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Capstone 2 > BOD 2 & 3 > Flashcards

BOD 2 & 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Thymus’s default reaction to injury

A

atrophy

involution at sexual maturity normal, unless rodent or rabbit

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2
Q
  • Grower/weaner pigs 6-16 wks with systemic infection/chronic wasting/failure to thrive
  • On necropsy see lymphadenitis, thymic depletion
  • Histo shows active granulomatous inflammation, lymphoid depletion
A

PCV-2 causing Thymitis (really only main clinical cause why you’d see thymitis)

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3
Q

2 types of thymic neoplasia and assoc’d signalments

A
  1. Thymic lymphosarcoma (T cells) - likely FeLV assoc’d if cat (+/- chylous effusion)
  2. Thymoma (epithelial cells) - adult goats
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4
Q

2 paraneoplastic syndromes for thymoma

A

Dogs - myasthenia gravis

Cats - feline exfoliative dermatitis

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5
Q

DDx’s for diffuse, gelatinous, bloody, splenomegaly

A

Splenic torsion
Barbiturates
Splenitis

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6
Q

DDx’s for nodular, gelatinous, bloody, splenomegaly

A

Hematoma
Hemangioma
Hemangiosarcoma
Acute splenic infarction

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7
Q

Primary sites for hemangiosarcoma

A 
spleen
liver
right atrium
bone marrow
skin
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8
Q

How do you differentiate between African and Classical swine fever?

A

Classical - acute splenic infarcts

African - blood splenomegaly

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9
Q

DDx’s for diffuse, meaty, solid splenomegaly (bulges on cut)

A

Lymphosarcoma
Mastocytosis
Hyperplasia (d/t increased immune stim, phagocytosis, or hematoposesis

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10
Q

DDx’s for nodular, meaty, solid splenomegaly (bulges on cut)

A
  • nodular lymphoid hyperpalsia (lymphoid follicle proliferation)
  • neoplasm
  • granuloma or abscess (septic bacterial, fungal, protozoal)
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11
Q

primary splenic neoplasms (causing nodular splenomegaly)

A

LSA - can cause diffuse or nodular
leiomyosarcoma, fibrosarcoma
Myelolipoma

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12
Q

neoplasms that commonly metastasize to the spleen

A

mammary carcinoma
squamous cell carcinoma
osteosarcoma

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13
Q

Causes of lymphadenitis

A

Classic or african swine fever - hemorrhagic necrotizing lymphadenitis
Corynebacterium pseutoTB - casesous lymphadenitis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis or bovis - granulomatous lymphadenitis

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14
Q

Peripheral, caseous lymphadenitis in a goat

A

Corynebacterium pseutoTB

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15
Q 
fever + weight loss
mild anemia
stress leukogram
Paraneoplastic hypercalcemia (d/t PTHrP)
lymphadenopathy
organomegaly - spleen or liver usually
A

Clin signs of LSA in dog (B cell most often)

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16
Q

what virus causes LSA in adult cattle

A

BLV - bov leukosis virus (Retrovirus)

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17
Q

where is the multicentric location of LSA in cattle

A

HURLS - heart, uterus, retro-orbital/renal, lymph nodes, spinal cord/stomach

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18
Q

what disease state often predisposes dogs/cats for lymphangectasia (dilated lymph vessels)? rum?

A

d/c - PLE, chronic lymphangitis

rum - Johne’s dz

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19
Q

what causes serous atrophy of bone marrow adipose

A

negative E balance

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20
Q

Infectious causes of aplastic anemia

A

CPV-2, feline panleukopenia, FeLV, Rickettsia, Ehrlichia

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21
Q

why are young livestock at increased risk of septicemia –> physitis or osteomyelitis

A

decreased or failed passive transfer

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22
Q

Sequestrum and involucrum MOA

A

trauma/hypoxia –> bone necrosis –> foreign body reaction, lytic/exudate pocket

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23
Q

2 pathologies of non-infectious osteomyelitis in young dogs

A 
Panosteitis - medullary fibrosis, shifting leg lameness
Metaphyseal osteopathy (or hypertrophic osteodystrophy) - double physis on rads, progressive lameness
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24
Q

4 types of metabolic bone disease (all d/t Ca/P imbalance)

A

Osteoporosis
Osteomalacia
Rickets
Fibrous osteodystrophy

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25
Q

What causes osteomalacia (defective mineralization of bone)

A 
vit d deficiency (decreased Ca, P absorption)
Phosphorus deficiency (or Ca or both)
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26
Q

MOA of rickets

A
  • Vit D or P deficiency –> defective mineralization of osteoid in the physis (how differs from osteomalacia), juveniles only –> deformities
  • get metaphyseal flaring, rachitic rosary
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27
Q

