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Parasitology > Cattle And Sheep > Flashcards

Cattle And Sheep Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two types of surface mites and the two types of burrowing mites?

A

Surface mites - Chorioptes and Psoroptes
Burrowing mites - Sarcoptes and Demodex

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2
Q

What type of surface mite is the most pathogenic and an annually notifiable disease in Canada? What are the clinical signs associated with it?

A

Psoroptes
Hair loss, erythema, thickening, exudation, and pruritis
Also known as scab

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3
Q

What burrowing mite is specific to cattle? What are the symptoms?

A

Sarcoptes
Severe pruritis, thick skin, and hair loss

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4
Q

How do you diagnose Sarcoptes? Who do you treat?

A

Multiple deep skin scrapings
Treat whole herd (transmits cattle to cattle) possibly through fomites

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5
Q

While rare, what burrowing mite is cigar shape and is associated with the formation of nodular pustules in goats and cattle?

A

Demodex

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6
Q

What clinical signs are seen with chorioptes? In what species?

A

Severe localized pruritis, tail head, escutcheon, coronary bands, alopecia, oozing, crusting +/- ulcers
Cattle, sheep, and horses

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7
Q

Who do you treat for Demodex mange?

A

Treat only the affected ones

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8
Q

Who do you treat for Psoroptes mange?

A

All in contact conspecifics, systemic

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9
Q

Who do you all treat for Chorioptes mange?

A

All in contact hosts, topical or pour on, NB resistance to organophosphates

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10
Q

How do you diagnose surface mites and burrowing mites?

A

Surface mites - KOH digest of superficial skin scrapings, crusts, serology in sheep and cattle for Psoroptes
Burrowing mites - deep skin scrapings

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11
Q

What mites should you use pour-on and which parenteral for treatments? How should you treat the fomites and chutes?

A

Pour-on - Chorioptes
Parenteral - Psoroptes, Sarcoptes, and Demodex
Steam clean followed by acaricide

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12
Q

What tick is a 3 host tick in Saskatchewan and east, there are Aleut’s on cattle in may to June and transmits Anaplasma marginale amount cattle?

A

Dermacentor variabilis (American dog tick) - Ixodid

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13
Q

What type of tick is a three host tick west of Saskatchewan (mainly BC) in which the adults are on cattle in the spring. Transmits Anaplasma marginale among cattle?

A

Dermacentor andersoni (Rocky Mountain wood tick)
Toxin from females associated with tick paralysis

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14
Q

What type of tick is a one host tick that is present anywhere you have cervids, adults, nymphs, and larvae al present on cattle, might transmit Anaplasma marginale?

A

Dermacentor albipictus (winter tick) - Ixodid

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15
Q

What type of tick is a one host tick in which only the larvae and nymphs are parasitic, adults are free-living?

A

Otobuis megnini (spinose ear tick) - Argasid

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16
Q

What are two types of chewing lice?

A

Damalinia bovine and Damalinia ovis

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17
Q

What are two types of sucking lice?

A

Linognathus and Haematopinus

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18
Q

What are 3 things about the lifecycle of lice?

A

Life cycle entirely on the host (~3 weeks)
Off host survival limited
Highly host specific

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19
Q

How should you treat lice infestation in cattle? When does it occur? What are the symptoms?

A

Highly contagious, treat whole herd, clean fomites and the environment
Present in winter
Can cause pruritis, hair loss, anemia, anemia, decreased appetite, production losses often asymptomatic

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20
Q

How should one treat lice? What is it more effective on?

A

Pour-on macrocyclic lactones - more effective on sucking lice
Pyrethroid pour-on - inhibit egg hatching

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21
Q

What are three types of biting/feeding flies? What do these flies feed on?

A

Simulium (black flies), Haematobia irritans (horn fly), and Musca autumnalis (face fly)
These flies feed on secretions or blood, larvae develop in aquatic environments

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22
Q

What type of flies are blood feeding and important for the transmission of Onchocerca?

A

Simulium (black fly)

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23
Q

What fly is a secretion feeding fly that are important for the transmission of Moraxella (pink eye)?

A

Musca autumnalis (face fly)

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24
Q

What are three types of bot flies?

