CC POST EXAM Flashcards
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It is reported that the greatest percentage of laboratory errors occur during the ______ phase.
a. Preanalytical
b. Analytical
c. Post-analytical
d. All of the above
Preanalytical
Critical value reporting, turnaround time, and clinician satisfaction are part of what phase:
a. Preanalytical phase
b. Analytical phase
c. Post-analytical phase
d. All of the above
Post-analytical phase
The chain begins when the sample is collected and terminates with the person who performs the actual analysis. All individuals who handle the sample must document the time and date when they had the sample in their control, as well the particular process they carried out.
a. Chain of infection
b. Chain of evidence
c. Chain of custody
d. Both B and C
d. Both B and C
Traditional example of quality control:
a. Continuous quality improvement
b. Error-free quality
c. Quality as expense
d. Quality as means to lower cost
Quality as expense
Substances that take up water on exposure to atmospheric conditions are called.
a. Hydrate
b. Hygroscopic
c. Amphoteric
d. Amphipathic
Hygroscopic
Which of the following should not be stored together with oxidizers?
a. Flammable liquids
b. Mineral acids
c. Caustics
d. Air-reactive substances
Caustics
It refers to the difference between the target value and the assay value. It exists when there is a constant difference between the comparative method and the test method regardless of the concentration.
a. Random error
b. Constant systematic error
c. Proportional systematic error
d. Clerical error
Constant systematic error
It results in greater deviation from the target value due to higher sample concentration. It exists when the difference between the test method values is proportional to the analyte concentration.
a. Random error
b. Constant systematic error
c. Proportional systematic error
d. Clerical error
Proportional systematic error
The methodology for a Lean six sigma quality improvement team will include consideration of all the following factors, except:
a. Define
b. Measure
c. Analyze
d. Communicate
Communicate
Define
b. Measure
c. Analyze
Improve
Control
Y-axis:
a. Horizontal, abscissa and dependent
b. Horizontal, abscissa and independent
c. Vertical, ordinate and dependent
d. Vertical, ordinate and independent
Vertical, ordinate and dependent
What is the SI unit for electric current?
a. Ampere
b. Horsepower
c. Watts
d. Kilowatts
Ampere
Identify the type of quality control chart illustrated below:
BELL SHAPE
a. Gaussian curve
b. Youden/Twin plot
c. Cumulative sum graph
d. Shewhart Levey-Jennings chart
Gaussian curve
It is used to compare results obtained on high and low control serum from different laboratories.
a. Gaussian curve
b. Youden/Twin plot
c. Cumulative sum graph
d. Shewhart Levey-Jennings chart
Youden/Twin plot
Point of care testing:
- Near-patient testing
- Alternate site testing
- Bedside testing
- Decentralized testing
0/1
a. 1only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
POCT can be performed by:
a. Laboratory staff
b. Diabetic patients
c. Anesthesiologist
d. All of the above
All of the above
It is formed by control values that distribute themselves on one side or either side of the mean for six consecutive days
a. Trend
b. Shift
c. Outliers
d. None of the above
Shift
A pair of medical decision points that span the limits of results expected for a defined healthy individuals.
a. Reference interval
b. Standard values
c. Pathological values
d. Borderline values
Reference interval
establish: 120-700 study indiv.
Verify: 20 study indiv.
Any accidents involving personal injuries, even minor ones, should be reported immediately to a:
a. OSHA
b. Supervisor
c. Laboratory Staff
d. Laboratory Aide
Supervisor
It consists of combustible chemicals or metals, such as sodium or magnesium and are extinguished with highly specialized or bulk materials.
a. Class A fires
b. Class B fires
c. Class C fires
d. Class D fires
Class D fires
Which of the following is used to calibrate pH meter?
a. Buffers
b. Tap water
c. Distilled water
d. Acid
Buffers
It refers empirically to the hardware, software and connectivity designed to perform data management functions.
a. Information System
b. Database
c. Network
d. RAM
Information System
Conversion factor of Bilirubin from mg/dL to μmol/L.
a. 1
b. 0.25
c. 12.9
d. 17.1
17.1
12.9 - THYROXINE
Colligative properties (OSMOLALITY) of the solution include all of the following, except:
a. Boiling point, freezing point
b. pH
c. Osmotic pressure
d. Vapor pressure
pH
It is based on fragmentation and ionization of molecules using a suitable source of energy.