Fibrous osteodystrophy MOA

A 
Primary hyperparathyroidism (rare) or
Secondary " " (renal dz or nutritional issue) --> High PTH --> excess Ca release from bone --> replacement fibrosis - soft spongy bones, rubber jaw
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28
Q

How does renal dz cause secondary hyperparathyroidism (thus, fibrous osteodystrophy)

A

Decreased excretion of P = high P, low Ca = increased PTH secretion = more Ca mobilized from bone

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29
Q

How does nutrition cause secondary hyperparathyroidism (thus, fibrous osteodystrophy)

A

high P, low Ca, low Vit D = increased PTH secretion = more Ca mobilized from bone
e.g. carn on meat diet, Pig/EQ on grain/bran diets, lack of UVB in reptiles

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30
Q

Osteochondrodysplasia

A

abnormal endochondrial ossification –> defective cartilage development –> (disproportionate) dwarf stature or uncontrolled growth (e.g. daschhounds)

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31
Q

What is the most common primary bone tumor in domestics?

A

Osteosarcoma
(malignant mesenchymal tumor of osteoblasts
produces osteoid)

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32
Q

Osteosarcoma behavior

A

Osteolytic - destroys cortical bone, stimulates reactive woven bone, inflamm around site
Highly invasive but doesn’t cross joints/articular surfaces
often metastasizes to lungs early

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33
Q

Eburnation

A

subchondral bone exposed through cartilage

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34
Q

How does synovium respond to injury?

A

inflammation
villous hyperplasia of synoviocytes
Pannus (fibroplasia over areas of eburnation)

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35
Q

immune-mediated polyarthritis is what type of hypersensitivity

36
Q

focal areas of abnormal thickening of cartilage from failed ENOS of epiphysis is…? what can it progress to?

A 
Osteochondrosis
osteochondrosis dessicans (thick cartilage --> hypoxia --> necrosis, fragmentation of cartilage --> subchondral bone exposed, weakened --> subchondral cyst --> cavitating defect)
37
Q

Who is especially prone to subchondral bone cysts

38
Q

Which is an acute annulus rupture - hansen type I or type II IVDD?

39
Q

What is the one bacterial spp that grows well in muscle (anerobic conditions)

A

Clostridium

C. chauvei causes true black leg in rum

40
Q

What is the fatal lesion of black leg?

A

necrosis of cardiac muscle

41
Q

severe extertion –> lactic acid buildup –> myonecrosis causes what 2 diseases?

A

Tying-up in EQ (EQ exertional rhabdomyolysis)

Capture myopathy in wildlife (–> death by cardiac necrosis)

42
Q

malignant hyperthermia in pigs - MOA

A

genetic receptor mutation + stress –> ungregulated, prolonged Ca channels open –> sustained muscle contractions –> lactic acidosis, hyperthermia, death

43
Q

what deficiency can cause a nutritional myopathy?

A

Vit E/Se - b/c not there to scavenge free radicals –

> muscle damage/necrosis

44
Q

CNS/brain trauma usually results in what?

A

Herniation —> ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke

45
Q

Common MOA for atherosclerotic thrombosis

A

Hypothyroid or high fat diet —> hypercholesterolemia —> plaque build up and thrombosis

46
Q

4 types of cerebral edema

A

Vasogenic - vascular injury, most severe, fluid accum in white matter
Cytotoxic - intracellular accum d/t ionic change
Interstitial - periventricular white matter d/t increased ventricular p
Osmotic - protein loss in GI, kidney, or skin

47
Q

Wallerian degeneration

A

White matter lesion
Axonal change, then Macrophages eat degraded myelin leaving digestion chambers
See in type 2 Hansen spinal cord dz

48
Q

Feline ischemic encephalopathy often d/t

A

Cuterebra larvae migration causing focal cerebrovascular dz

49
Q

PEM

A

Softening of cerebrocortical grey matter
Usually a thiamine deficiency, excess thiaminases (in fish), heat, sulfur compounds
Diagnose at necropsy w/ woods lamp

50
Q

Thiamine deficiency, sulfur or lead tox, and salt tox all affect grey or white matter of the brain?

51
Q

Circling disease is caused by who? Where are lesions seen?

A 
Listeria monocytogenes
Brain stem (also abortive, ocular, systemic infec besides nervous lesions)
52
Q

How would you differentiate morbilivirus (canine distemper) from rabies on histo of neuro tissue?

