CBCL 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are oncogenes and how are they formed?

A

oncogenes: genes involved in sustaining proliferative signaling
formed: GOF mutation. either change in structure of proto-oncogene (creating an abnormal gene product with aberrant function) or change in regulation of gene expression (aberrant expression or inappropriate production of normal protein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the classes of oncoproteins?

A
  1. growth factors
  2. growth factor receptors
  3. proteins involved in signal transduction
  4. transcription factors/nuclear regulatory proteins
  5. cell cycle regulators (aka cyclins/CDK)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the tumor suppressor genes and how are they formed?

A

gatekeepers of the cell - prevent inappropriate cell division and growth
form: LOF mutation…either inactivation of both alleles or inactivation of protein function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how can both tumor suppressor alleles be inactivated?

A
  1. deletion of part or all of gene/chromosome
  2. gene mutation
  3. gene loss and reduplication of chromosome
  4. mitotic recombination
  5. methylation of promoter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the 3 most important tumor suppressor genes? how do they work?

A
  1. p53: on Chr 17; most common genetic defect in human neoplasms; upregulated by DNA damage, hypoxic stress and unregulated oncogene expression; accumulation of p53 leads to activation of genes involving DNA repair, cell cycle arrest at G1/S checkpoint, senescence, apoptosis; tumors are relatively resistant to chemo and radiation
  2. Rb: on Chr 13; normally inhibits transcription by binding TF E2F (most important checkpoint); E2F release allows G1-S phase transition; associated with inherited tumor called retinoblastoma (early in life: bilateral; late in life: unilateral)
  3. APC: normally binds and inhibits beta-catenin; prevents activation of transcription factors by beta-catenin; Familial adenomatous polyposis coli and sporadic colorectal cancer (and other neoplasms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do growth factors work differently in cancer?

A

can be produced by cancer cells and set up an autocrine loop…works within tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are three examples of growth factor receptors that are mutated in cancer?

A
  1. ERB-B2 = HER-2 in breast cancer: gene amplification…reacts to trastuzumab (monoclonal antibody)
  2. ERB-B1 = EGFR: lung cancer
  3. RET: multiple endocrine neoplasia and familial medullary thyroid carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is a common mutation in many cancers that involve signal transduction proteins?

A

BRAF mutations -> type of RAS signal transduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the mutant protein in chronic myelogenous leukeumia?

A

BCR/ABL translocation t(2,22) - can detect this by looking at the cell via FISH (color changes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the two types of MYC and what cancers are they associated with?

A
  1. c-myc: t(8,14) in Burkitt lymphoma…MYC comes to be right in front of a promoter gene that is always active; get more of the normal gene product
  2. n-myc: overexpression in neuroblastoma due to gene amplification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what cyclin and CDK are associated with known cancers?

A
  1. cyclin D1: overexpression in mantle cell lymphoma

2. CDK4: amplification in melanoma and glioblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the components of a tumor? define them.

A

Tumor parenchyma - consists of neoplastic cells within the tumor mass

Reactive stroma - non-neoplastic connective tissue, blood vessels, immune cells, etc. within the tumor mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is differentiation?

A

degree of resemblance (morphologic and biochemical) of neoplastic cells to the cell of origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the difference between pleomorphism and anaplasia? what are they used for?

A

Pleomorphism - variation in size and shape
Anaplasia - lack of differentiation (highly atypical cells)

Used for grading of neoplasms - applied only to malignant neoplasms (which have more pleomorphism and anaplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is invasion?

A

growth of neoplastic cells beyond the site of origin (ex: epithelial neoplasms…growth beyond basement membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is metastasis?

A

discontinuous spread of neoplastic cells to a site distant form the site of origin

17
Q

characteristics of benign neoplasm and nomenclature

A

Localized, incapable of invasion and metastasis

Good clinical behavior/prognosis

“-oma”…adenoma (epithelial), chondroma (cartilage), lipoma (fat), papilloma (mucous), fibroadenoma (breast)

18
Q

characteristics of malignant neoplasm and nomenclature

A

Capable of invasion and metastasis; Bad clinical behavior/prognosis…death most often due to metastatic spread

Epithelial: “-sarcoma”…chondrosarcoma, liposarcoma

Hematopoietic: “lymphoma”, “leukemia”

Melanocytic: “melanoma”

19
Q

what is the difference between teratoma and a mixed tumor?

A

Mixed tumor: neoplasm with divergent differentiation (starts off with one cell type that gives rise to different tissues)

Teratoma: neoplasm of germ cells with derivatives of different germ layers (start off with multiple cell types)

20
Q

what is a synonym for dysplasia? what are the two main characteristics of dysplasia?

A

intraepithelial neoplasia

loss in uniformity of individual cells and architectural orientation (polarity)