a. Mass Spectroscopy
b. Liquid Chromatography
c. Paper Chromatography
d. Ion Exchange Chromatography
Mass Spectroscopy
GC/MS - Confirmatory
MS/MS - newborn screening (IEM)
A fluorescent substance absorbs light of one wavelength and emits light of:
0/1
a. Longer wavelength and lower energy
b. Longer wavelength and higher energy
c. Shorter wavelength and lower energy
d. Shorter wavelength and higher energy
Longer wavelength and lower energy
LOLO
All of the following statements about fluorometry, except:
a. Fluorometry is more sensitive than spectrophotometry
b. Both excitation and emission spectra are characteristic of the analyte
c. Fluorescence is directly proportional to temperature
d. Unsaturated cyclic molecules are often fluorescent
Fluorescence is directly proportional to temperature
“INVERSELY”
The process by which fluorescence of an analyte is reduced due to the excited molecule losing some of its energy by interacting with other substances in a solution is known as:
a. Ionization
b. Quenching
c. Phosphorescence
d. Self-absorption
Quenching
false decrease
It states that the concentration of the unknown substance is directly proportional to the absorbed light and inversely proportional to the amount of transmitted light.
a. Beer’s law
b. Faraday’s law
c. Nernst equation
d. Ilkovic equation
Beer’s law
Interference in atomic absorption spectrophotometry caused by differences in viscosity is called:
a. Absorption interference
b. Matrix effect
c. Ionization interference
d. Quenching
Matrix effect
Which of the following Flame Emission Photometry result is correctly matched?
a. Sodium – Violet
b. Potassium – Red
c. Magnesium – Blue
d. Lithium - Yellow
Magnesium – Blue
YeS is the (Yellow-sodium)
ReaL (Red-Lithium)
ViP (Violet-Potassium
When measuring K+ with an ion-selective electrode by means of liquid ion-exchange membrane, what antibiotic will be incorporated into the membrane?
a. Monactin
b. Nonactin
c. Streptomycin
d. Valinomycin
Valinomycin
Monactin & Nonactin (Ammonium)
Glass (Sodium)
The anion gap is useful as an inexpensive measure of quality control for which of the following analytes?
a. Blood gas analyses
b. Sodium, potassium, chloride and total carbon dioxide
c. Calcium, phosphorus and magnesium
d. AST, ALT, GGT and ALP
Sodium, potassium, chloride and total carbon dioxide
Centrifugation of the sample accelerates the process of separating the plasma and cells. Specimens should be centrifuged for approximately ___ minutes at an RCF of 1,000 g to 2,000 g but should avoid mechanical destruction of red cells that can result in hemoglobin released, called hemolysis
a. 10 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 30 minutes
10 minutes
Sample should be analyzed with ___ hours; to minimize the effects of evaporation, samples should be properly capped and kept away from areas of rapid airflow, light and heat
a. 4 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
4 hours
It is the most popular and versatile analyzer and capable of running multiple tests one sample at a time.
a. Automatic clinical analysis
b. Continuous flow analysis
c. Centrifugal analysis
d. Discrete analysis
Discrete analysis
An instrument wherein any test can be performed on any sample in any sequence
a. Batch testing
b. Parallel testing
c. Random access testing
d. Sequential testing
Random access testing
Evacuated tubes are stored at cold temperature:
a. Decrease in draw volume
b. Increase in draw volume
c. Variable effects
d. No effect
Increase in draw volume
inversely proportional also in altitude
Which needle gauge is considered as the standard for venipuncture?
a. 21-gauge
b. 22-gauge
c. 23-gauge
d. 25-gauge
21-gauge
green, 1 inch
According to CLSI, _________ is the recommended blood culture site disinfectant for infants 2 months and older and patients with iodine sensitivity.
a. 70% alcohol
b. Iodophor
c. Chlorhexidine gluconate
d. Zephiran chloride
Chlorhexidine gluconate
NO IODINE SENSITIVITY -70% alcohol & Iodophor
10% contamination with 5% dextrose will increase the glucose in a blood sample by ___ mg/dL or more.
a. 100 mg/dL or more
b. 200 mg/dL or more
c. 300 mg/dL or more
d. 500 mg/dL or more
500 mg/dL or more
Low temperature storage prior to testing will cause:
a. Decreased LD4, LD5 and ALP
b. Decreased LD4 and LD5, increased ALP
c. Increased LD4, LD5 and ALP
d. Increased LD4 and LD5, Increased ALP
Decreased LD4 and LD5, increased ALP
Low
Angat
Which type of blood sample is used in electrophoresis?
