Aircraft Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage?

A

25.5 volts

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2
Q

Is the minimum battery voltage 25.5 with the battery PBS ON or OFF?

A

Off

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3
Q

How do you charge the batteries if the voltage is below 25.5?

A

Select EXT power ON, place BAT PBs ON, check ECAM ELEC page that contactors are closed and batteries are charging

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4
Q

How LONG does it take to charge the battery if the voltage is below 25.5?

A

20 min

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5
Q

What does a FAULT light in a battery PB indicate?

A

Charging current for the corresponding battery is outside normal limits

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6
Q

With the FAULT light illuminated in the battery pb is the battery contactor open or closed?

A

Open

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7
Q

With the battery PBs selected, what busses are powered? (Assuming batteries are the only power source)

A
  • HOT BATTERY BUS 1 and 2 are always powered.
  • DC BATTERY BUS
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8
Q

What is the difference between a green CB and a black CB?

A

Green CBs are monitored by the FWS. If a green CB is out for more than 1 minutes, then an ECAM will be generated.

Black CBs are not directly monitored by the FWS. In this case, the component protected by a black CB is monitored directly by the FWS.

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9
Q

What is the significance of CBs with red caps?

A

WTB CBs. We never reset these CBs

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10
Q

Explain the Allegiant CB reset policy

A
  • Do not reset a tripped CB in flight
  • On the ground; only reset a CB under the direction of maintence. Only 1 attempt reset.

Note: the CA can exercise emergency authority and reset a CB, if necessary, for the safe continuation of the flight. Always allow a 5 minute cooling period and ensure a logbook write up has been completed

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11
Q

What lights should be illuminated during a preflight?

A

None.

Contact maintenance if any light is illuminated unless specifically directed by an MEL.

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12
Q

What is the function of the Audio Switching panel switch?

A

If a failure of a pilots ACP occurs, the third ACP on the overhead panel can be selected and the pilot can make all ACP selections from the overhead panel.

ECAM memo “AUDIO 3 XFRD” is displaced

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13
Q

When is a full ADIRS alignment required?

A
  • before the first flight of the day, or
  • when there is a crew change, or
  • when the gps is not available and the NAVAIDS coverage is poor on the expected route, or
  • when the gps is not available and the expected flight time is more than 3 hours.
  • when flight is expected to be conducted in class II navigation
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14
Q

When is a quick alignment of ADIRS acceptable?

A

A fast IRS alignment must be performed if a complete IRS alignment is not necessary and the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position is at or above 5NM.

(See MCDU POSITION MONITOR page)

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15
Q

How is a ADIRS quick align performed?

A
  • Turn each IR selector OFF and back ON (must occur within 5 sec for each IR)
  • align on REF
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16
Q

When you turn the mode selectors to NAV, what are you looking for on the panel?

A

The ALIGN light illuminates steady

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17
Q

What does the ON BAT light indicate?

A

It is illuminated amber if one or more IR(s) is supplied by the aircraft battery. Also illuminates briefly during the beginning on a full alignment

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18
Q

What does the steady white ALIGN light indicate?

A

The respective IR is in the align mode

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19
Q

What does it mean when the IR lights are extinguished?

A

Alignment has been completed

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20
Q

What does a flashing white align light mean?

A
  • IR alignment fault (aircraft moved during alignment)
  • No present position entered within 10 min of NAV selection
  • Difference of 1 degree LAT/LONG between shutdown and entered position
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21
Q

What does a steady illumination of the amber IRU FAULT light indicate?

A

A fault affects the respective IR

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22
Q

What does a flashing illumination of the amber IRU FAULT light indicate?

A

Attitude and heading may be recovered in ATT mode (you’ve lost the navigation portion)

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23
Q

What does the amber ADR FAULT light indicate?

A

A fault is detected in the air data reference part

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24
Q

Does turning the IR to OFF also turn off the ADR?

A

Yes

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25
Q

Can you turn the ADR off and still have the IR?

A

Yes

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26
Q

With the loss of ADR 1, what would be lost on the captains PFD?

A

Airspeed and altitude info (outside info)

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27
Q

What would restore the lost altitude and airspeed information?

A

Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching panel air data selector

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28
Q

What would be missing on the captains PFD if IR 1 failed or was turned off?

A

Attitude and navigation information (inside info)

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29
Q

What action would recover the attitude and navigation information?

A

Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching panel ATT/HDG selector

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30
Q

What does ELAC stand for?

A

Elevator aileron computer

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31
Q

How many ELACS are on the airbus?

A

2

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32
Q

What are the functions of the ELAC?

A
  • Control of the elevators, ailerons, and the trimmable horizontal stabilizer (THS).
  • The ELACs compute the need for roll spoiler movement (which is sent to the SECs) and rudder yaw movement (which is sent to the FACs)
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33
Q

In the event a single ELAC should fail, what would happen?

A

The remaining ELAC is capable of providing complete control of the ailerons, elevators and THS

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34
Q

What does SEC stand for?

