Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CHEM > CC POST EXAM > Flashcards

CC POST EXAM Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Periodic Table flashcards Chemistry 101 flashcards AP® Chemistry flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards
1
Q

.

A

.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

.

A

.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
A

.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

It is reported that the greatest percentage of laboratory errors occur during the ______ phase.

a. Preanalytical
b. Analytical
c. Post-analytical
d. All of the above

A

Preanalytical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Critical value reporting, turnaround time, and clinician satisfaction are part of what phase:

a. Preanalytical phase
b. Analytical phase
c. Post-analytical phase
d. All of the above

A

Post-analytical phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The chain begins when the sample is collected and terminates with the person who performs the actual analysis. All individuals who handle the sample must document the time and date when they had the sample in their control, as well the particular process they carried out.

a. Chain of infection
b. Chain of evidence
c. Chain of custody
d. Both B and C

A

d. Both B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Traditional example of quality control:

a. Continuous quality improvement
b. Error-free quality
c. Quality as expense
d. Quality as means to lower cost

A

Quality as expense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Substances that take up water on exposure to atmospheric conditions are called.

a. Hydrate
b. Hygroscopic
c. Amphoteric
d. Amphipathic

A

Hygroscopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following should not be stored together with oxidizers?

a. Flammable liquids
b. Mineral acids
c. Caustics
d. Air-reactive substances

A

Caustics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

It refers to the difference between the target value and the assay value. It exists when there is a constant difference between the comparative method and the test method regardless of the concentration.

a. Random error
b. Constant systematic error
c. Proportional systematic error
d. Clerical error

A

Constant systematic error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

It results in greater deviation from the target value due to higher sample concentration. It exists when the difference between the test method values is proportional to the analyte concentration.

a. Random error
b. Constant systematic error
c. Proportional systematic error
d. Clerical error

A

Proportional systematic error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The methodology for a Lean six sigma quality improvement team will include consideration of all the following factors, except:

a. Define
b. Measure
c. Analyze
d. Communicate

A

Communicate

Define
b. Measure
c. Analyze
Improve
Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Y-axis:

a. Horizontal, abscissa and dependent
b. Horizontal, abscissa and independent
c. Vertical, ordinate and dependent
d. Vertical, ordinate and independent

A

Vertical, ordinate and dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the SI unit for electric current?

a. Ampere
b. Horsepower
c. Watts
d. Kilowatts

A

Ampere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Identify the type of quality control chart illustrated below:

BELL SHAPE

a. Gaussian curve
b. Youden/Twin plot
c. Cumulative sum graph
d. Shewhart Levey-Jennings chart

A

Gaussian curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

It is used to compare results obtained on high and low control serum from different laboratories.

a. Gaussian curve
b. Youden/Twin plot
c. Cumulative sum graph
d. Shewhart Levey-Jennings chart

A

Youden/Twin plot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Point of care testing:

  1. Near-patient testing
  2. Alternate site testing
  3. Bedside testing
  4. Decentralized testing

0/1
a. 1only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

POCT can be performed by:

a. Laboratory staff
b. Diabetic patients
c. Anesthesiologist
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

It is formed by control values that distribute themselves on one side or either side of the mean for six consecutive days

a. Trend
b. Shift
c. Outliers
d. None of the above

A

Shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A pair of medical decision points that span the limits of results expected for a defined healthy individuals.

a. Reference interval
b. Standard values
c. Pathological values
d. Borderline values

A

Reference interval

establish: 120-700 study indiv.
Verify: 20 study indiv.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Any accidents involving personal injuries, even minor ones, should be reported immediately to a:

a. OSHA
b. Supervisor
c. Laboratory Staff
d. Laboratory Aide

A

Supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

It consists of combustible chemicals or metals, such as sodium or magnesium and are extinguished with highly specialized or bulk materials.

a. Class A fires
b. Class B fires
c. Class C fires
d. Class D fires

A

Class D fires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is used to calibrate pH meter?

