CC (MJ) Part 3 Flashcards

1
Q

LDH

a. Oxidoreductase
b. Transferase
c. Hydrolase
d. Lyase

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Aldolase

a. Oxidoreductase
b. Transferase
c. Hydrolase
d. Lyase

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AMS

a. Oxidoreductase
b. Transferase
c. Hydrolase
d. Lyase

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CK

a. Oxidoreductase
b. Transferase
c. Hydrolase
d. Lyase

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

AST, ALT, GGT

a. Oxidoreductase
b. Transferase
c. Hydrolase
d. Lyase

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ACP and ALP

a. Oxidoreductase
b. Transferase
c. Hydrolase
d. Lyase

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Glucose oxidase, G6PD

a. Oxidoreductase
b. Transferase
c. Hydrolase
d. Lyase

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

LPS

a. Oxidoreductase
b. Transferase
c. Hydrolase
d. Lyase

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cofactors of Amylase includes:

a. Mg
b. Ca
c. Cl
d. Na

A

b and c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cofactors of Ck includes:

a. Mg
b. Ca
c. Cl
d. Na

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Inacivation of CK can partially be revered by addition of sulfhydryl compounds such as:

a. Lactase
b. N-acetyl-b-phenylinediamine Dihydrochloride
c. Alkaline picrate
d. N-acetylcysteine

A

d

Use also in digestion of sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Methods of enzymatic reactions:

The reaction proceeds for designated time, after which the reaction stopped

a. Fixed reaction time method
b. Continuous monitoring

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Methods of enzymatic reactions:

Kinetic assay where i involves multiple measurement

a. Fixed reaction time method
b. Continuous monitoring

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Formula for michaelis menten hypothesis?

A

V = V max (s)/ Km + (S)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Reaction rate is directly proportional to the substrate concentration

a. First order
b. Zero order

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Best to measure enzyme where the reaction rate depends only on the enzyme concentration

a. First order
b. Zero order

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Enzymes increase in Acute myocardial infarction:

a. CK MB
b. AST
c. LDH
d. ALT
e. AST
f. Amylase
g. Lipase

A

abc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Enzymes increase in Acute pancreatitis

a. CK MB
b. AST
c. LDH
d. ALT
e. AST
f. Amylase
g. Lipase

A

fg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Enzymes increase inHepatic disease

a. CK MB
b. AST
c. LDH
d. ALT
e. AST
f. Amylase
g. Lipase

A

de

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hepatobilliary disease

a.GGT
b. ALP
c. ACP
d. Renine
e. ACE

A

ab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Blood pressure regulation?
a.GGT
b. ALP
c. ACP
d. Renine
e. ACE

A

de

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Medico-legal evaluation of rape cases

a.GGT
b. ALP
c. ACP
d. Renine
e. ACE

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Skeletal muscle disorder?

a. Aldolase
b. CK
c. AST
d. LDH

A

all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Greatest amount in Pernicious anemia:

a. CK
b. LDH
c. AST/ALT
d. ALP

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Greatest amount in Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy:

a. CK
b. LDH
c. AST/ALT
d. ALP

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Greatest amount in Paget’s disease

a. CK
b. LDH
c. AST/ALT
d. ALP

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Greatest amount in Acute viral hepatitis

a. CK
b. LDH
c. AST/ALT
d. ALP

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

1st Enzyme to be increased in AMI?

A

CK MB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

1st Marker to be increased in AMI?

A

Myoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In AMI, CK MB Increases after?

A

4-8 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CK MB Pearks at for AMI

A

12 hours -24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

CK MB Normalizes at?

A

2-3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Reference range of CK MB

a. <6% total CK
b. <5% total CK
c. <4% total CK
d. <3% total CK

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cold LAbile LDH?

A

LD 4 and LLD 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

LD FLip occurs in AMI

T or F

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Least organ specific enzyme

A

LDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of choline ester or acetylcholine into acid and choline

a. Cholesterol kinase
b. Esterase
c. Cholinesterase
d. Lipase

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ALP ________ occurs after ingestion of HIGH fat meal

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. No effect

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ALP Fastest toward the anode

a. Liver
b. BOne
c. Placenta
d. Intestine

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Most heat stable

a. Liver
b. BOne
c. Placenta
d. Intestine

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Most heat labile

a. Liver
b. BOne
c. Placenta
d. Intestine

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Inhibited by urea

a. Liver
b. BOne
c. Placenta
d. Intestine

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Substrate for Bower-Comb method?

a. p-nitrophenyl phosphate
b. G6P
c. p-nitrophenyl phosphatase
d. p-nitrophenyl phosphate dehydrgenase

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Reference method for ALP?

A

Bowers Comb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Most specific substrate for prostatic form of acid phosphatase?

a. Thymophthalein monophosphate
b. Thymophthalein diphosphate
c. Thymophthalein triphosphate

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

ALP can be differentiated by these following enzyme that increased in liver but normal in bone related disease

a. All of these
b. GGT
c. 5-nucleotidase
d. Leucine aminopeptidase

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Sensitive marker for alcoholism and hepatobiliary disease

A

GGT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

AMylase that is inhibited by wheat germ lectin?

A

Salivary amylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Decrease in substrate (Starch) Concentration due to amylase activity

a. Saccharogenic
b. Amyloclastic
c. Coupled enzyme reaction
d. Chromogenic
e. Cherry crandall method

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Measures reducing sugas produced by hydrolysis of starch

a. Saccharogenic
b. Amyloclastic
c. Coupled enzyme reaction
d. Chromogenic
e. Cherry crandall method

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Ref method for amylase?

a. Saccharogenic
b. Amyloclastic
c. Coupled enzyme reaction
d. Chromogenic
e. Cherry crandall method

A

e

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Substrate for Cherry crandall method for lipase?

a. Milk
b. Olive oil
c. Triolein
d. Dilein

A

b and c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Lipase is very labile in serum

T or F

A

F

Stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Lipase loss of activity at RM for 1 week or 3 weeks at 4C

T or F

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Major intracellular anion?

A

Phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Major extracellular anion

A

Chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Primary counterion of sodium

a. Potassium
b. Chloride

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Quality control tool for electrolyte testing (ISE)?

A

Anion Gap

59
Q

Analytes contributes in mycocardial rhytm / ECG

A

Potassium, Mg, Calcium

60
Q

Involve in maintaining osmolality, blood volume and electrical neutrality

A

Chloride

61
Q

Principle of Cotlove

a. Amperometric coulometric titration
b. Mercuric titration
c. Hexokinase
d. Ion Selective electrode

A

a

62
Q

Principle of Schales and schales method

Principle of Cotlove

a. Amperometric coulometric titration
b. Mercuric titration
c. Hexokinase
d. Ion Selective electrode

A

b

63
Q

uses Mercuric thiocyante and ferric nitrate

a. Amperometric coulometric titration
b. Mercuric titration
c. Colorimetric
d. Ion Selective electrode

A

c

64
Q

Tetany causes low calcium and magnesium

T or F

A

T

65
Q

Analyte that is reciprocal relationship to calcium?

A

Phosphate

66
Q

Majority of the iron is found in?

A

Hemoglobin

67
Q

First step in photometric iron methods?

a. Reduction
b. Acidification
c. Colorimetry

A

b

ARC

68
Q

Important part of glucose tolerance factor ?

A

Chromium

69
Q

Trace element found in thyroid hormone?

A

Iodine

70
Q

NPN according to concentration

U
A
U
C
C
A

A

Urea
Amino acids
Uric acids
Creatinine
Creatine
Ammonia

71
Q

end product of protein metabolism

A

URea

72
Q

end product of Muscle metabolism

A

Creatinine

73
Q

end product of Purine metabolism

A

Uric acid

74
Q

Term for elevated urea in the blood

A

Azotemia

75
Q

Also known as uremic syndrome, elevatd urea in the blood with renal failure

A

Uremia

76
Q

BUN to creatinine ratio?

A

10:1 - 20:1

77
Q

Purpose of nitroprusside in Bertholot reaction for BUN?

a. Reactant
b. Substrate
c. Catalyst
d. Product

A

c

78
Q

Urea method that is inexpensive but lacks specificity?

a. Colorimetric Endpoint
b. COlorimetric Kinetic
c. DAM
d. A and C
e. B and C

A

d

Also knwon as Fearon method

79
Q

Simplest type of Jaffe reaction?

a. Colorimetric Endpoint
b. COlorimetric Kinetic
c. DAM
d. A and C
e. B and C

A

a

80
Q

More specific and more preferred type of Jaffe?

a. Colorimetric Endpoint
b. COlorimetric Kinetic
c. DAM
d. A and C
e. B and C

A

b

81
Q

Reagent in Jaffe method?

a. NaOH + Picric acid
b. NaOH + Nitric acid
c. Fuller’s earth/Lloyds reagent
d. A and C
e. B and C

A

d

82
Q

NaOH + Picric acid is also known as?

A

Alkaline picrate

83
Q

Purpose of Fuller’s earth and lloyd’s reagent?

a. Absorbent
b. Adsorbent
c. Elution
d. Resorbent

A

b

84
Q

NPN that absorbs light at 293 nm

a. Urea
b. Ammonia
c. Uric acid
d. Creatinine

A

c

85
Q

Method for uric acid that is affected by interference caused by reducing substance?

a. Colorimetric method
b. Enzymatic method (Peroxidase)
c. Direct method
d. Jaffe method

A

b

86
Q

Condition associated with deficiency of Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase?

a. Orange sand in diaper
b. Blue diaper syndrome
c. Hartnup syndrome
d. Lesh-nyhan syndrome

A

a and d

87
Q

Refers to the deposits of uric acid crystals as sodium urates in great toe, ear lobe, and elbow

A

Tophi

88
Q

Reye’s syndome and hepatic coma is associated with elevated levels of ?

a. Urea
b. Ammonia
c. Uric Acid
d. Creatinine

A

b

89
Q

Metabolic function of the kidney is to activate Vit D

T or F

A

T

90
Q

Organs that control acid base balance?

A

Lung and kidney

91
Q

Effect of every 1C of fever on pCo2 and PO2?

a. 3% increased, 7% decreased
b. 3% decreased, 7% increased
c. 7% increased, 3% decreased
d. 7% decreased, 3% increased

A

a

92
Q

Venous blood iis usually _______ units lower than arterial bloood

A

0.03 pH

93
Q

Ratio of bicarbonate to cabonic acid?

A

20:1

94
Q

Changes in Results if a blood gas specimen is exposed to room air?

pH
PO2
PCO2

A

Increased
Increased
Decreased

95
Q

Anticoag choice for blood gas/

a. Heparin in syringe without rubber stopper
b. Heparin in syringe with rubber stopper
c. EDTA in syringe with rubber stopper
d. . EDTA in syringe without rubber stopper

A

b

96
Q

ALP in hyperthyroidism,

a. increased
b. decreased
c. no effect

A

a

97
Q

Cholesterol and TRIGLYCERIDES in hypothyroidism

a. increased
b. decreased
c. no effect

A

a

98
Q

Test analyte that confirms conflicting thyroid results?

a. FT3
b. FT4
c. rT3
d. rT4

A

c

99
Q

rT3 is fomred from the deiodination of T4 in the

a. CSF
b. synovial fluid
c. Blood
d. Tissue

A

c

100
Q

Disease characterized by decreased in TSH, Normal FT3, Increased FT3 and T3

a. Plummer’s disease
b. COngenital hypothyroidism (Cretinism)
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Hyperthyroidism

A

a

101
Q

Hyposecretion of T4 in children
a. Plummer’s disease
b. COngenital hypothyroidism (Cretinism)
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Hyperthyroidism

A

b

102
Q

T3U is directly proportional to T3/T4 and inversely proportional to TBG

T or F

A

T

103
Q

This carries the majority of the thyroid hormone (70-75%)

a. TBG
b. TBPA
c. TBA

A

a

104
Q

Primary source o estradiol?

A

Ovaries

105
Q

Primary source of estriol?

A

Placenta

106
Q

Hormone increased during the 1st trimester of pregnancy and serves as a marker of pregnancy and testicular cancer.

Produced by the placenta

A

hCG

107
Q

Hormones increased in the 2nd and 3rd trimester of pregnancy

a. E3
b. Progesterone
c. Testosteron
d. B and C
e. A and B

A

e

108
Q

Increased hCG may be caused by the following;

a. Down syndrome
b. Choriocarcinoma
c. Molar pregnancy
d. All of the above

A

d

109
Q

Decreased in hCG may be caused by the following:

a. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Down syndrome
c. Patau syndrome
d. Edward syndrome

A

a

110
Q

Trisomy 13

a. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Down syndrome
c. Patau syndrome
d. Edward syndrome

A

c

111
Q

Trisomy 18

a. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Down syndrome
c. Patau syndrome
d. Edward syndrome

A

d

112
Q

Major mineralocorticoid

A

Aldosterone

113
Q

Major glucocorticoid

A

COtisol

114
Q

Vanillylmandelic acid is a metabolite of?

a. Dopamine
b. Catecholamine
c. Cortisol

A

b

115
Q

Homovanilic acid is a metabolie of?

a. Dopamine
b. Catecholamine
c. Cortisol

A

a

116
Q

3 Screening test are usd in the evaluation of patient suspected of having crushing syndrome:

a. 24 hour urinary free cortisol
b. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test
c. Plasma or salivary midnight cortisol
d. AOA

A

d

117
Q

Increase GH during adulthood

a. Gigantism
b. Acromegaly

A

b

118
Q

Increase GH during Childhood

a. Gigantism
b. Acromegaly

A

a

119
Q

Stimuus for ADH release?

A

Hyperosmolar plasma

120
Q

Substance that regulates calcium include:

a. Parathyroid hormone
b. Vit B 12
c. Vit D
d. Calcitonin

A

acd

121
Q

Primary metabolite for serotonin

a. 5-HIAA
b. uric acid
c. Serota acid
d. Urea

A

a

122
Q

Bronchodilator/anti Asthma drug

a. Lithium
b. Theophyline
c. Vancomycin
d. Chloramphenicol

A

b

123
Q

Treatment for manic depression

a. Lithium
b. Theophyline
c. Vancomycin
d. Chloramphenicol

A

a

124
Q

Associated to the red man syndrome

a. Lithium
b. Theophyline
c. Vancomycin
d. Chloramphenicol

A

c

caused by MRSA

125
Q

Antibiotic associated with aplastic anemia

a. Lithium
b. Theophyline
c. Vancomycin
d. Chloramphenicol

A

d

126
Q

Most common type of sedative hypnotics abused?

a. Barbituates and benzodiazepines
b. Alcohol
c. Theophylline and Caffeine
d. Cyclosporine

A

a

127
Q

The following are anticonvulsant except:

a. Valproic acid
b. Carbamazepine
c. Phenytoin
d. Cyclosporine

A

d

128
Q

Cyclosporine is a ?

A

Immnosuppressant

129
Q

Function of digoxin?

A

Cardioactive or anti-arrhythmic drug

130
Q

codeine is what type of drug?

a. Anticonvulsant
b. Anti arrhythmic
c. Immunosupressive
d. Antitussive

A

d

Cough suppressant

131
Q

Specimen collected before the administration of next dose

A

Trough

132
Q

Acetaminophen is toxic to which organ?

A

Liver

133
Q

Trinder’s reaction which uses ferric nitrate which is used in assessment of toxicity with?

A

Salicylate

Aspirin

134
Q

Metabolite of cocaine

a. Cyanide
b. Benzoylecgonine
c. Alpha-9-tetrahydrocannanibol
d. Morphine

A

b

135
Q

Metabolite of marijuana

a. Cyanide
b. Benzoylecgonine
c. Alpha-9-tetrahydrocannanibol
d. Morphine

A

c

136
Q

Metabolite of cocaine

A

b

137
Q

Confirmatory test for drugs?

A

GC MS

138
Q

Odor of garlic, keratinophilic

a. Arsenic
b. Cyanide

A

a

139
Q

Oder of bitter almonds

a. Arsenic
b. Cyanide

A

b

140
Q

Specimen for lead toxicity

a. PRBC
b. Whole blood
c. ALcohol

A

b

141
Q

Mild euphoria

a. 0.01-0.05
b. 0.03-0.12
c. 0.09-0.025
d. 0.18-0.30
e. 0.27-0.40
f. 0.35-0.50

A

b

142
Q

Mental confusion, dizzines, strongly impaired motor

a. 0.01-0.05
b. 0.03-0.12
c. 0.09-0.025
d. 0.18-0.30
e. 0.27-0.40
f. 0.35-0.50

A

d

143
Q

Impaired consioucsness

a. 0.01-0.05
b. 0.03-0.12
c. 0.09-0.025
d. 0.18-0.30
e. 0.27-0.40
f. 0.35-0.50

A

e

144
Q
A