a. Serum
b. Plasma
c. Whole blood
d. Packed red blood cells
Serum
fibrinogen in plasma can cause beta-gamma bridge (cirrhosis)
Glucose concentration that will show observable symptoms of hypoglycemia:
a. 100 to 120 mg/dL
b. 90 to 110 mg/dL
c. 70 to 80 mg/dL
d. 50 to 55 mg/dL
50 to 55 mg/dL
No recirculation; total exhaust to the outside through a HEPA filter.
a. I
b. I, B2
c. II, A1
d. II, A2
I, B2
Similar to II, A1, but has 100 lfm intake air velocity and plenums are under negative pressure to room; exhaust air can be ducted to the outside through a canopy unit.
a. I
b. I, B2
c. II, A1
d. II, A2
II, A2
Which of the following is considered a lipid?
a. Chylomicrons
b. Cholesterol
c. LDL
d. HDL
Cholesterol
Which of the following would be most adversely affected by a non-fasting sample?
a. HDL
b. LDL
c. Cholesterol
d. Triglycerides
Triglycerides
A measure of average blood glucose level both in fasting and non-fasting state:
a. 3-hour OGTT
b. Random blood sugar
c. Glycated hemoglobin
d. 2-hour post prandial blood sugar
Glycated hemoglobin
Which of the following laboratory tests is the best marker to detect patients with diabetes who are at risk for developing diabetic nephropathy?
a. Creatinine
b. BUN
c. Microalbuminuria
d. Glucose
Microalbuminuria
(small conc. of albumin in urine, where albumin should be in blood it is not seen in urine due to shield of negativity)
Glucose is metabolized at room temperature at a rate of ___ mg/dL per hour
a. 2 mg/dL per hour
b. 3 mg/dL per hour
c. 5 mg/dL per hour
d. 7 mg/dL per hour
7 mg/dL per hour
2 mg/dL per hour - Ref. temp.
” 7 rooms, 2 ref”
It is usually requested during insulin shock and hyperglycemic ketonic coma.
a. RBS
b. FBS
c. Glycated Hemoglobin
d. OGTT
RBS
Which of the biochemical processes below is promoted by insulin?
a. Glycogenolysis
b. Gluconeogenesis
c. Esterification of Cholesterol
d. Uptake of Glucose by cells
Uptake of Glucose by cells
Gestational diabetes apparently arises when the extra metabolic demands of the fetus put stress on the ability of the mother to produce adequate amount of insulin for proper glucose utilization. A large percentage of patients develop diabetes within:
a. 2 to 3 years
b. 5 to 10 years
c. 10 to 15 years
d. 15 to 20 years
5 to 10 years
Increased cholesterol is seen in the following condition/s:
- Biliary cirrhosis
- Nephrotic syndrome
- Alcoholism
- Hyperthyroidism
a. 1only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 3
Hyperthyroidism (increase T3,T4 - digest/catabolize cholesterol )
Which of the following is not associated with insulin?
a. Synthesized from proinsulin
b. Synthesized by beta cells in the pancreas
c. C-peptide is the active form
d. Two-chain polypeptide
C-peptide is the active form
must be inactive
Increased triglyceride is seen in the following condition/s:
- Alcoholism
- Nephrotic syndrome
- Pancreatitis
- Hypothyroidism
a. 1only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4
A plasma glucose result is 100 mg/dL. The corresponding glucose in whole blood would be approximate:
a. 58 mg/dL
b. 87 mg/dL
c. 98 mg/dL
d. 114 mg/dL
87 mg/dL
12-15% lower than the plasma, where RBC and WBC uses the glucose
Which test will best distinguish Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus from Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?
a. FBS
b. Glycated Hemoglobin
c. Fructosamine
d. C-peptide test
C-peptide test
Gestational Diabetes Mellitus is diagnosed if ____ of the three criteria is met.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
1
The reference method for quantification of lipoproteins:
a. Ultracentrifugation
b. Electrophoresis
c. Chemical precipitation
d. Immunoassays
Ultracentrifugation
Acceptable CV for HDL-c/LDL-c:
a. ≤ 2%
b. ≤ 3%
c. ≤ 4%
d. ≤ 5%
≤ 4%
cholesTHREErol
triglyceFIVE
Migration of lipoproteins from the origin to the anode:
a. Chylomicrons - LDL - VLDL - HDL
b. Chylomicrons - VLDL - LDL - HDL
c. HDL - VLDL - LDL - Chylomicrons
d. HDL - LDL- VLDL - Chylomicrons
Chylomicrons - LDL - VLDL - HDL
What is the CDC reference method for Triglyceride?
a. Abell, Levy and Brodie method
b. Modified Van Handel Zilversmith method
c. GC-MS
d. TLC
GC-MS
Exogenous triglycerides are transported in the plasma in which of the following forms?