a. Buffers
b. Tap water
c. Distilled water
d. Acid

A

Buffers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

It refers empirically to the hardware, software and connectivity designed to perform data management functions.

a. Information System
b. Database
c. Network
d. RAM

A

Information System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Conversion factor of Bilirubin from mg/dL to μmol/L.

a. 1
b. 0.25
c. 12.9
d. 17.1

A

17.1

12.9 - THYROXINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Colligative properties (OSMOLALITY) of the solution include all of the following, except:

a. Boiling point, freezing point
b. pH
c. Osmotic pressure
d. Vapor pressure

A

pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

It is based on fragmentation and ionization of molecules using a suitable source of energy.

a. Mass Spectroscopy
b. Liquid Chromatography
c. Paper Chromatography
d. Ion Exchange Chromatography

A

Mass Spectroscopy

GC/MS - Confirmatory
MS/MS - newborn screening (IEM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A fluorescent substance absorbs light of one wavelength and emits light of:

0/1
a. Longer wavelength and lower energy
b. Longer wavelength and higher energy
c. Shorter wavelength and lower energy
d. Shorter wavelength and higher energy

A

Longer wavelength and lower energy

LOLO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

All of the following statements about fluorometry, except:

a. Fluorometry is more sensitive than spectrophotometry
b. Both excitation and emission spectra are characteristic of the analyte
c. Fluorescence is directly proportional to temperature
d. Unsaturated cyclic molecules are often fluorescent

A

Fluorescence is directly proportional to temperature

“INVERSELY”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The process by which fluorescence of an analyte is reduced due to the excited molecule losing some of its energy by interacting with other substances in a solution is known as:

a. Ionization
b. Quenching
c. Phosphorescence
d. Self-absorption

A

Quenching

false decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

It states that the concentration of the unknown substance is directly proportional to the absorbed light and inversely proportional to the amount of transmitted light.

a. Beer’s law
b. Faraday’s law
c. Nernst equation
d. Ilkovic equation

A

Beer’s law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Interference in atomic absorption spectrophotometry caused by differences in viscosity is called:

a. Absorption interference
b. Matrix effect
c. Ionization interference
d. Quenching

A

Matrix effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following Flame Emission Photometry result is correctly matched?

a. Sodium – Violet
b. Potassium – Red
c. Magnesium – Blue
d. Lithium - Yellow

A

Magnesium – Blue

YeS is the (Yellow-sodium)
ReaL (Red-Lithium)
ViP (Violet-Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When measuring K+ with an ion-selective electrode by means of liquid ion-exchange membrane, what antibiotic will be incorporated into the membrane?

a. Monactin
b. Nonactin
c. Streptomycin
d. Valinomycin

A

Valinomycin

Monactin & Nonactin (Ammonium)

Glass (Sodium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The anion gap is useful as an inexpensive measure of quality control for which of the following analytes?

a. Blood gas analyses
b. Sodium, potassium, chloride and total carbon dioxide
c. Calcium, phosphorus and magnesium
d. AST, ALT, GGT and ALP

A

Sodium, potassium, chloride and total carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Centrifugation of the sample accelerates the process of separating the plasma and cells. Specimens should be centrifuged for approximately ___ minutes at an RCF of 1,000 g to 2,000 g but should avoid mechanical destruction of red cells that can result in hemoglobin released, called hemolysis

a. 10 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 30 minutes

A

10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Sample should be analyzed with ___ hours; to minimize the effects of evaporation, samples should be properly capped and kept away from areas of rapid airflow, light and heat

a. 4 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours

A

4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

It is the most popular and versatile analyzer and capable of running multiple tests one sample at a time.

a. Automatic clinical analysis
b. Continuous flow analysis
c. Centrifugal analysis
d. Discrete analysis

A

Discrete analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

An instrument wherein any test can be performed on any sample in any sequence

a. Batch testing
b. Parallel testing
c. Random access testing
d. Sequential testing

