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G4 > CBT Review > Flashcards

CBT Review Flashcards

1
Q

In the AUTO position, when will the strobe lights flash?

A

Only when the main landing gear strut is NOT compressed

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2
Q

If normal electrical power is lost to the aircraft, which interior cockpit light remains active?

A

The right hand dome light

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3
Q

The EMER exit lights switch should be selected to the auto position because…

A

The overhead emergency lights will automatically illuminate with a loss of normal aircraft electrical power

And

the battery pack for the cabin emergency lighting system will be charged

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4
Q

How long does passenger mask operation last?

A

15 minutes

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5
Q

The cabin oxygen mask doors will automatically open when the cabin altitude exceeds what altitude?

A

14,000’

The mask can also be dropped with a manual release too (MRT) if necessary

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6
Q

Where does the crew oxygen come from?

A

A single high pressure cylinder

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7
Q

What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light indicate?

A

The signal to release the oxygen mask doors has be sent, either manually or automatically.

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8
Q

What method is used to supply oxygen flow to the passenger oxygen masks?

A

Chemical generators

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9
Q

After oxygen mask usage, how can normal communication through the headset be restored?

A

By closing the left door of the oxygen mask compartment and pressing the TEST and RESET switch

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10
Q

If the upper display knob was switched to OFF, what would occur?

A

The E/WD display would automatically transfer to the lower display.

-Pushing and holding (max 3 min) the related system page pb, on the ECAM control panel, to temporarily display it in the lower ECAM DU (instead of the engine/warning page)

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11
Q

With the E/WD displayed on the lower screen, how else can you view SD information?

A

Use the ECAM/ND XFR switch, on the switching panel, to move it to a navigation display unit (NDU), press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM control panel you wish to view.

-these solutions work if the upper ECAM has failed or the CTL/BRIGHTNESS knob is turned to OFF

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12
Q

What occurs during the Before Takeoff Checklist when the T.O. CONFIG pb is pressed?

A
  • TO CONFIG NORMAL is displayed in the TO MEMO section of the configuration is correct.
  • A warning is displayed if the system is not configured properly.
  • The system simulates the application of T.O. power and checks certain systems for proper configuration.

The F/CTL page replaces the WHEEL page for 20 seconds when either pilot moves the sidestick (more than 3 degrees in pitch or roll) or when the rudder pedal deflection is more than 22 degrees

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13
Q

On the ADIRS panel, what does the ON BAT light indicate?

A
  • If one or more IR(s) is supplied by the aircraft battery only
  • briefly illuminated during the beginning of a full alignment
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14
Q

What does a flashing white align light on the ADIRS panel mean?

A
  • difference of 1degree LAT/LONG between shutdown and entered position
  • no present position entered within 10 min of NAV selection
  • IR alignment fault (aircraft moved during alignment)
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15
Q

Can you turn off the ADR and still have the IR?

A

Yes

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16
Q

What Information will be lost with an IR failure?

A

Attitude and navigation information

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17
Q

If you turn the IR to off, does it also turn off the ADR?

A

Yes

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18
Q

What is indicated if the PFD pitch and bank limits are amber X’s?

A

Not in normal law

Loss of:

  • protection from load factor limitation
  • pitch attitude protection
  • high angle of attack protection
  • high speed protection
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19
Q

On the heading tape, what does the green diamond mean?

A

Aircraft track

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20
Q

On the heading tape, what does the yellow line mean?

A

Actual aircraft heading

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21
Q

When will the CVR and DFDR automatically activate?

A
  • in flight
  • on the ground
  • after the first engine start
  • during first 5 minutes after the Aircraft Electric Network is energized
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22
Q

What is the power source for the FADEC?

A

The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above a set value. If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power.

-the FADEC uses aircraft DC electrical power up to 12% N2

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23
Q

What redundancy does the FADEC have?

