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Capstone 2 > Catch-all > Flashcards

Catch-all Flashcards

1
Q

5 Freedoms of animal welfare

A 
Freedom from hunger/thirst
Freedom from discomfort
Freedom from pain/injury/disease
Freedom to express normal behavior
Freedom from fear/distress
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2
Q

Fraser’s 3 circles of animal welfare

A

Basic health/functioning
Natural living
Affective states

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3
Q

5 Domains of animal welfare (newest framework)

A 
Nutrition
Environment
Health
Behavior
Mental experiences
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4
Q

Frameworks often used to assess animal welfare

A

5 freedoms, Fraser’s 3 circles, 5 domains, quality of life scales

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5
Q

How do you tell a thrombus vs. a post mortem clot

A

thrombus is attached to endothelium, looks like cranberry sauce

PM clot isn’t attached

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6
Q

How do you tell an arterial thrombus vs. venous thrombus

A

aterial - paler, dry (usually only fibrin, platelets can stick in a high P area), firmer, friable

venous - dark red, soft/gelatinous, shiny

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7
Q

normal ratio of left ventricular wall to right ventricular wall

A

3 or 4:1

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8
Q

-oma/sarcoma refers to tumors of what origin?

A

mesenchymal (these tumors also produce their own stroma - tumor microenvironment)

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9
Q

-oma/carcinoma refers to tumors of what origin?

A

epithelial

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10
Q

anisocytosis

A

variation in cell size

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11
Q

pleomorphism

A

variation in cell shape

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12
Q

anisokaryosis

A

variation in nuclear size

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13
Q

what does tumor grade/stage mean?

A

grade - where on the spectrum of benign to malignant

stage - extent of tumor spread (e.g. lymph node involvment, metastasis)

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14
Q

What is the protein that neoplastic cells stop responding to, which allows them to continue to grow and differentiate?

A

P53 - triggers apoptosis

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15
Q

Most common cause of hypercalcemia of malignancy

A

carcinoma/sarcoma (90% adenocarcinoma) causing ectopic excess release of PTH or PTHrP

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16
Q

Distribution of bronchopneumonia

A

cranial (b/c URT, aerogenous pathogen exposure)
ventral (b/c gravity)
aka lobar

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17
Q

Distribution of interstitial (or also verminous) pneumonia

A

dorso-caudal

Can be diffuse, non-collapsing lung (b/c hematogenous pathogen exposure)

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18
Q

hypervitaminosis A in reptiles and birds

A

squamous metaplasia of URT

hyperkeratinization of eyes

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19
Q

Distribution of granulomatous or embolic pneumonia

A

random multifocal

If ganulomatous - top ddx is neoplasia

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20
Q

which is more severe? suppurative or fibrinous?

A

Fibrinous

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21
Q

2 bacteria that commonly cause lobar bronchopneumonia

A 
Pasteurella
Mannheimia haemolitica (shipping fever)
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22
Q

bovine pulmonary edema and emphysema
aka atypical interstitial penumonia
aka fog fever

A
  • non-infectious cause of interstitial pneumonia
  • Lush pasture high in L-tryptophan –> metabolized into a toxin that kills pneumocytes/emndothelium
  • acute edema, interstitial emphysema, dyspnea, mouth breathing and extended neck, but NO FEVER
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23
Q

1 etiologic agent can produce respiratory disease with variable patterns

A

Rhodococcus equi can be inhaled or hematogenous entry –> different disease patterns

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24
Q

Atelectasis

A

collapse or incomplete expansion of alveoli

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25
Q

tumors that commonly metastasize to lungs in dogs

A

mammary tumor
melanoma
lymphoma

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26
Q

tumors that commonly metastasize to lungs in cats

A

mammary tumor
thyroid carcinoma
vaccine site fibrosarcoma

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27
Q

restrictive respiratory dz is a decrease in _____ and causes what kind of breathing?

A

decreased compliance

rapid, shallow breaths

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28
Q

obstructive respiratory dz is a decrease in _____ and causes what kind of breathing?

A

decreased ventilation

slower deep respirations

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29
Q

atrophic rhinitis in pigs caused by who?