A

Random access testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Evacuated tubes are stored at cold temperature:

a. Decrease in draw volume
b. Increase in draw volume
c. Variable effects
d. No effect

A

Increase in draw volume

inversely proportional also in altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which needle gauge is considered as the standard for venipuncture?

a. 21-gauge
b. 22-gauge
c. 23-gauge
d. 25-gauge

A

21-gauge
green, 1 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

According to CLSI, _________ is the recommended blood culture site disinfectant for infants 2 months and older and patients with iodine sensitivity.

a. 70% alcohol
b. Iodophor
c. Chlorhexidine gluconate
d. Zephiran chloride

A

Chlorhexidine gluconate

NO IODINE SENSITIVITY -70% alcohol & Iodophor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

10% contamination with 5% dextrose will increase the glucose in a blood sample by ___ mg/dL or more.

a. 100 mg/dL or more
b. 200 mg/dL or more
c. 300 mg/dL or more
d. 500 mg/dL or more

A

500 mg/dL or more

44
Q

Low temperature storage prior to testing will cause:

a. Decreased LD4, LD5 and ALP
b. Decreased LD4 and LD5, increased ALP
c. Increased LD4, LD5 and ALP
d. Increased LD4 and LD5, Increased ALP

A

Decreased LD4 and LD5, increased ALP

Low
Angat

45
Q

Which type of blood sample is used in electrophoresis?

a. Serum
b. Plasma
c. Whole blood
d. Packed red blood cells

A

Serum

fibrinogen in plasma can cause beta-gamma bridge (cirrhosis)

46
Q

Glucose concentration that will show observable symptoms of hypoglycemia:

a. 100 to 120 mg/dL
b. 90 to 110 mg/dL
c. 70 to 80 mg/dL
d. 50 to 55 mg/dL

A

50 to 55 mg/dL

47
Q

No recirculation; total exhaust to the outside through a HEPA filter.

a. I
b. I, B2
c. II, A1
d. II, A2

A

I, B2

48
Q

Similar to II, A1, but has 100 lfm intake air velocity and plenums are under negative pressure to room; exhaust air can be ducted to the outside through a canopy unit.

a. I
b. I, B2
c. II, A1
d. II, A2

A

II, A2

49
Q

Which of the following is considered a lipid?

a. Chylomicrons
b. Cholesterol
c. LDL
d. HDL

A

Cholesterol

50
Q

Which of the following would be most adversely affected by a non-fasting sample?

a. HDL
b. LDL
c. Cholesterol
d. Triglycerides

A

Triglycerides

51
Q

A measure of average blood glucose level both in fasting and non-fasting state:

a. 3-hour OGTT
b. Random blood sugar
c. Glycated hemoglobin
d. 2-hour post prandial blood sugar

A

Glycated hemoglobin

52
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests is the best marker to detect patients with diabetes who are at risk for developing diabetic nephropathy?

a. Creatinine
b. BUN
c. Microalbuminuria
d. Glucose

A

Microalbuminuria

(small conc. of albumin in urine, where albumin should be in blood it is not seen in urine due to shield of negativity)

52
Q

Glucose is metabolized at room temperature at a rate of ___ mg/dL per hour

a. 2 mg/dL per hour
b. 3 mg/dL per hour
c. 5 mg/dL per hour
d. 7 mg/dL per hour

A

7 mg/dL per hour

2 mg/dL per hour - Ref. temp.