A

Dual channel

-one channel is active while the other is standby. If FADEC has a channel fail, the ECAM will alert the pilot but no action is required as the other channel will automatically take over

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24
Q

When does continuous ignition automatically operate?

A

Engine flameout detection

-with an engine running, continuous ignition occurs with an EIU failure, flameout detected or ignition delay during start

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25
Q

How many igniters fire during a normal automatic ground start sequence?

A

One ignitor with the other serving as a backup

The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A and B) at each start

-Only igniter A of each engine is powered in the emergency electrical configuration

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26
Q

What is the normal operation position of the thrust levers when the A/THR is active?

A

CL

-thrust lever position is transmitted to the FADEC, which computes and displays the thrust rating limit and the N1 for that thrust lever angle (TLA)

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27
Q

When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle speed?

A
  • Approach Configuration
  • High engine or IDG temperatures
  • Bleed demands

-Approach idle allows the engine to accelerate rapidly from idle to go-around thrust

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28
Q

What controls the engines in all operating regimes?

A

FADEC

-if the electrical auto supply for the FADEC system is lost, the FADEC ALTERNATOR would appear

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29
Q

What does a fault light on the ENG panel indicate?

A
  • Malfunction of the thrust control
  • Auto start abort
  • Position of FUEL HP shutoff valve abnormal

-in addition to the amber fault light on the ENG panel, a caution appears on the ECAM

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30
Q

Is FADEC active during a manual engine start?

A

Yes

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31
Q

How many igniters fire on manual or in-flight starts?

A

Both ignites A and B

-in flight, the FADEC always commands a starter-assisted air start

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32
Q

What is the active range of the A/THR?

A
  • just above idle to the MCT detent (1 engine)
  • just above idle to the CL detent (2 engines)

-the FADEC computes the thrust rating limit for each thrust lever position

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33
Q

What determines the maximum thrust THR A/THR system will be able to command?

A

A/THR detent position

-the FADEC prevents the thrust from exceeding the limit for the thrust lever position in both manual and automatic modes

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34
Q

If A/THR has been disconnected by the hold instinctive disconnect button for 15 seconds, will you be able to restore the A/THR?

A

No, on the ground only after both FMGC power up

-A/THR can be lost by the system losing one of the arming conditions

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35
Q

If the FADEC detects a fault during automatic start, is any crew intervention required?

A

No, the FADEC will discontinue the start, clear the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically

-An abort is under full control of FADEC which controls the start valve, the igniters and the fuel HP valves

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36
Q

When will the FADEC abort a start?

A
  • No light up
  • Stalled start
  • Hot start
  • Hung start

The FADEC will abort an automatic start and attempt up to 4 additional starts

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37
Q

Which computers control and monitor the pneumatic system?

A

BMC

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38
Q

When the X-BLEED valve is selected to AUTO, the control system logic ensures what?

A
  • When the APU bleed valve is open and the X-BLEED valve is open
  • When the APU bleed is CLOSED and the X-BLEED valve is closed
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39
Q

The PACK FLOW selector can be selected to LO if there are fewer than how many occupants on board?

A

115 (per CBT- now 138 via FCOM)

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40
Q

What happens when the RAM AIR PB is pressed?

A
  • Outflow valve automatically opens when the cabin differential pressure is less than 1psi (if the cabin MODE SEL PB is AUTO)
  • RAM AIR ON is displayed in green on the ECAM memo
  • The emergency ram air inlet will open
  • “ON” will illuminate in white on the PB
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41
Q

What does an amber HOT AIR FAULT light indicate?

A

Duct overheat

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42
Q

Air is supplied by the pneumatic system via what?

A

2 pack flow control valves, 2 packs, mixing unit

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43
Q

An amber PACK FAULT light illuminated indicates what?

A
  • Switch position disagreement with the pack flow control valve
  • Pack overheat
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44
Q

What does the amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL PB for cabin pressure indicate?

A

Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty

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45
Q

When do the pressure controllers switch roles to become the active one?

