasibility of providing a safe means of access and fall protection for these operations.

249
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Inspection

A

Before each work shift and after any occurrence that could affect the structural integrity, a competent person must inspect the scaffold and scaffold components for visible defects.

250
Q

When is a qualified person required for scaffolding?

A

“one who—by possession of a recognized degree, certificate,
or professional standing, or who by
extensive knowledge, training, and
experience—has successfully
demonstrated his/her ability to
solve or resolve problems related to
the subject matter, the work, or the
project.”

251
Q

When is a competent person required for scaffolding?

A

“one who is capable of identifying
existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions, which are unsanitary, hazardous to employees, and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to
eliminate them.”

252
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Inspection

A

When erecting and dismantling supported scaffolds, a competent person2 must determine the feasibility of providing a safe means of access and fall protection for these operations

253
Q

OSHA’s Scaffolding Standard on Erecting and Dismantling

A

When erecting and dismantling supported scaffolds, a competent person2 must determine the feasibility of providing a safe means of access and fall protection for these operations

254
Q

When is an engineer required?

A
  • Design the direct connections of masons’ multi-point adjustable suspension scaffolds.* Design scaffolds that are to be moved when employees are on them.
  • Design pole scaffolds over 60 feet (18.3 meters) in height.
  • Design tube and coupler scaffolds over 125 feet (38 meters) in height.
  • Design fabricated frame scaffolds over 125 feet (38 meters) in height above their base plates.
  • Design brackets on fabricated frame scaffolds used to support cantilevered loads in addition to workers.
  • Design outrigger scaffolds and scaffold components.
255
Q

are platforms
supported by legs, outrigger
beams, brackets, poles, uprights,
posts, frames, or similar rigid
support.

A

are platforms supported by legs, outrigger beams, brackets, poles, uprights, posts, frames, or similar rigid support.

256
Q

The structural members, poles,
legs, posts, frames, and uprights,
must be what and braced to
prevent swaying and
displacement.

A

plumb / exactly vertical

257
Q

Types of Supported Scaffolds

A

Frame Scaffolds
Tube and Coupler Scaffold
Double Pole Scaffolds
Ladder Jack Scaffolds
Pump Jack Scaffolds
Outrigger Scaffolds

258
Q

What are the footing and foundation
requirements for supported scaffolds?

A

Supported scaffolds’ poles, legs, posts, frames, and uprights must bear on base plates and mud sills, or other adequate firm foundation.

259
Q

When do supported scaffolds need to be restrained from tipping?

A

Supported scaffolds with a height to base width ratio of more than 4:1 must be restrained by guying, tying, bracing, or an equivalent means.

260
Q

How can one prevent supported scaffolding from tipping?

A
  • Either the manufacturers’ recommendation or the following placements must be used for guys, ties, and braces:
  • Install guys, ties, or braces at the closest horizontal member to the 4:1 height and repeat vertically with the top restraint no further than the 4:1 height from the top.
  • Vertically—every 20 feet (6.1 meters) or less for scaffolds less than three feet (0.91 meters) wide; every 26 feet (7.9 meters) or less for scaffolds more than three feet (0.91 meters) wide.
  • Horizontally—at each end; at intervals not to exceed 30 feet (9.1 meters) from one end.
261
Q

How can one prevent supported scaffolding from tipping?

A
  • Either the manufacturers’ recommendation or the following placements must be used for guys, ties, and braces:
  • Install guys, ties, or braces at the closest horizontal member to the 4:1 height and repeat vertically with the top restraint no further than the 4:1 height from the top.
  • Vertically—every 20 feet (6.1 meters) or less for scaffolds less than three feet (0.91 meters) wide; every 26 feet (7.9 meters) or less for scaffolds more than three feet (0.91 meters) wide.
  • Horizontally—at each end; at intervals not to exceed 30 feet (9.1meters) from one end.
262
Q

May forklifts, front-end loaders, or similar equipment support platforms?

A
  • Forklifts can support platforms only when the entire platform is attached to the fork and the forklift does not move horizontally when workers are on the platform (1926.451(c)(2)(v)
  • Front-end loaders and similar equipment can support scaffold platforms only when they have been specifically designed by the manufacturer for such use. 1926.451(c)(2)(iv)
263
Q

What materials can be used to increase the working level height of employees on supported scaffolds?

A
  • Stilts may be used on a large area scaffold. When a guardrail system is used, the guardrail height must be increased in height equal to the height of the stilts. The manufacturer must approve any alterations to the stilts.

Note: A large area scaffold consists of a pole, tube and coupler systems, or a fabricated frame scaffold erected over substantially the entire work area.

264
Q

What are the requirements for access to scaffolds?

A
  • Employers must provide access when the scaffold platforms are more than 2 feet (0.6 meters) above or below a point of access.
  • Direct access is acceptable when the scaffold is not more than 14 inches (36 centimeters) horizontally and not more than 24 inches (61centimeters) vertically from the other surfaces.
  • The standard prohibits the use of cross braces as a means of access. 1926.451(e)(1)
265
Q

What are the access requirements for employees erecting and dismantling supported scaffolds?

A

Employees erecting and dismantling supported scaffolding must have a safe means of access provided when a competent person has determined the feasibility and analyzed the site conditions.

266
Q

What types of access can be used

A

Ladder (portable, hook-on, attachable, stairway)

Stair towers

Ramps and Walkways

Integral Prefabricated Frames

267
Q

Does the standard prohibit any types of scaffolds?

A
  • Shore and lean-to scaffolds are strictly prohibited. * Also, employees are prohibited from working on scaffolds covered with snow, ice, or other slippery materials, except to remove these substances.
268
Q

Personal fall arrest systems include what

A

harnesses, components of the harness/belt such as Dee-rings, and snap hooks, lifelines, and anchorage point.

269
Q

what must be independent of support lines and suspension ropes and not attached to the same anchorage point as the support or suspension ropes

A

Lifelines

270
Q

When working on an __, attach the fall arrest system to the boom or basket.

A

aerial lift

271
Q

What protections from overhead falling objects do the standards
require?

A

To protect employees from falling hand tools, debris, and other small objects, install toeboards, screens, guardrail systems, debris nets, catch platforms, canopy structures, or barricades. In addition, employees must wear hard hats.

Term 10/11 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions