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CE04 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the preservative in succinylcholine and lidocaine?

A

Methylparabyns

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2
Q

How does the number of lumens in a CVP correlate with risk of infection?

A

More lumens=greater risk

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3
Q

What is the shortest acting NDMB?

A

Rocuronium

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4
Q

Whats the shortest acting neuromuscular blocker?

A

Sux

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5
Q

What is the RSI intubating dose for sux?

A

1.5mg/kg

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6
Q

What is the RSI intubating dose for roc?

A

0.6-1.2mg/kg (Hall uses 1mg/kg)

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7
Q

What is the RSI intubating dose for vec?

A

0.1mg/kg

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8
Q

What’s the easiest way to assess heart rate, rhythm, and pulse pressure during preop?

A

Palpate radial pulse

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9
Q

Which membrane is pierced by the SLN?

A

Thyrohyoid membrane

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10
Q

Which branch of the SLN is sensory?

A

Internal

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11
Q

Which branch of the SLN is motor?

A

External

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12
Q

What muscle does the external branch of the SLN innervate?

A

Cricothyroid muscles

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13
Q

What area does the internal branch of the SLN innervate?

A

Supraglottic region

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14
Q

What is the action of the muscles innervated by the SLN?

A

Tensing

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15
Q

What is the action of the muscles innervated by the RLN?

A

Adducting, abducting, shortening

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16
Q

What is the only muscle innervated by the SLN?

A

Cricothyroid

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17
Q

What 3 intrinsic muscles adduct the vocal cords?

A

LOT - lateral cricoarytenoid, oblique arytenoid, transverse arytenoid

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18
Q

What muscle abducts the vocal cords?

A

Posterior cricoarytenoid

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19
Q

What muscle tenses the VCs?

A

Cricothyroid

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20
Q

What 2 muscles shorten the VCs?

A

Vocalis, thyroarytenoid

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21
Q

What 2 muscles close the glottis?

A

Aryepiglottic and thyroepiglottic

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22
Q

Which vein is most at risk for an occult hemorrhage?

A

Subclavian - most likely to bleed without us knowing

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23
Q

Given an 80kg patient with an FRC of 30cc/kg, a tidal volume of 660cc, and a RR of 10/min - calculate time to preoxygenation

A

Time constant=volume/flow
aka FRC/alveolar ventilation

Time constant=(80kg30cc/kg)/[(660-176)10]=0.5

Multiply by 3 for 90% EtO2
=~1.5min

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24
Q

Which cranial nerves innervate the extra-ocular muscles of the eye?

A

3, 4, 6

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25
Q

Which nerves provide sensory and motor innervation to the soft palate?

A

Sensory - V2

Motor - X, V3

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26
Q

How much neuromuscular blockade could still remain with 1/4 apparent twitches?

A

90-95% block

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27
Q

How much neuromuscular blockade could still remain with 4/4 apparent twitches?

A

60-80% block

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28
Q

How much neuromuscular blockage could still remain with 4/4 full twitches?

A

5-10%

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29
Q

What does PTT measure? What factors are excluded?

A

Intrinsic pathway; excludes factors 7 and 13

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30
Q

What does PT measure? What factor is included?

A

Extrinisic pathway; includes factor 7

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31
Q

What are the normal values for PTT

A

25-35 seconds

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32
Q

What are the normal values for PT

A

11-14 seconds

33
Q

What are the normal values for INR

34
Q

What is the risk of IV catheterization in the basilic and cephalic veins

35
Q

What is the risk of IV catheterization in the EJV

A

Infiltration, airway obstruction

36
Q

How do you calculate MAP

A

Pulse pressure/3 + diastolic

37
Q

What are the normal NMB monitoring values for sensory thresholds

38
Q

What are the normal NMB monitoring values for motor thresholds

A

12-15mAMPS

39
Q

Which vein has the risk of thrombophlebitis

40
Q

What is the purpose of the drip chamber on IV fluid tubing

A

Monitor flow and function

41
Q

What is the supplied concentration of etomidate

42
Q

What is the induction drug with garlic taste

A

Thiopental

43
Q

When was the ASA classification system established

44
Q

How many tubes should you prepare to be safe and cost efficient

45
Q

What should you not use to inject drugs into an IV port

A

Hypodermic needle

46
Q

What does RAE stand for, as in oral and nasal RAE tubes

A

The creators - Ring, Adair, Elwyn

47
Q

Under what lighting do you examine a patient for peripheral catheterization

A

Tangential task lighting

48
Q

If a venous valve is encountered when approximately half of an IV catheter has been introduced, what action should be taken?

A

Provide fluid flow and advance the catheter

49
Q

To obtain good IVF flow, what is a practical, safe height for the IVF bag to be above the patient?

50
Q

What is the most numerous cation in human cells?

51
Q

Which IVFs are appropriate for dilution of PRBCs or contiguous administration with PRBCs? Which are contraindicated and why?

A

NS. LR is contraindicated because of the presence of calcium

52
Q

Which IV fluids are relatively contraindicated in patients with ESRD?

53
Q

Which IV fluids provide realistic supplementation of potassium for potassium-depleted patients?

54
Q

What is the unit of measure for a NMB monitor?

55
Q

What is the induction drug that causes hallucinations?

56
Q

What is the induction drug that causes tonic-clonic activity?

57
Q

What is the definition of leukocytosis

A

Elevated number of white blood cells (normal ~4300-10800)

58
Q

What is the supplied concentration of ondansetron?

A

4mg/2ml (2mg/ml)

59
Q

What is an indication to employ bacterial endocarditis antibiotic prophylaxis?

A

Patients with a prosthetic valve

60
Q

How do you calculate PiO2

A

(Pbar-Ph2o) x FiO2

61
Q

What value tells us the AMOUNT of oxygen in the blood

62
Q

What is cyanosis

A

Bluish coloration of skin and
mucous membranes that occurs when two or
more grams/liter of deoxyhemoglobin are
present

63
Q

What is the name of the clinical exam finding where the finger tips and nail beds appear enlarged

64
Q

What are the 5 pathophysiologic causes of hypoxemia

A

1) Alveolar hypoventilation
2) V/Q mismatch
3) Frank shunt
4) Decrease PiO2
5) Diffusion defect

65
Q

What drug undergoes Hofmann elimination

A

Cisatricurium

66
Q

What is the empiric setting for NMB monitoring

67
Q

Which NMB causes tachycardia

A

Pancuronium

68
Q

Which NMB can cause bradycardia

69
Q

Which NMB should you use for patients with ESRD

70
Q

Which phase of the capnogram is the alveolar phase

71
Q

What are the attachments of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

A

Clavicle and manubrium

72
Q

What physiological lung volume change is associated with steep reverse trendelenberg position

A

Increased FRC

73
Q

What is the standard VCo2 levels at rest

74
Q

What are the 3 patient variables that most often alter the stimulation threshold for NMB monitoring in the OR

A

1) Temperature38.3
2) Peripheral edema
3) Electrolytes

75
Q

What tests are done to assess function of the vagus nerve?

A

Valsalva and Mueller manuevers

76
Q

What preop test should you perform in women with child bearing potential

77
Q

What determines the inspired partial pressure of isoflurane

A

Temperature

78
Q

What oral temperature is defined as a fever

A

Usually between 37.9-38.3 celsius

Comp Exams (5 decks)

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