A

After each landing

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46
Q

When the BLOWER and EXTRACT PB’s are selected to OVRD, what positions are the valves in?

A

Inlet valve closed & Extract valve open

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47
Q

With the BLOWER and EXTRACT PB’s in AUTO on the ground, what configuration is the plane typically in?

A

Open

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48
Q

Can conditioned air ever be introduced to the avionics compartment?

A

In the smoke or abnormal configuration

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49
Q

What does a FAULT light on the BLOWER PB indicate?

A
  • Computer failure
  • Duct overheat
  • Smoke warning is activated
  • low blower pressure
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50
Q

When the BLOWER and EXTRACT PB’s are selected to OVRD, which fan is off?

A

Blower

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51
Q

With the BLOWER and EXTRACT PB’s in AUTO in flight, what configuration is the plane typically in?

A

Closed

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52
Q

What does a FAULT light on the EXTRACT PB indicate?

A
  • Low extract pressure
  • Computer failure
  • Smoke warning is activated
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53
Q

When will the APU shut down immediately when the Master Switch is selected off?

A

No, there is a 60-120 second cooling period

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54
Q

What does a FAULT light in the APU BLEED PB mean?

A

An APU bleed leak

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55
Q

When does the APU fuel pump run?

A

When the wing or center tank pumps are not on

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56
Q

When the center tank pump MODE select PB is in the AUTO mode, what is the logic for center fuel tank operation?

A
  • Perform a momentary self test after engine start
  • The pumps stop operating after slat extension and resume operation after slat retraction
  • The pumps are automatically shut off a few minutes after the center tank empties
  • They will also shut off momentarily to make room in the wing tanks for IDG cooling to return fuel
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57
Q

When do wing tank fuel pumps run?

A

Continuously when in the ON position

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58
Q

Are the tanks operated continuously when they are selected ON with electrical power available with no auto shutoff logic when then center tank fuel pump is in MAN mode?

A

Yes

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59
Q

If only one inner tank reaches 1,650 lbs, what happens to the other transfer valves?

A

All 4 transfer valves will open

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60
Q

There are 2 fuel pumps in each inner wing tank, there are 2 fuel pumps in the center tank, there is one APU pump to provide fuel to the APU when the tank pumps are off.

True or false?

A

True

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61
Q

Which tank cannot be gravity fed?

A

Center tank

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62
Q

What is the normal in flight fuel management scheme?

A

Use center tank first then wing tanks

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63
Q

If the wing tank pump fails is gravity feeding possible?

A

Yes

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64
Q

When do the transfer valves open causing the main tank outer cells to drain into the inner tanks?

A

1650 lbs in either side

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65
Q

Once the transfer valves are opened to transfer fuel, how are they closed?

A

Automatically closed at the next refueling operation

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66
Q

What does an amber boxed ECAM FOB indicate?

A

Some fuel is unusable

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67
Q

What items are associated with the green hydraulic system on the A-320?

A

Slats and flaps
Landing gear
Thrust reverser #1
Normal brakes

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68
Q

What is the purpose of the hand pump?

A

To provide yellow hydraulic pressure for cargo door operation

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69
Q

What pumps are associated with the green hydraulic system?

A

1 PTU

1 engine pump

70
Q

A minimum of how many hydraulic systems are required to fly the aircraft?

A

1

71
Q

Does the PTU transfer hydraulic fluid?

A

No

72
Q

What items are associated with the yellow hydraulic system on the newer A320 aircraft?

A

Parking brake
Cargo doors
Alternate brakes
Thrust reverser #2

73
Q

When does the blue electric pump operate?

A
  • if the BLUE PUMP OVRD PB on the maintenance panel has been pushed with no engine running
  • After the first engine is started
74
Q

Can the yellow electric pump run the PTU?

A

Yes

75
Q

What pumps are associated with the blue hydraulic system?