A

Hypoderma bovis, H. lineatum, oestrus ovis

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25
What species is Giardia commonly seen in and what are the impacts?
High prevalence in dairy cattle Clinical disease uncommon, can cause acute, intermittent, or chronic diarrhea Reduced gain, feed efficiency, carcass weight may occur
26
How is giardia diagnosed?
Daily fecal samples - 3 days Zinc sulphate flotation, direct saline smear (trophozoites are fragile) Coproantigen/PCR
27
How do you manage Giardia?
Fenbendazole Address contaminated environment/water
28
What species are the A sub classifications of G. Duodenalis seen in?
A-I humans and animals A-II humans A-III and IV exclusively in animals
29
What parasite has no free living or cyst stage, has direct transmission, and causes venereal, pyometra, embryonic death, and late-term abortions in cattle?
Tritrichomonas foetus
30
How do you diagnose Tritrichomonas foetus in cows? Abortus? Bulls?
Cows: parasite or DNA on cervical mucous, uterine fluids from aborting cows Abortus: stomach fluid Bulls (most reliable at the herd level): preputial scrapings or washes, repeated sampling (3 tests at weekly intervals)
31
What is the infective stage of coccidia?
Sporulated oocyst - highly resistant to cleaning agents and harsh environmental conditions
32
What type of Protozoa is an obligate intracellular parasite, infects the gut epithelium, worldwide distribution/high prevalence, and has a complex life cycle?
Coccidia
33
What is the Eimeria life cycle?
Unsporulated oocyst: not yet infective stage found in fresh feces Sporolated oocysts: infective stage found in environment following maturation Sporozoites released from oocyst in the intestine, penetrates the epithelial cells, contained within parasitophorous vacuole
34
What Eimeria species of bovine coccidiosis has severe, moderate, and mild disease potential?
Severe - E. bovis and E. zuernii Moderate - E. alabamensis Mild - E. auburnesis (pasture) and E. ellipsoidalis
35
What are the signs of clinical coccidiosis?
Diarrhea (sometimes bloody), anorexia, abdominal pain
36
What are the signs of bovine coccidiosis at necropsy?
Intestinal mucosa thickened and congested, hemorrhage often present, and mucosal sloughing in extreme cases
37
What are clinical signs of acute coccidiosis and who is it seen in?
Seen in young animals (2-6 months) Abdominal pain, diarrhea, dysentery (blood, mucus, fibrin), tenemus, dehydration, weakness, inappetence
38
What are the clinical signs of chronic coccidiosis?
Harder to detect, chronic diarrhea, sub-clinical production impacts like reduced growth rates, delayed puberty/fertility
39
What are the clinical signs of nervous coccidiosis?
Muscular tremors, hyperesthesia, convulsions with ventroflexion of head and neck, nystagmus, high mortality (80-90%)
40
How is Eimeria diagnosed?
Fecal flotation counting Eimeria oocysts in feces
41
What is the main aim for coccidiosis prevention?
To minimize the build-up of sporulated oocysts in the environment and allow the gradual acquisition of immunity to reduce disease risk
42
Who should be treated for coccidiosis?
Treat all exposed calves and lambs with sulfonamides/ionophores
43
What Protozoa are the oocysts are immediately infective and very resistant to environmental conditions (sporogony happens inside the host)? Is it zoonotic?
Cryptosporidium Yes it is zoonotic
44
What is the most common cause of human cryptosporidiosis?
Ingestion of contaminated water and food
45
Who does cryptosporidium parvum and andersoni infect? What is the infectious dose?
C. parvum - calves as early as 2 days of age C. andersoni - post-weaned calves, adults Low infectious dose, 1 oocyst
46
How is cryptosporidium diagnosed? What is the test of choice from diagnostic lab?
Detection of oocysts in feces Immunofluorescent staining - cyst antigen
47
In the sarcocystis life cycle, where does sexual reproduction (gametogony) occur? And asexual reproduction (merogony) occur?
Sexual reproduction - in small intestine, with sporogony (forming sporocysts with sporozoites) Asexual reproduction - in vascular endothelium, enter striated muscle /nervous cells
48
What disease does sarcocystis cruzi cause? What are the clinical signs? Is it acute or chronic?
Dalmeny disease Fever, emaciation, anemia, abortion, rarely CNS signs (sheep too) high morbidity and mortality Acute disease
49
What is the chronic form of sarcocystis? What does it cause?
Eosinophilic myositis Post-Mortem diagnosis, incidental finding Greenish focal stripes in skeletal muscles, breakdown of sarocysts inducing immune response
50
What is the most important cause of bovine abortion in Canada?
Neospora caninum
51
What are the outcomes of Neospora infection in early, mid and late pregnancy in cattle?
Early: fetal death and resorption Mid: abortion, infected neurological calf (underweight, unable to stand, flexed or hyper-extended limbs, lack of coordination, decreased reflexes and sensory perception) Late: infected but clinically normal calf that may infect their offspring, or uninflected calf (rare) Infected cows may have problems with subsequent pregnancies
52
What is the difference between endemic and epidemic abortion?
Endemic (endogenous) - recrudescence of chronic infection Epidemic (exogenous) - acute infection following ingestion of sporulated oocysts - abortion storms
53
How do you diagnose Neospora in cattle?
Serology: ELISA titres in aborting X non-aborting cows Abortus: CNS/muscle histology and IHC, PCR
54
What Protozoa causes abortion storms I’m naive sheep and goats? What are the outcomes of infection in early, mid and late gestation?
Toxoplasma gondii Early: fetal death and resorption Mid: abortion or stillborn Late: weak or normal lambs
55
What are indirect and direct methods of diagnosing of toxoplasma?
Indirect: serology, IgG (chronic) and IgM (acute) Direct: gross pathology (macroscopic necrosis in cotyledons), histology of multifocal necrosis on placentomes and fetal organs, tachyzoites in brain and placenta, isolation from blood or body fluids, histology/immunohistochemistry, PCR
56
What should be done for the prevention of Dictyocaulus viviparous?
Give ML at midpoint of first grazing season
57
What can Dictyocaulus viviparous cause? What is the diagnostic test for it?
Rare but important cause of pneumonia in pastured cattle Baermann on fresh samples
58
What is the lungworm of sheep? What diagnostic test should be run? And what will you see in the diagnostic test?
Dictyocaulus filaria Baermann Anterior cone on first-stage larvae in feces
59
What is the IH of Stephanofilaria stilesi and what does it cause in cattle?
Hornfly Skin lesions - alopecia and scalding
60
How can you diagnose Stephanofilaria stilesi?
Microfilaria skin biopsy
61
What is the intermediate host of moniezia and Thysanosoma?
Free-living mite with cysticercoids
62
What is the parasite that causes bovine cysticercosis, what is important about their eggs?
Taenia saginatta Eggs immediately infective and resistant (18 months)
63
Is bovine cysticercosis reportable In Canada?
Yes it is! Even if there is suspicion
64
What is the most important trematode of livestock? What is the intermediate host? Is it zoonotic?
Fasciola hepatica Snail Yes it is
65
In all livestock, what can migrating fluke trigger?
Clostridial disease
66
What is the main diagnostic test for Fasciloa hepatica?
Fecal sedimentation - for eggs too dense to float
67
What is a relatively common trematode in cervids in Canada, in which cervids are the definitive hosts and livestock and other ungulates are the dead end host?
Fascioloides magna
68
What is known as the zombie ant fluke?
Dicrocoelium dendriticum
69
How are GINs diagnosed In ruminants?
Quantitative fecal egg counts
70
What is one of the main challenges of parasite control?
Anthelmintic resistance
71
What is a generic term for disease caused by parasitic nematodes in the gastrointestinal tract?
Parasitic gastroenteritis (PGE)
72
What is the most important nematode in grazing ruminants? What type of life cycle, what is the infective stage, and what is the PPP?
Trichostrongyles Direct life cycle, infective L3, PPP 21
73
What are the 3 trichostrongyles of the cattle abomasum?
Ostertagia ostertagi Trichostrongylus axei Haemonchus placei
74
What is the most important parasitic nematode species in cattle in Canada and northern US?
Ostertagia ostertagi
75
How does Ostertagia ostertagi survive harsh weather conditions?
L4 may enter arrested development (hypobiosis)
76
Differences between type 1 and type 2 ostertagiosis Season? Onset? Amount of FEC? Prognosis?
Type 1: summer ostertagiosis (July-oct), gradual onset, high FEC, high morbidity, low mortality Type 2: winter ostertagiosis (march-may), sudden onset, low FEC, low morbidity, high mortality
77
What parasite is known as the barber pole worm? What is the major cause of disease in sheep? Does it cause diarrhea?
Haemonchus placei H. Contortus No it does not cause diarrhea, causes anemia as it is blood sucking
78
How do you diagnose Haemonchus placei?
L3 coproculture, PCR, or adults at necropsy
79
Where do parasitic stages of Cooperia species develop? Which form of Cooperia is ,ore pathogenic and which more common in Canada?
Surface of SI mucosa C. punctata is more pathogenic and C. oncophora is more common
80
Where does Nematodirus Helvetian’s develop into L3? How is there immunity with this parasite?
Inside the egg Shedding is rare in animals > 6 months of age
81
What 2 parasites of the bovine small intestine enter via ingestion of L3 or skin penetration? In what bovine small intestinal parasite are the adult females only parasitic?
Bunostomum and strongyloides papillosus Strongyloides papillosus
82
What is the nodular bowel worm?
Oesophagostomum
83
What bovine large intestinal worm is a whip worm and have bipolar plugs?
Trichuris
84
What are some clinical signs seen in sheep with GIN infection?
Bottle jaw, death, reduced production, anemia, weight loss, diarrhea
85
What are the two main syndromes of GIN in sheep? What are the clinical signs? What causes it?
Parasitic gastroenteritis - reduced weight gain and diarrhea, Teladorsagia, Cooperia, Chabertia ovina, trichostrongylus, nematodirus, oesophagostomum Haemonchosis - acute anemia, edema, lethargy, and death, Haemonchus contortus (barber pole worm)
86
What worm in the small intestine in sheep develops to L3 inside the egg, eggs overwinter on pasture, hatching is triggered by sudden rise in temp in spring, and causes illness and death in lambs in PPP?
Nematodirus battus
87
What is anthelmintic resistance?
Heritable trait, present when within a population more individuals are able to tolerate doses of a drug that, in a normal population of the same species, would be harmful
88
What is Refugia?
Susceptible subset of the population present on pasture, not exposed to the anthelmintic treatment, that will subsequently re-infect the flock
89
What are 5 factors determining the rate of resistance development?
Underdosing Length of time used Frequency of treatment Pasture management Size of in-refugia population
90
What is widely used to detect AHR?
FEC reduction test (FECRT)
91
How is a FECRT performed?
Take a fecal sample, then treat Take another fecal sample 2 weeks later % efficacy = (pre-treatment FEC - post treatment FEC)/pre-treatment FEC x 100 Drug resistance when FECRT less than 95%

Parasitology (3 decks)

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