A

Rabies - intracytoplasmic inclusions only

Distemper - intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions

53
Q

Viruses that cause cerebellar hypoplasia in utero

A

Canine parvo
Feline panleukopenia
BVD, CSF

54
Q

An adenoma of the adenohypophysis (ant pituitary) wiould cause what dz state?

A

Pituitary dependent Cushings (hyperadrenocorticism) - a secondary hyperfunc
Excess ACTH = adrenal cortical hyperplasia = excess cortisol

55
Q

Adenoma of pars intermida of adenohypophysis (ant pit) in EQ causes

A

PPID from excess ACTH, clip, etc

56
Q

PTH causes an increase in what? Where does it act.

?

A

Calcium, vit D3

Kidneys (increase P secretion, Ca retention), bone, GI (Ca resorp)

57
Q

Vitamin D increases what?

A

Calcium, Phosphorus

58
Q

A parathyroid adenoma would show what on bloodwork?

A

Increased PTH, Ca
Low P
Normal or increased vit D
Increased ALP

59
Q

End stage renal failure causing secondary hyperparathyroidism would show what bloodwork?

A

High PTH, P

Nx or low vit D, iCa

60
Q

Adrenals: what does each zone produce

A

Glomerulosa - mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
Fasiculata - glucocorticoids (cortisol)
Reticularis - androgens, estrogens, progesterone

61
Q

Common consequence of addisons dz

A

Pituitary nodular hyperplasia

No negative feedback from cortisol (b/c adrenals are atrophied) = hyperplasia of pituitary to secrete more ACTH

62
Q

Ferrets and adrenal tumors

A

Hx of gonadectomy at 5-6 wks = no neg fedback = excess LH, zona reticularis hypertrophy

May also have active insulinoma - see adrenal dz + hyperinsulin/hypoglycemia

63
Q

Function of glucagon

A

Hypoglycemia = glucagon inhibits insluin, stims glu release from liver and fat

64
Q

Chronic/recurrent pancreatitis/ EPI or congenital islet hypoplasia can both cause what?

A

Diabetes mellitus

65
Q

Two diseases of the guttural pouch

A

Empyema - strep zooepidemicus

Mycosis - aspergillosis

66
Q

Who commonly gets otitis externa d/t ear conformation

A

Brachycephalics
Herding breeds, goldens, pomeranians, cocker spaniels
Moist environ —> secondaru bact infect, dermatitis

67
Q

Secondary causes of otitis externa

A

Staph, proteus, pseudomonas, e coli
Malassezia, candida yeast

BACT AND YEAST ARE NOT PRIMARY CAUSES OF OE

68
Q

Aural inflammatory polyps in cats is common with what kind of ear inflam?

A

Chronic otitis media

69
Q

Lens injury results in

A

Cataracts - opacification of the lens

70
Q

Sudden loss of vision is likely d/t

A

Retinal detachment

71
Q

Leading cause of enucleation in dogs. Second?

A

Glaucoma (from sustained increased IOP)

Melanoma

72
Q

common disease of intact older queens/bitches

A

CEM (cystic endometrial hyperplasia)

Progesterone primed endometrium –> CEM –> pyometra

73
Q

MOA for pizzle rot in rams

A

High protein diet –> excess urea in urine where C. renale turns it into ammonia –> injury to local area

74
Q

Bacteria plays a role in mummification or maceration?

A

maceration

75
Q

sample trifecta for diagnosing abortion cases

A

placental, fetus, maternal serum

76
Q

Mass in the oral cavity

A

melanoma unless proven otherwise

next likely: SCC, fibrosarcoma

77
Q

how does bloat cause death?

A

asphyxiation, compression of caudal vena cava –> hypovolemic shock

78
Q

MOA of grain overload? sequelae?

A

grain drops rumen pH –> rumen acidosis –> bact overload –> liver abscesses –> bacterial embolism –> pulmonary a. hemorrhage (f. necrophorum)

79
Q

Is LDA or RDA more fatal in cows?

80
Q

6 causes of red urine

A

IMHA, blister beetles, copper tox in sheep, blood parasites, bacillary hemoglobinuria, lepto

81
Q

3 DDX’s for vasculitis in pigs

A

Erysipelothrix, salmonella septicemia, pcv-2

82
Q

Who needs a deep skin scraping? Demodex or sarcoptes

83
Q

what nutritional disorder causes hyperkeratosis of skin

A

vit A and zinc deficiency

84
Q

cancers that can cause hypercalcemia of malignancy

A

AGASACA (makes PTHrP)
T cell lymphome
multiple myeloma
occasionally carcinomas

85
Q

EQ sarcoids (most common horse skin tumor) caused by what?

A

bov papilloma virus

Capstone 2 (6 decks)

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