A

Spoiler elevator computer

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35
Q

How many SECs are installed?

A

3

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36
Q

What is the primary responsibility of the SECs?

A

Spoiler control. Each SEC controls one or two pairs of spoilers

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37
Q

What does a FAULT light in an SEC pb mean?

A

The SEC is inop

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38
Q

What is lost?

A

The spoiler panels associated with the failed SEC are inop

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39
Q

Both ELACs fail, can any of the SECs provide backup and of what functions?

A

SECs 1 and 2 can provide backup pitch control of the elevators and THS. Aileron control is lost and the ailerons streamline. Roll is accomplished with just the spoilers

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40
Q

What does FAC mean?

A

Flight augmentation computer

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41
Q

How many FACs are installed?

A

2

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42
Q

What are the functions of the FACs?

A

Rudder
Auto turn coordination
Yaw dampening
Rudder limiting
Rudder trim
Characteristic speeds
Flight envelope and maneuvering
Alpha floor protection
Wind shear detection
Low energy warning (speed speed speed)

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43
Q

What happens if you select a FAC pb to off?

A

Deactivates the corresponding yaw dampening and rudder trim functions to that FAC. If the FAC is still operable, it continues to compute all flight envelope functions and maneuvering speeds.

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44
Q

How does the flight crew command an evacuation?

A

Make a PA (EVACUATE, EVACUATE, EVACUATE)

Do not use command (evac) pb

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45
Q

What powers the emergency generator?

A

Blue hydraulic system pressure generated by the RAT

46
Q

When does the RAT automatically deploy?

A

Inflight with a loss of power to AC bus 1 and 2

47
Q

What is the source of power during RAT deployment and approximately how long does it take?

A

The aircraft batteries are the sole source of electrical power for the AC and DC essential buses until the EMER GEN is online, which takes 5-10 sec

48
Q

What does the red fault light on the RAT and EMER GEN pb indicate?

A

The EMER GEN is not supplying power to AC and DC essential buses

49
Q

What does the SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pb indicate?

A

Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting

50
Q

Will there be any other indications of avionics smoke on the overhead panel?

A

Fault lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pbs on the ventilation panel

51
Q

What happens when you push the GEN 1 INE pb to off?

A

Gen 1 is isolated from the electrical system network and is only providing the power to one fuel pump in each wing fuel tank

52
Q

What procedure would you push the GEN 1 LINE pb to off?

A

Smoke procedures

53
Q

Is there a way to manually deploy the RAT?

A

Yes, guarded MAN ON pb

54
Q

Will the RAT deploy on the ground if you push the MAN ON pb is pressed?

A

Yes

55
Q

Do pilots ever use the EMER GEN TEST pb?

A

No- Maintence only

56
Q

What does an amber fault light in the SYS pb indicate on the GPWS panel?

A

Any failure of GPWS basic modes

57
Q

Does a fault light in the SYS pb on the GPWS panel affect terrain mode?

A

No

58
Q

When would you press the FLAP MODE pb?

A

To avoid nuisance warnings when landing with flaps less than 3

59
Q

What does FLAP MODE OFF light indicate?

A

“Too low flaps” inhibited for a landing with landing with flaps less than 3

60
Q

If the TERR mode failed does it affect the basic GPWS?

A

No

61
Q

How do you perform the CVR test?

A

RCDR GND CTL pb switch- ON
(Parking brake must be on)
Loud speaker vol knob- OFF both sides
ACP INT/RAD sw (CA & FO)- set to INT
Interphone volume reception knob-
release
CVR test pb- press and maintain
(Successful when audio test signal is heard through the loud speaker and CVR test pb is pressed and maintained)

Depending on the CVR model,

  • a continuous tone or
  • a short tone or
  • a short tone and a beep every 4 sec or
  • two short tones and a beep every 4 sec
62
Q

What is the purpose of the GND CTL pb? Why do we select it on during preflight?

A

Allows the pilot to activate the CVR when the logic has automatically deactivated it.

It is G4’s policy to record all checklists during preflight

63
Q

What is the CVR and DFDR automatically activation logic?

A
  • For 5 min after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft, or after last engine shutdown
  • After first engine start
  • Anytime in flight
64
Q

How do you record the F/As PAs?

A

ACP 3 PA VOL knob out, set volume at or above medium range

65
Q

When do the cabin oxygen mask doors automatically open?

A

14,000’

66
Q

Can you manually deploy the masks?

A

Yes, life the guard and press the MASK MAN ON pb

67
Q

What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light mean?

A

The signal to release the oxygen mask doors has been sent either automatically or manually

68
Q

What method is used to supply passenger cabin supplemental oxygen?

A

Chemical generators

69
Q

How do cabin occupants activate oxygen flow to their masks?

A

Pull the mask toward the seat

70
Q

How long does the PAX oxygen last?

A

15 min

71
Q

Where is the oxygen stored for the crew?