A

P. multocida (toxin causes turbinate remodeling) + B. bronchiseptica

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30
Q

Rednose aka Bovine infectious rhinotracheitis is caused by who?

A

BHV-1

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31
Q

“Roaring” in horses

A

laryngeal hemiplegia
atrophy of dorsal and lateral cricoarytenoid mm. on LEFT side (L recurrent laryngeal n. )
can occur in dogs too

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32
Q

What important things are in the guttural pouch?

A

Cr. nn. 7, 9-12
Internal carotid a.
cranial sympathetic trunk

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33
Q

Most common guttural pouch problem

A

Guttural pouch mycosis
usually lateral
inhalation of mold (Aspergillus spp) from feed = necrotizing fungal infection
See epistaxis, neuro probs

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34
Q

What to the P wave, QRS complex, and T wave relate to in a heartbeat

A

P - atrial depolarization
QRS - ventricular depolarization
T - ventricular repolarization

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35
Q

What does the RAA system regulate

A

blood volume to maintain perfusion

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36
Q

CO = ____ x _____

A

SV x HR

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37
Q

What activates the RAA system? What is the result?

A

peripheral vasoconstriction –> increased ADH and aldosterone from kidney/liver –> Na and water retention

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38
Q

Does high afterload –> concentric or eccentric hypertrophy?

A

concentric (d/t increased pressure)

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39
Q

Does high preload –> concentric or eccentric hypertrophy?

A

eccentric (d/t increased volume)

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40
Q

pulmonary edema a sign of what kind of failure of the heart?

A

left-sided, backward failure

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41
Q

ascites, brisket edema, etc can be signs of what kind of failure of the heart?

A

right-sided, backward failure

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42
Q

cor pulmonale

A

primary pulmonary dz causes secondary right heart failure

e.g. COPD, dirofilariasis, pulmonary thromboembolism

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43
Q

how do clin signs vary between L and R sided CHF?

A

L - dyspnea, froth, etc

R - venous engorgement, peripheral edema

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44
Q

Two hormones required for male parts to form

A

DHT, AMH

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45
Q

What cell types makes testosterone?

AMH? E2? Progesterone?

A

T - Leydig cells, theca cells
AMH - Sertoli
E2 - Granulosa cells
P - luteal cells

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46
Q

What hormone activates leydig cells? sertoli?

A

L - LH

S - FSH

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47
Q

How long does spermatogenesis take?

A

60 days

then 10 to move through epidiymus

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48
Q

At what anatomic location are sperm fertile, but not mobile?

A

tail (cauda) of epidiymus

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49
Q

Tan, soft testicular tumor (most common testicular tumor in dog)

A

interstitial/leydig cell tumor

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50
Q

white, firm testicular tumor

A

sustentacular (sertoli) cell tumor

Increases estrogen –> behavioral changes

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51
Q

Ferguson reflex is a neuroendocrine response d/t what? What is the result?

A

cervical stim (fetus in birth canal) or nursing/suckling causing milk let-down

causes oxytocin release –> uterine conxn, cervix relaxation, myoepithelial call conxn for milk, oviduct conxn (gamete movement)

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52
Q

What negatively feedbacks on FSH

A

E2, inhibin

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53
Q

What negatively feedbacks on LH

A

progesterone (produced by luteal cells in CL)

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54
Q

Role of PGF2alpha

A

produced by endometrium

causes lysis of CL when not pregnant (except not for dogs/cats)

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55
Q

bloody vaginal mucus in a cow - breedable?

A

Nope. too late. In metestrus

Standing to be bred = estrus

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56
Q

who are induced ovulators

A

SAC, cats, rabbits, ferrets

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57
Q

What hormone will be elevated in a spayed bitch

A

LH

or look for low AMH

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58
Q

What is wierd about dogs and optimal breeding time

A

optimal breeding is post-ovulation for dogs

standing heat occurs when progesterone increasing, E2 decreasing (vs. other spp heat is at estrogen peak)

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59
Q

what must an EQ embryo produce to pass from UTJ to uterus?