” 7 rooms, 2 ref”

53
Q

It is usually requested during insulin shock and hyperglycemic ketonic coma.

a. RBS
b. FBS
c. Glycated Hemoglobin
d. OGTT

A

RBS

53
Q

Which of the biochemical processes below is promoted by insulin?

a. Glycogenolysis
b. Gluconeogenesis
c. Esterification of Cholesterol
d. Uptake of Glucose by cells

A

Uptake of Glucose by cells

53
Q

Gestational diabetes apparently arises when the extra metabolic demands of the fetus put stress on the ability of the mother to produce adequate amount of insulin for proper glucose utilization. A large percentage of patients develop diabetes within:

a. 2 to 3 years
b. 5 to 10 years
c. 10 to 15 years
d. 15 to 20 years

A

5 to 10 years

54
Q

Increased cholesterol is seen in the following condition/s:

  1. Biliary cirrhosis
  2. Nephrotic syndrome
  3. Alcoholism
  4. Hyperthyroidism

a. 1only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

1, 2 and 3

Hyperthyroidism (increase T3,T4 - digest/catabolize cholesterol )

55
Q

Which of the following is not associated with insulin?

a. Synthesized from proinsulin
b. Synthesized by beta cells in the pancreas
c. C-peptide is the active form
d. Two-chain polypeptide

A

C-peptide is the active form

must be inactive

56
Q

Increased triglyceride is seen in the following condition/s:

  1. Alcoholism
  2. Nephrotic syndrome
  3. Pancreatitis
  4. Hypothyroidism

a. 1only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

1, 2, 3 and 4

57
Q

A plasma glucose result is 100 mg/dL. The corresponding glucose in whole blood would be approximate:

a. 58 mg/dL
b. 87 mg/dL
c. 98 mg/dL
d. 114 mg/dL

A

87 mg/dL

12-15% lower than the plasma, where RBC and WBC uses the glucose

58
Q

Which test will best distinguish Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus from Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?

a. FBS
b. Glycated Hemoglobin
c. Fructosamine
d. C-peptide test

A

C-peptide test

59
Q

Gestational Diabetes Mellitus is diagnosed if ____ of the three criteria is met.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

1

60
Q

The reference method for quantification of lipoproteins:

a. Ultracentrifugation
b. Electrophoresis
c. Chemical precipitation
d. Immunoassays

A

Ultracentrifugation

61
Q

Acceptable CV for HDL-c/LDL-c:

a. ≤ 2%
b. ≤ 3%
c. ≤ 4%
d. ≤ 5%

A

≤ 4%

cholesTHREErol
triglyceFIVE

62
Q

Migration of lipoproteins from the origin to the anode:

a. Chylomicrons - LDL - VLDL - HDL
b. Chylomicrons - VLDL - LDL - HDL
c. HDL - VLDL - LDL - Chylomicrons
d. HDL - LDL- VLDL - Chylomicrons

A

Chylomicrons - LDL - VLDL - HDL

63
Q

What is the CDC reference method for Triglyceride?

a. Abell, Levy and Brodie method
b. Modified Van Handel Zilversmith method
c. GC-MS
d. TLC

A

GC-MS

64
Q

Exogenous triglycerides are transported in the plasma in which of the following forms?

1/1
a. LDL
b. Chylomicrons

c. VLDL
d. HDL

A

Chylomicrons

65
Q

An abnormal lipoprotein found in patients with obstructive biliary disease:

a. Beta VLDL
b. LpX
c. Lp(a)
d. LDL

A

LpX

65
Q

An abnormal LDL lipoprotein, also known as the “sinking prebeta lipoprotein”, associated with a higher risk for atherosclerosis:

a. Beta VLDL
b. LpX
c. Lp(a)
d. LDL

A

Lp(a)

66
Q

Also known as Neutral Fat:

a. Triglyceride
b. Chylomicrons
c. LDL
d. HDL

A

Triglyceride

67
Q

Negative risk factor for HDL-c:

a. <40 mg/dL
b. >40 mg/dL
c. ≤60 mg/dL
d. ≥60 mg/dL

A

≥60 mg/dL
PROTECTIVE RISK

68
Q

Variants demonstrate a wide of variety of cellular interactions including roles in cell adhesion, tissue differentiation, growth, and wound healing.