A

1 RAT

1 electric pump

76
Q

What does an amber FAULT light in the blue or yellow electric pump PB indicate?

A 
Low air pressure in the reservoir 
Overheat of the pump
Low quantity in the reservoir 
Pump pressure low
Over temp in the reservoir
77
Q

What does an amber FAULT light in the hydraulic engine pump PB indicate?

A

Over temp in the reservoir
Low quantity in the reservoir
Low air pressure in the reservoir
Pump low pressure

78
Q

What does a FAULT indication in the PTU PB indicate?

A

Green or yellow system reservoir overheat
Green or yellow system reservoir low air pressure
Green or yellow system reservoir low level

79
Q

When will the overheat indication in the PTU PB extinguish?

A

When the overheat subsides

80
Q

When does the PTU operate with the PB in auto?

A

With a difference of 500 psi or greater between green and yellow pressure

Self test between the first and second engine start

81
Q

Will the RAT automatically deploy with the loss of Blue hydraulic pressure?

A

No

82
Q

What 3 things occur when you turn the manual gear extension handle?

A
  1. Isolates the landing gear hydraulics from the green hydraulic system
  2. Allows gravity to drop the gear into the extended position
  3. Unlocks the landing gear doors and main and nose gear
83
Q

What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering hand wheel do?

A

Pressing the button removes control of the nose wheel steering from the rudder until released

-use of the PEDALS DISC push button also prevents any autopilot steering orders from going to the BSCU

84
Q

When the brake accumulator pressure is low, how is it recharged?

A

With the yellow system electric pump

-the parking brake accumulator maintains the parking pressure for at least 12 hours

85
Q

Is it required to depress the brake pedals while setting the parking brake?

A

No

  • alternate servo valves open allowing full pressure application
86
Q

What is the thrust limitation with the parking brake ON in N1 percentage?

A

75% N1

-the parking brake should not be used to hold the aircraft in position if high thrust levels are required

87
Q

How do you verify the parking brake is set?

A

Triple indicator brake pressure
ECAM PARKING BRK memo

-a triple indicator on the center instrument panel indicates the pressure delivered to the left and right brakes as well as the accumulator pressure

88
Q

When is it normal to see the ENG GEN FAULT light illuminated?

A

Parked prior to engine start or after engine shutdown

89
Q

How is the IDG oil cooled?

A

Fuel/oil cooler that utilizes fuel flow from the associated engines fuel supply line

90
Q

What precautions must you take when disconnecting an IDG to avoid damaging the mechanism?

A

Engine must be at or above idle AND the IDG PB should not be pressure for more than 3 seconds

91
Q

What does an IDG FAULT light indicate?

A

HOTLOP

High oil temp or low oil pressure

92
Q

What is the function of the IDG?

A

Convert variable Engine speed to constant speed for optimum generator performance

93
Q

Is the IDG oil system separate from the engine oil system?

A

Yes

94
Q

What is the max continuous load rating of the engine and APU generators?

A

90KVA

95
Q

With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR blue ON light illuminated, which system is powering the aircraft?

A

External power

96
Q

What is the electrical priority for powering AC bus 1 and 2?

A

Respective generator
External power
APU generator
Opposite generator

97
Q

What does the AC ESS FEED PB white ALTN light indicate?

A

AC ESS BUS is supplied by AC BUS 2

98
Q

What is the function of the AC ESS FEED PB in the normal position?

A

To supply the AC ESS BUS by AC BUS 2 in the event AC BUS 1 is lost

99
Q

Why will the batteries not completely drain if the BAT switches are left in AUTO after AC power is removed?

A

Battery cut off logic prevents complete discharge (except when ADIRS are kept on)

100
Q

What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?

A

Battery charging current is outside limits (BAT contactor opens)

101
Q

When would it be normal to see the batteries connected to the BATTERY bus?

A

APU start
Battery charging
AC bus 1 and 2 unpowered above 100kts
Emergency generator not supplying power

102
Q

What powers the emergency generator?

A

Blue hydraulic system pressure generated by the RAT

103
Q

How many seconds does it take for the RAT to provide power to the aircraft once deployed?

A

5-10 seconds

104
Q

A SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE PB will be accompanied by what?

A

A fault light in the EXTRACT PB
Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting
A FAULT light in the BLOWER PB

105
Q

Which circuit breaker is not monitored and no ECAM message generated if tripped?

A

Black

106
Q

Which circuit breaker IS monitored by the ECAM system and WILL generate an ECAM message if tripped?

A

Green

107
Q

What happens when the GEN 1 LINE PB is selected off?

A
  • One fuel pump in each wing tank in powered
  • the entire system is still powered
  • Generator 1 isolated from the electrical system network
108
Q

What does a FAULT light on the ENG GEN PB Indicate?

A
  • The associated PB is selected on but the associated engine is not operating
  • a fault is detected by the GCU
109
Q

When is it normal to see the ENG GEN FAULT light illuminated?

A

Parked prior to engine start or after engine shutdown

110
Q

When does the amber FAULT light in the GALLEY PB illuminate?

A

At least one generator load is above 100% of rated output

111
Q

How does the GALLEY PB work in AUTO?

A

Sheds the main galley in flight with only one generator running

112
Q

How many fire extinguishers are provided for the APU?

A

1

113
Q

Will the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge if a fire is detected in flight?

A

No

114
Q

What happens when the APU FIRE PB is pressed?

A
  • LP fuel valve closes and shuts off the APU fuel pump
  • APU bleed valve and crossfeed valve closes
  • Arms the APU fire extinguisher squib
  • APU generator is deactivated
  • Silences the aural fire warning
115
Q

What are the functions of the FAC?

A
  • Characteristic speeds
  • Windshear detection
  • Alpha floor protection
  • Flight envelope and maneuvering computations
  • Low energy warning computation (“speed speed speed”)
  • Rudder, rudder limiting, rudder trim, auto turn coordinations yaw dampening
116
Q

What does ELAC stand for?

A

Elevator aileron computer

117
Q

How many SEC computers are installed on the airbus?

A

3

118
Q

How many ELAC computers are installed on the airbus?

A

2

119
Q

What happens to the ailerons when flaps are extended?

A

The ailerons drop 5 degrees

-each aileron has 2 electrically controlled hydraulic servojacks

120
Q

What happens if you turn the rudder trim with the autopilot engaged?

A

Nothing

With the autopilot engaged, the FMGC computes the rudder trim orders and automatically trim the rudder. The rudder trim rotary switch and the rudder trim reset push button are deactivated

121
Q

When hand flying, can we trim the rudder?

A

Yes, by using the RUDDER TRIM rotary switch

-Pressujg the RESET button will reset the rudder trim to 0

122
Q

What is the RUD TRIM button used for?

A

To reset the rudder trim to 0 degrees

-A single FAC or a single hydraulic system failure does not affect rudder trimming

123
Q

Is there any feedback in the rudder pedals from the yaw damping or turn coordination functions?

A

No

Rudder trim is accomplished via 2 electric motors that position the artificial feel unit

124
Q

How man slat/flap control computers (SFCC) are installed?

A

2

If the flap wingtips brakes are on, the pilot can still operate the slats and if the slat wingtip brakes are on, you can still operate the flaps

125
Q

What is alpha lock?

A

This function inhibits retracting the slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack or low air speed

  • if the flaps level is already set to 0, when required conditions are met, the function will not active therefore the slats will continue to retract or remain at 0.
126
Q

What would occur if 1 SFCC failed?

A

The slats and flaps would continue to operate, but at half speed.

-the flaps and slats are electrically controlled and hydraulically operated

127
Q

What system prevents flap or slat asymmetry?