A

prostaglandin E2

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60
Q

What do bovine and ovine embryos secrete for MRP? How does it cause MRP?

A 
interferon tau (IFN-t)
inhibits oxytocin receptors in endometrium
no oxytocin = no PGF2alpha synthesis or luteolysis
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61
Q

What do pig embryos secrete for MRP? How does it cause MRP?

A

estradiol (E2)
re-routes PGF secretion into uterine lumen
At least 4 embryos required for MRP, at least 1 in each horn

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62
Q

EQ MRP

A

exact signal unknown

embryos migrate throughout uterine body and both horns multiple times

63
Q

Why do horses not often have twins?

A

placental insufficiency = early loss or abortion

64
Q

Diffuse placenta

A

EQ, pig

microcotyledons evenly spread out across placenta

65
Q

Cotyledonary placenta

A

rum

discrete attachment sites btwn placental cotyledons and uterine caruncles (called placentoms)

66
Q

zonary placenta

A

carnivores

placenta and endometrium in band around fetus

67
Q

epitheliochorial placenta

A

LA
6 layers of separation = no Ig transfer
colostrum intake critical

68
Q

endotheliochorial placenta

A

dogs, cats
4 layers of separation = some ig transfer
colostrum intake important

69
Q

hemochorial placenta

A

primates, rodents
3 layers of separation = significant Ig transfer
colostrum not a thing

70
Q

What to EQ endometrial cups do?

A

produce eCG
eCG –> LH/FSH activity –> accessory CL = additional progesterone to support early pregnancy (until placenta takes over)

71
Q

How could you could you figure out the cause of a hydranencephalic calf in CO?

A

Ab test for BTV and cache valley virus

if negative, send to feds to test for akbane, schmallenberg

72
Q

major teratogenic lesion of cytopathic BVDV

A

cerebellar hypoplasia

73
Q

how does the fetus signal it’s ready to be birthed in most spp?

A

Fetal ACTH, cortisol which increases estradiol/estrogen from placenta, which decreases progesterone, increases PGF2alpha

74
Q

When is a placenta deemed pathologically retained, and why is that a concern?

A

> 3 hrs

concern is bacterial buildup –> peritonitis, laminitis, etc. especially for EQ

75
Q

at what point do you need to intervene when a delivery is not occuring but animal is in stage 2 of parturition?

A

20-30 mins of pushing

76
Q

what is absolutely required in the udder for milk production

A

glucose

provides E and is precursor for lactose synth

77
Q

Single most effective practice to reduce mastitis

A

post-milking teat dip

78
Q

soft, tan-pink testis tumor in stallion that bulges on cut

A

seminoma (round cell tumor)

79
Q

cut off for hypoxemia

A

PaO2 < 80 mm hg (severe < 60)

80
Q

What cause of hypoxemia is absolutely not responsive to supplemental oxygen?

A

shunt, sometimes low V/Q mismatch

81
Q

5 causes of hypoxemia

A 
decreased PIO2
hypoventilation
diffusion impairment
V/Q mismatch
shunt
82
Q

What kind of breathing is seen with restrictive lung dz?

obstructive?

A

r - rapid, shallow

o - deep, slow

83
Q

Top 5 viral causes for resp dz in bov

A

BHV-1 (IBR), BVDV, BRSV, PI-3, BC(coronoa)V

84
Q

What key resp bacteria do you want to vaccinate for?

A

M. haemolytica - leukotoxin causes necrosis, vacc must have leukotoxin to be effective

85
Q

characteristic sign of metastatic pneumonia and it’s MOA

A

hemorrhage - epistaxis, hemoptysis, anemia, melena

septic emboli –> vena caval thrombosis, walls erode –> bleed a lot

86
Q

description of interstitial pneumonia lungs

A

wet, heavy, don’t collapse

87
Q

which EQ herpesviruses cause resp dz (and abortion)