1/1
a. LDL
b. Chylomicrons
c. VLDL
d. HDL
Chylomicrons
An abnormal lipoprotein found in patients with obstructive biliary disease:
a. Beta VLDL
b. LpX
c. Lp(a)
d. LDL
LpX
An abnormal LDL lipoprotein, also known as the “sinking prebeta lipoprotein”, associated with a higher risk for atherosclerosis:
a. Beta VLDL
b. LpX
c. Lp(a)
d. LDL
Lp(a)
Also known as Neutral Fat:
a. Triglyceride
b. Chylomicrons
c. LDL
d. HDL
Triglyceride
Negative risk factor for HDL-c:
a. <40 mg/dL
b. >40 mg/dL
c. ≤60 mg/dL
d. ≥60 mg/dL
≥60 mg/dL
PROTECTIVE RISK
Variants demonstrate a wide of variety of cellular interactions including roles in cell adhesion, tissue differentiation, growth, and wound healing.
a. Fibronectin
b. Adiponectin
c. Haptoglobin
d. Transferrin
Fibronectin
This protein appears in the urine when reabsorption is incomplete because proximal tubular damage as seen in acute kidney injury:
a. Ceruloplasmin
b. Alpha₂ macroglobulin
c. Beta₂ microglobulin
d. Prealbumin
Beta₂ microglobulin
Best specimen for B-type natriuretic peptide test:
a. EDTA plasma
b. Heparinized plasma
c. Fasting serum
d. EDTA whole blood
Heparinized plasma
marker of CHF
Negative acute phase reactant:
a. Transferrin
b. Alpha₁-antitrypsin
c. Alpha₁-antichymotrypsin
d. Complement
Transferrin
also ALBUMIN
Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with an elevated level of total protein?
a. Glomerular disease
b. Starvation
c. Liver failure
d. Malignancy
Malignancy
In which of the following conditions would a normal level of myoglobin be expected?
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Renal failure
d. Crushing trauma received in a car accident
Multiple myeloma
In panhepatic cirrhosis, there is destruction of more than ___ of liver tissue, with no regeneration of all damaged liver tissue
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. 80%
80%
It is an early indicator of Acute Kidney Injury.
a. Cystatin C
b. Creatinine
c. Myoglobin
d. Troponin T
Cystatin C
The plasma protein mainly responsible for maintaining colloidal osmotic pressure in vivo is ____.
a. Hemoglobin
b. Albumin
c. Haptoglobin
d. Fibrinogen
Albumin
also Sodium
Oncotic pressure - albumin
Osmotic pressure - albumin/ sodium
In serum protein electrophoresis, when a buffer of pH 8.6 is employed, what protein fraction will migrate the fastest toward the anode?
1/1
a. Albumin
b. Alpha-globulin
c. Beta-globulin
d. Gamma-globulin
Albumin
At pH 8.6, proteins are _____ charged and migrate toward the _____
1/1
a. Negatively, anode
b. Positively, cathode
c. Positively, anode
d. Negatively, cathode
Negatively, anode
Which of the following renal conditions is associated with a recent Group A beta hemolytic Streptococcus infection?
1/1
a. Kidney obstruction
b. Acute renal failure
c. Uremic syndrome
d. Acute glomerulonephritis
Acute glomerulonephritis
In which of the following conditions does no activity of glucoronyl transferase result in increased unconjugated bilirubin and kernicterus in neonates and eventual death within 18 months?
a. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
b. Physiologic jaundice of the newborn
c. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
d. Gilbert’s syndrome
Crigler-Najjar syndrome
Lower levels of _____ correlate with an increased risk of heart disease, type 2 diabetes, metabolic syndrome and obesity.
1/1
a. Crosslinked C-telopeptide
b. Fibronectin
c. Adiponectin
d. Beta trace proteinDuring chemotherapy for leukemia, which of the following analytes would most likely be elevated in the blood?
1/1
a. Uric acid
b. Urea
c. Creatinine
d. Ammonia
Uric acid
Increased BUN is seen in the following condition/s:
- Chronic renal disease
- Poor nutrition
- High protein diet
- Hepatic disease
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
1 and 3
In which of the following types of cells does the conjugation of bilirubin take place?
1/1
a. Kupffer cells
b. Hepatocytes
c. Macrophages
d. Phagocytic cells
Hepatocytes
Which of the following enzymes is most useful in establishing the hepatic origin of an elevated serum alkaline phosphatase?
a. 5′-Nucleotidase
b. ALT
c. AST
d. Lactate dehydrogenase
5′-Nucleotidase