A

Wing tip brakes (WTB)

-if one SFCC is inop, slats and flaps both operate at half speed

128
Q

Is there any landing configuration when the speed brake extension is inhibited?

A

Flaps full

-the speed brakes only utilize panels 2, 3 and 4 on each wing

129
Q

In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is lost?

A

The spoiler automatically retracts

130
Q

During acceleration in CONF 1+F the flaps (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at what speed?

A

210 kts

-when 1+F is selected, if the pilot does not select configuration 0 after takeoff the flaps will automatically retract at 210kts

131
Q

What do the flashing green CAPT and F/O sidestick priority lights indicate?

A

Both sidesticks have been simultaneously moved and neither pilot has taken priority

132
Q

Which side will illuminate a red arrow when SIDE STICK PRIORITY is used?

A

In front of the pilot losing authority

133
Q

What PFD indications indicate normal law?

A

Green = for pitch, bank & overspeed limits

Amber/black (alpha PROT) airspeed tape

-Failure to many values displayed on the PFD are normally indicated in red

134
Q

What is indicated if the PFD pitch and bank limits are amber x’s?

A

In alternate law

-protection from load factor limitation, pitch attitude protection, high angle of attack protection and high speed protection would be lost by the amber x’s

135
Q

What law and mode are you in when you perform the flight control check on the ground?

A

Normal law, ground mode

-in normal law, ground mode the aircraft automatically sets the trimmable horizontal stabilizer (THS) at 0 degrees

136
Q

What would large red arrowheads on the PFD indicate?

A

Pitch attitude is greater than 30 or less than -15

137
Q

What protections do you have in normal law?

A 
Pitch attitude: 30 degrees up 15 down 
Bank angle: 67 degrees 
High AOA: AOA alpha protection 
Load factor limitation: +2.5/-1.0
High speed: flight mode only
138
Q

Can you stall the aircraft in normal law?

A

Not in normal law, BUT the aircraft can be stalled in other laws.

-normal law protects the aircraft throughout the flight envelope via load factor limitation, pitch attitude protection, high AOA protection and high speed protection

139
Q

What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA when you reach Alpha Floor?

A

Thrust- TOGA
FMA- A FLOOR

-alpha floor is inhibited when TCAS mode is engaged on current generation A320 aircraft

140
Q

Can a pilot override an automatic pull-up as a result of high speed protection activation?

A

No

-the override of sidestick nose down orders continues until aircraft airspeed decreases below Vmo/Mmo

141
Q

How does high speed protection operate?

A

If Vmo/Mmo plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch up input to limit aircraft speed.

-sidestick nose down authority is progressively reduced when responding to a high speed protection recovery

142
Q

What is alpha max?

A

The maximum angle of attack possible in normal law, indicated by the tip of the red strip on the airspeed scale.

-high AOA protection enables the PF to pull the sidestick full aft in dangerous situations

143
Q

What causes alpha floor protection to activate?

A

When the AOA exceeds a specific threshold between Alpha PROT and VMAX the A/THR is automatically activated and commands TOGA thrust, regardless of TL position

-alpha floor protection is available from lift off until the aircraft reaches 100ft RA on approach

144
Q

Alpha floor protection is a function of what system?

A

A/THR
Requires operative A/THR to operate

-in CONF3 and CONF FULL, the threshold for Alpha floor decreases as a function of the aircraft deceleration rate

145
Q

What would cause the aircraft to revert to alternate law?

A

Multiple failures of redundant system

-in flight, the alternate law pitch mode follows a load-factor demand law much as the normal pitch law mode doesn’t but it has less built in protection

146
Q

If you are in alternate law, what law would roll be?

A

Direct laws

147
Q

Can you override the high or low stabilities in alternate law?

A

Yes

-alpha floor protection is inoperative with low speed stability

148
Q

Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all flight control computers?

A

Yes with mechanical backup

-pitch control of the aircraft can be maintained by the pilot manually applying trim to the THS

149
Q

How are the communications radios controlled?