A

EHV 1 & 4
(1 also causes CNS & ocular)
5 - EQ multinodular pulmonary fibrosis

88
Q

Differentiate between EQ influenza and EQ viral arteritisV

A

flu - constant severe cough

EAV - occ. cough, ocular discharge, rash, abortion

89
Q

Reportable EQ resp dz agents in CO

A

EAV

EHV-1

90
Q

Problem with timing of a R. equi infection

A

foals susceptible if <3 wks old, but don’t see signs of dz until 3-6 mo old

91
Q

emergency stabilization for URT obstructive dz

A

tracheotomy

92
Q

How do you differentiate between false black leg and true black leg

A

true black leg will result in a positive fluorescent Ab Id of C. chauvoei

93
Q

top DDx’s for feline rhinitis (5)

A 
neoplasia
FHV-1
B. bronchiseptica
Mycoplasma spp
allergens
94
Q

Key part of treatment plan to reduce clin signs of dogs with airway collapse

A

weight loss

95
Q

Common sequelae to cats w/ pyothorax

A

sepsis

96
Q

Common kinds of heart dz in dogs

A

MMVD (or AV valve degen in general)

DCM

97
Q

Most common heart dz in cats

A

HCM

severe concentric hypertrophy of LV –> diastolic dysfunc

98
Q

Causes of DCM

A
  • genetic
  • Doberman pinscher
  • Taurine def in cats
  • grain free diet in dogs
99
Q

On auscultation, what does S1 correlate to

A

MV/TV closing

100
Q

On auscultation, what does S2 correlate to

A

AoV/PV closing

101
Q

On auscultation, the time between S1 & S2 correlates to? Should it be longer or shorter?

A

systole

should be shorter than diastole (S2 to S1)

102
Q

In a normal heart echo, RV should be what size vs. LV

A

1/3 the size of the LV

103
Q

What initial things occur with the beginning of HF (decreased CO, BP)

A
  • RAAS to increase blood vol
  • activate SNS to increase contractility/increase HR, systemic vasoconstriction
  • chronic activation can be detrimental –> hypertrophy, fibrosis, arrhthmyia
104
Q

systemic hypertension + heart dz implies what?

A

concurrent dz - kidney dz, cushings (dog), hyperthyroid (cat)

105
Q

Key part of treating heart failure

A

diuretics or venodilators

decrease pre-load to avoid causing venous congestion/edema

106
Q

Treat L sided CHF

A

Laysix (furosemide) - Na/K/Cl pump inhibitor = facilitates excretion of all those + water
dry out the pulmonary edema with diuretics

107
Q

Signs of R-sided HF

A

ascites, hepatomegaly, jugular pulses, SQ edema

108
Q

Treat R-sided HF

A

Thoracocentesis - relieve resp distress drom pleural effusion
Furosemide/Laysix

109
Q

Top 3 causes of HCM

A

primary HCM, hyperthyroid, hypertensive heart dz

110
Q

General plan for treating emergency CHF in a dog

A

FOPS

Furosemide, oxygen, pimobendan (positive inotrope by Ca sensitization), sedate

111
Q

What is ACE-I used for?

A

at home CHF management, treat systemic hypertension, renal dz

112
Q

a left apical systolic murmur - top ddx’s are what? (3)

A

Mitral valve dysplasia d/t:

DCM, bacterial endocarditis, congenital dysplasia

113
Q

At home CHF management

A

FAPS

furosemide, ACE-I, pimobendan, sprionolactone (aldosterone antagonist)

114
Q

What is the secondary concern for HCM cats?

A

decreased ejection = stasis of blood = increased risk of thromboembolism

115
Q

treat for acute thromboembolism

A

Analgesia FIRST

then treat congestion if present, then go from there to threat thrombus

116
Q

most common primary heart tumor

A

hemangiosarcoma (often see secondary pericardial effusion)

117
Q

Cor pulmonale, anemia, proteinuria, hemoglobinuria, DIC, pulmonary hypertension, V/Q mismatch all =

A

heartworm

118
Q

How does heartworm cause dz

A

Ag-Ab complexes –> glomerulonephritis

abberant migrationt o eye, muscle, heart etc.

119
Q

Reasons you may have a negative heartworm snap test

A

b/c it detects adult female heartworm Ag

False neg if early infect, all male or low females

120
Q

How do you treat hypertension long term?

A

Amlodipine (Norvasc) PO - vascular selective Ca channel blocker - stops Ca flow to vascular smooth m.

121
Q

Common EQ heart dz

A

aortic valve degeneration

122
Q

normal EQ arrhythmia

A

sinus arrhythmia w/ second degree heart block

123
Q

most common congenital defect in rum

A

VSD

124
Q

common arrhythmia in rum

A

atrial fibrillation

125
Q

how to hook up an ECG for rum

A

base-apex lead - d/t anatomy of cow

126
Q

if seen an arrhythmia in a cow - top 3 ddx

A

electrolyte abnormality
toxemia
neoplasia

127
Q

diagnose bov high mountain dz

A

pulmonary artery pressure test (>50 is bad)

128
Q

what is a key bloodwork indicator for endocarditis in rum

A

hyperglobulinemia

129
Q

5 ddx’s for brisket edema in cows

A 
CHF
lymphosarcoma
endocarditis
pericarditis
pulmonary hypertension
130
Q

how much O2 in an E tank? H tank?

A

650 L

7,000 L

131
Q

what is lactate an indirect measure of?

A

hypoxemia

132
Q

Increased bun but normal cr

A

hemorrhage in SI (b/c high protein —> ammonia pulled from protein and —> urea)

133
Q

Which liver enzyme could also indicate a muscle issue?

A

AST (check CK - should also be elevated)

134
Q

Which liver enzymes can be increased w/ increased steroids?

A

ALT, ALP (thus, Cushings = high ALP)

135
Q

Enzymes that indicated liver function (induced enz)

A

ALP, GGT

136
Q

Things produced by the liver - thus, abnormalities = prob w/ liver func

A

Albumin, BUN, Cholesterol, Glucose, Coag factors, bile acids

137
Q

Test of choice to confirm canine pancreatitis

A

PLI

138
Q

What bloodwork signs would separate maldigestion (EPI) from malabsorption

A

EPI - hypoalbuminemia, hypocalcemia, may see fecal fat, decreased B12
Malab - Hypocholesterolemia, panhypoproteinemia, hypocalcemic

139
Q

Test of choice to confirm EPI? What numbers do you want?

A

TLI, <2.5 = EPI, > 5 = GI dz

140
Q

Increased folate, decreased B12

A

bacterial overgrowth

141
Q

Decreased folate, decreased B12

A

gen malabsorption

142
Q

Test for PPID in EQ

A

Endogenous ACTH (no DDST b/c causes laminitis in animal already prone)

143
Q

Calculate corrected chloride

A

Measured cl x (normal na/measured na)

144
Q

Absolute hyperkalemia - top 3 ddx

A

Anuric or oliguric renal failure, uroabdomen/urinary obstruction, hypoadrenocorticism

145
Q

Calculate anion gap

A

UA (na +k) - UC (bicarb + cl)

146
Q

If you aspirate a lymph node and run flow cytometry and there is a spike in markers for CD21 antibodies - what type of lymphoma do you likely have?

A

B cell
If CD34 - immature cells aka acute leukemia
If CD45 - B & T cell
If CD 3-8 - T cell

147
Q

When do you run PARR?

A

Need to confirm neoplastic (monoclonal) vs. reactive (polyclonal) - ID’s neoplastic cell pop only, no prognostic info

148
Q

4 ddx for rich pleural effusion in cats

A

Chylothorax, reactive, lymphoproliferative/neoplastic, thymoma

149
Q

When treating DKA, what do you address first

A

Fluid/electrolyte imbalance first, then regular insulin, then glucose

150
Q

What take-home insulin do you give a DKA patient

A

Intermediate-acting (NPH or vetsulin)

151
Q

Treat insulin in cats:

A

glargine

152
Q

What is a common concurrent illness seen in hyperadrenocorticism cats

A

DM - glucose is counter-reg hormone

153
Q

name counter-regulatory hormones

A 
epinephrine
cortisol
progesterone
growth hormone
glucagon
thyroid hormone

Capstone 2 (6 decks)

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