A

In a single high pressure cylinder

72
Q

What happens during the preflight when you push to extinguish the CREW SUPPLY OFF pb?

A

It opens a valve in the avionics bag to supply low pressure crew oxygen

73
Q

What would you notice on the ECAM when you extinguish the crew supply off pb?

A

The OXY indication changes from amber to green

74
Q

How do you deactivate the crew oxygen mask microphone after use?

A

Close the left door and press the PRESS TO TEST AND RESET switch

75
Q

Where do you find the minimum flight crew O2 values?

A

FCOM LIM-OXY

76
Q

How do you call a mechanic?

A

Press and hold the mech button. It illuminates a blue light on the EXT PWR panel and sounds an external horn

77
Q

How do you call the forward FA?

A
  • Press the FWD button
  • Two lights come on in pink on the related area of the CALLs panel
  • CAPT call appears on the FWD FA indication panel
  • a green flight illuminates
  • a high low chime sounds through the fwd cabin loudspeaker
78
Q

What happens when you push the EMER pb?

A
  • pink light flashes at all area call panels
  • emergency call appears on all attendant indication panels
  • high low chime (3x) sounds throughout the cabin loudspeakers
79
Q

What happens when the F/As initiate an emergency call?

A
  • on the EMER pb-sw; amber CALL flashes
  • The amber ATT lights flashing on the ACPs
  • 3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit
  • System deserts when the attendant hangs up the relevant system
80
Q

What is the correct position for the NAV light switch?

A

Position 1 for odd days
Position 2 for even days

81
Q

Are the 1 and 2 positions connected to a single bulb?

A

No they’re separate bulbs

82
Q

What position should the strobe switch be in during preflight?

A

auto

83
Q

When do the strobes flash in auto?

A

When the main landing gear strut is not compressed

84
Q

What do you see when you press the APU master switch?

A

Blue light in pb
APU page appears and the when fully open flap open appears

85
Q

What is the difference between the blue on light in the start and the green avail light?

A

The blue on light appears during the start sequence

The green avail light means apu is on speed and start is complete and the apu is available for electric and air

86
Q

With the APU running and supplying bleed air, how do you shut it down?

A

APU bleed pb OFF
APU MASTER SW pb OFF
APU will cool down (60-120 sec) and then shutdown

87
Q

With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is powering the aircraft?

A

APU

88
Q

An amber fault light in the APU MASTER SW pb indicates?

A

An apu shutdown has occurred

89
Q

What does an amber fault light in the APU BLEED pb mean?

A

Apu bleed leak

90
Q

Can you use the APU bleed air inflight?

A

Yes
Use of APU with wing anti ice is prohibited

91
Q

What is the proper position of the no smoking switch?

A

Auto

92
Q

Why is it important to not leave the no smoking switch in the on position?

A

Because in the ON position the exit signs are illuminated continuously and the battery packs for the cabin emergency lighting cannot charge

93
Q

What is the logic of the EMER EXIT lights in the ARM position?

A

The overhead emergency lights automatically illuminate with a loss of normal aircraft electrical power

94
Q

What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?

A

All lights off
Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates

95
Q

What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?

A

The right dome light with the switch in DIM or BRT

96
Q

What does the ditching pb do?

A

Closes all valves below the water line:
(CARPO)
C-Cargo compartment isolation valves
A-Avionics ventilation (inlet/extract)
R-Ram air inlet
P-Pack flow control valves
O-Outflow valve (if in auto)

97
Q

Can the pilot control the outflow valve?

A

Yes, select MAN on the mode sel and use the MAN V/S CTL switch

98
Q

How many auto pressure controllers?

A

2
only 1 operates at a time and automatic transfer occurs:
-70 sec after each landing
-if the operating system fails

99
Q

How do you manually switch controllers?

A

Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 sec and then back to AUTO

100
Q

What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pb indicate?

A

Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty

101
Q

The LDG ELEV selector in the auto position does what?

A

The pressurization system uses the FMGS data to construct an optimized pressurization schedule

102
Q

Where does the pressurization system obtain the landing elevation from?

A

FMGC database

103
Q

When out of the auto position, what is different?

A

The pressurization system uses the manually selected landing elevation

104
Q

When do you use engine anti ice?

A

When OAT (ground) / TAT (inflight) 10C or below with visible moisture present

Prior to and during decent in icing conditions (including temps below -40C sat)

105
Q

When don’t you have to have engine anti ice on?

A

Climb and cruise when temp is below -40C sat

106
Q

What does a fault light in the ENG ANTI ICE pb indicate?

A

Switch/anti ice valve disagreement

107
Q

With ENG ANTI ICE ON what indications will you see on the pb?

A

Blue ENG ANTI ICE ON

108
Q

Can you use wing anti ice on the ground?

A

No

109
Q

What happens if you turn the switch on the ground?

A

The wing anti ice valves open for a 30 sec test

110
Q

What part of the wing is heated?

A

Outboard 3 slats

111
Q

Can you use the APU bleed for wing anti ice?

A

No

112
Q
A