A

From any of the 3 RMPs

-RMPs are connected together so that each RMP is updated to the selections made on the other RMPs

150
Q

When the FWD pushbutton is called from the cockpit, what indications will occur?

A
  • pink light appears on the FWD area call panel
  • a green light will illuminate
  • CAPT CALL appears on the FWD F/A indication panel
  • A high/low chime sounds through the FWD cabin loud speaker
151
Q

When the EMER PB is pressed from the cockpit, what indications occur?

A

EMERGENCY CALL appears on all attendants indication panels

  • 2 pink lights flash at all area call panels
  • High-low chimes (repeated 3 times) sounds throughout the cabin loudspeakers
152
Q

When an emergency call is initiated from the FA’s, what indications will occur?

A
  • system resets when the attendant hands up the relevant system
  • the amber ATT lights flash on the ACPs
  • 3 long buzzer sounds in the cockpit
  • the white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash
153
Q

If electrical power is lost, what position do the wing anti-ice valves fall in?

A

Closed

154
Q

Which probe is not heated on the ground?

A

TAT probe

155
Q

Which portion of the wing is heated?

A

The 3 outboard slats

156
Q

Which exterior aircraft component utilizes electrical heating?

A 
Sliding side windows
Water/waste drain masts 
AOA 
TAT 
Pitot probes 
Static ports 
Cockpit windshields
157
Q

Is engine anti ice required in a climb or cruise when temperature is below -40C?

A

No

158
Q

What happens if the wing anti ice switch is selected to ON during ground operations?

A

The wing anti ice valve will open for a 30 second test

159
Q

What conditions require the use of engine anti ice?

A

Prior to and during descent in icing conditions even if the temp is below -40C SAT

OAT or TAT is below 10C with visible moisture present

160
Q

When the ENG ANTI ICE PB is selected ON, what indications will appear on the PB?

A

Blue ENG ANTI ICE light ON

161
Q

When are the probes and windows automatically heated with the PROBE/WINDOW PB in the AUTO position?

A

After the first engine start

162
Q

An amber FAULT light in the WING ANTI ICE PB indicates what?

A
  • Anti icing control valve is not in the required position

- low pressure detected

163
Q

If the NAV key is selected on either RMP, can the FMGC still auto tune navaids?

A

No- RMP now controls the VOR/ILS receivers

-beside selecting the NAV key on the RMP, you will need to select the type of NAV radio key as well.

164
Q

How many transponders are installed?

A

2

-the mode S transponders are controlled from the ATC/TCAS control panel

165
Q

Does TERR mode fault affect the basic GPWS functions?

A

No

166
Q

What do dashes in the FCU dish’s windows along with the adjacent white dot indicate?

A

FMGS managed guidance is in use

167
Q

If the A/THR has been disconnected using the 15 second method, what besides the A/THR will be lost?

A

Alpha floor protection

-A/THR control can only be recovered after the flight will on the ground with the FMGC power up

168
Q

When would thrust lock occur?

A
  • Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR PB on the FCU is pushed
  • A/THR disconnects due to failure

Moving thrust levers out of CL or MCT suppresses the thrust lock and gives the flight crew manual control with the thrust levers

169
Q

What occurs during alpha floor protection after speed increases about Vls?

A

FMA changes to TOGA LK

-alpha floor is lost in engine out, when flaps/slats are extended

170
Q

How do you disconnect the A/THR for the remainder of the flight?

A

Press and hold the instinctive disconnect button for 15 seconds

-all A/THR functions including alpha floor are lost, and they can be recovered only at the next FMGC power up (on the ground)

171
Q

What are 3 ways to disconnect the A/THR?

A
  • thrust levers to idle
  • A/THR PB on FCU (not recommended)
  • instinctive disconnect buttons

Auto thrust should normally be used until it commands RETARD just prior to landing

G4 (17 decks)

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