a. Fibronectin
b. Adiponectin
c. Haptoglobin
d. Transferrin

A

Fibronectin

68
Q

This protein appears in the urine when reabsorption is incomplete because proximal tubular damage as seen in acute kidney injury:

a. Ceruloplasmin
b. Alpha₂ macroglobulin
c. Beta₂ microglobulin

d. Prealbumin

A

Beta₂ microglobulin

69
Q

Best specimen for B-type natriuretic peptide test:

a. EDTA plasma
b. Heparinized plasma
c. Fasting serum
d. EDTA whole blood

A

Heparinized plasma
marker of CHF

70
Q

Negative acute phase reactant:

a. Transferrin
b. Alpha₁-antitrypsin
c. Alpha₁-antichymotrypsin
d. Complement

A

Transferrin

also ALBUMIN

71
Q

Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with an elevated level of total protein?

a. Glomerular disease
b. Starvation
c. Liver failure
d. Malignancy

A

Malignancy

72
Q

In which of the following conditions would a normal level of myoglobin be expected?

a. Myocardial infarction
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Renal failure
d. Crushing trauma received in a car accident

A

Multiple myeloma

73
Q

In panhepatic cirrhosis, there is destruction of more than ___ of liver tissue, with no regeneration of all damaged liver tissue

a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. 80%

A

80%

74
Q

It is an early indicator of Acute Kidney Injury.

a. Cystatin C
b. Creatinine
c. Myoglobin
d. Troponin T

A

Cystatin C

75
Q

The plasma protein mainly responsible for maintaining colloidal osmotic pressure in vivo is ____.

a. Hemoglobin
b. Albumin
c. Haptoglobin
d. Fibrinogen

A

Albumin
also Sodium

Oncotic pressure - albumin
Osmotic pressure - albumin/ sodium

76
Q

In serum protein electrophoresis, when a buffer of pH 8.6 is employed, what protein fraction will migrate the fastest toward the anode?

1/1
a. Albumin

b. Alpha-globulin
c. Beta-globulin
d. Gamma-globulin

A

Albumin

77
Q

At pH 8.6, proteins are _____ charged and migrate toward the _____

1/1
a. Negatively, anode
b. Positively, cathode
c. Positively, anode
d. Negatively, cathode

A

Negatively, anode

78
Q

Which of the following renal conditions is associated with a recent Group A beta hemolytic Streptococcus infection?

1/1
a. Kidney obstruction
b. Acute renal failure
c. Uremic syndrome
d. Acute glomerulonephritis

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

79
Q

In which of the following conditions does no activity of glucoronyl transferase result in increased unconjugated bilirubin and kernicterus in neonates and eventual death within 18 months?

a. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
b. Physiologic jaundice of the newborn
c. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
d. Gilbert’s syndrome

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome

80
Q

Lower levels of _____ correlate with an increased risk of heart disease, type 2 diabetes, metabolic syndrome and obesity.

1/1
a. Crosslinked C-telopeptide
b. Fibronectin
c. Adiponectin

d. Beta trace proteinDuring chemotherapy for leukemia, which of the following analytes would most likely be elevated in the blood?

1/1
a. Uric acid

b. Urea
c. Creatinine
d. Ammonia

A

Uric acid

81
Q

Increased BUN is seen in the following condition/s:

  1. Chronic renal disease
  2. Poor nutrition
  3. High protein diet
  4. Hepatic disease

a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

1 and 3

82
Q
A
83
Q

In which of the following types of cells does the conjugation of bilirubin take place?

1/1
a. Kupffer cells
b. Hepatocytes
c. Macrophages
d. Phagocytic cells

A

Hepatocytes

84
Q

Which of the following enzymes is most useful in establishing the hepatic origin of an elevated serum alkaline phosphatase?

a. 5′-Nucleotidase
b. ALT
c. AST
d. Lactate dehydrogenase

A

5′-Nucleotidase

85
Q
A
85
Q
A
86
Q
A
87
Q
A
88
Q
A
89
Q
A
89
Q
A
90
Q
A
91
Q
A
91
Q
A
92
Q
A
93
Q
A
94
Q
A
95
Q
A
96
Q
A
97
Q
A
98
Q
A

CHEM (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions