Case 9 - Disorders of muscle Flashcards
1
Q
- What are the 3 types of muscle?
- What are the 2 muscle types that are striated?
- Which 2 muscles are involuntary muscles?
- What is the function of skeletal muscle?
- How do muscle cells end up with just 1 neuron innervating them?
A
- Smooth muscle, skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle
- Cardiac & Skeletal muscle
- Cardiac & Smooth muscle
- Moving bones around joints
- Synaptic competition - so the most appropriate connection wins, others die as you train etc.
2
Q
- What forms the tendons?
- What is a muscle cell called?
- Where do muscles form from in the embryo?
- What are the muscle cell precursor?
- How many axons innervate a single muscle fiber?
A
- Connective tissue sheath, which encloses the muscles
- Muscle fiber
- somites (33 of them)
- Myoblasts derived from the Mesoderm
- A single axon innervates a single muscle fiber
3
Q
Define the following terms:
- Synergists
- Antagonist
- Hypertrophy
- Hyperplasia
- Atrophy
- Muscle tone
A
- Muscles that all work together, pulling in the same direction
- Muscles that have opposite actions, pulling in different directions
- Increase in the size of the cells, growth of muscle fibers
- Increase in the number of cells
- Degeneration of muscle fibers
- tautness when muscles are at rest, due to low rate of nerve impulses from spinal cord
4
Q
- What part of the spinal cord innervates somatic motor neurons?
- Where are LMN found, What do they do?
- What are the 2 types of LMN?
A
- Ventral horn of the spinal cord
- In the spinal cord, command muscle contraction
- Alpha motor neuron & Gamma motor neurons
5
Q
Identify:
- Ventral horn
- Ventral root
- Mixed spinal nerve

A

6
Q
- What is the function of an alpha motor neuron?
- What is a motor unit?
- What is a motor neuron pool?
- How is the contraction of muscle controlled? (x2)
- Why would you cycle through different motor units?
A
- Triggers the generation of force by muscle
- 1 AMN and the fibers it innervates
- Collection of AMN’s that innervate a single muscle
- Vary the firing rate of motor neurons OR recruit additional synergistic motor units
- Prevents fatigue of muscle fibers
7
Q
- What NT is released by AMN at the neuromuscular junction?
- What does a single postynaptic AP cause in a muscle?
- What causes sustained contraction?
- What happens above 40Hz frequency of contraction?
- How many muscle fibers per motor unit do muscles for fine actions require compared to large muscles?
A
- Acetylcholine (ACh)
- Twitch - Rapid sequence of contraction & relaxation
- Continual AP’s
- Tetanic contraction - sustained muscle contraction
- Large muscles - have more muscle fibers per AMN, compared to smaller muscles.
8
Q
- What are the 3 sources of input into AMN’s?
- What NT’s do the interneurons use?
A
- Muscle spindle
- Upper motor neurons - initiate and control voluntary movement
- Interneurons in the spinal cord - regulation of spinal motor programmes, can be excitatory or inhibitory
- Excitatory signal - Glutamate
- Inhibitory signal - GABA or Glycine
9
Q
What are the 3 types of muscle fiber? What colour are they generally?
A
- Slow muscle - Red [Type I]
- Fast fiber - fatigable, White [Type IIb]
- Fast fiber - Fatigue resistant, White [Type IIa]
10
Q
Which characteristics correspond to which type of fiber (Type I, Type IIb, Type IIa):
- Type of metabolism
- Mitochondria
- Enzymes for oxidative metabolism
- contraction speed
- Length of contraction
- Blood supply
- Myoglobin content
- Sarcoplasmic reticulum
- Ca+ pump transport rate
- Fatigue resistance
A
- Slow fibers - Aerobic metabolism, Fast fibers - Anaerobic metabolism
- Fast fibers - Less mitochondria, Slow fibers - large number of mitochondria
- Slow fibers - large number of enzymes for oxidative metabolism
- Slow fibers - slow contraction
- Slow fibers - sustained contraction without fatigue
- Slow fibers - Extensive blood vessels
- Slow fibers - large stores of myoglobin, Fast fibers - deficit of myoglobin
- Fast fibers - extensive SR for rapid release of Ca+
- Fast fibers - high Ca+ pump transport rate
- Type I & Type IIa - Resistant to fatigue, Type IIb - Non-resistant to fatigue
11
Q
- Why would type I fibers need a smaller diameter?
- What is the sequence of recruitment for the muscle fibers?
A
- Requires O2 and so needs to have a short diffusion distance for the O2.
- Type IIb fibers have large diameter because they work anaerobically and so O2 diffusion is not important.
- Slow — FR — FF
12
Q
Identify the fibers from the graph:
- Fast fatigable
- Fast-fatigue resistant
- Slow
- Which fiber generates the strongest force?
A
- Fast fatigable fibers
13
Q
- What is a slow motor unit?
- What is a fast fiber unit? How types are there?
- What is the difference in characteristics between them?
- Motor neuron size, and conduction velocity
- Types of muscle fibers
- Activity (When are they activated)
A
- Contains only slow fibers (Red)
- Contains either FF or FR white fibers
- slow motor unit - Small diameter, slow conduction, easy to excite.
- Only a few muscle fibers
- Mainly type I
- First to be recruited, frequently active
- Fast motor unit - large diameter, fast conduction, hard to excite.
- Many muscle fibers
- Type II
- Recruited if strong contraction required
14
Q
Resting membrane potential
- What is the ion pump responsible for setting the resting membrane potential (RMP)
- What does it do?
- K+ leaks out of the cell, but what keeps the inside negative?
A
- Na+/K+ pump
- Pumps 3K+ in for 2 Na+ out of the cell. Using ATP
- Proteins which are negative
15
Q
Neuron stimulation
- What channels open?
- Which way does Na move?
- What happens to the inside of the cell?
- What happens to the Na+ channels during this time?
A
- Na+ channels open
- Na+ moves down concentration gradient INTO the cell
- Inside becomes more +ive
- Na+ channel inactivation gate, slowly closes
16
Q
Repolarisation
- What happens here?
- What makes the cell negative again?
A
- Na+ channels inactivation gate shuts
- K+ channels open
- The K+ within the cell pours out, inside is more -ive.
17
Q
- What is used to synthesise ACh?
- Where is it synthesised?
- What is ACh exchanged with to enter the vesicles?
- What is used to break down ACh?
A
- ATP supplied by mitochondria
- In the cytoplasm
- H+ (Proton)
- Acetylcholinesterase AChE
18
Q
Identify the following & What is their function?
- Dense bars
- Axon
- Vesicles
- Ca+ Channels
- Nicotinic Acetylcholine receptors
- Voltage activated Na+ channels
- Synaptic cleft
A
- Holds the vesicles in place for release
19
Q
ACh release
- What causes ACh vesicles to move to the membrane?
- Is Ca+ required for NT release?
- What are SNARE’s?
- What are the 2 types of SNARE?
A
- AP causes Ca+ ions to enter the cell
- No, vesicles release NT spontaneously - Ca+ increases the probability of vesicle fusion
- Thought to be involved in connecting the vesicle to the pre-synaptic membrane
- V SNARE - Vesicular snare, T SNARE - Target membrane snare
20
Q
SNARE Hypothesis
- What is required to zip up the SNARE for fusion?
- What are the proteins required by the 2 SNARES?
A
- Ca+
- v-SNAREs - Synaptobrevin & Synaptotagmin t-SNAREs - Syntaxin & SNAP-25
21
Q
- How many ACh molecules are required to activate the receptor?
- Where do they attach?
- What happens when ACh binds?
- What ions can pass through?
- In practice which ion is the only one which passes?
A
- 2
- a sub-unit
- Conformational change - opens channel to allow ions in
- Na+, K+, and Ca++
- Na+
22
Q
- What does the passage of the Na+ ions do?
- What does the end plate potential do?
- What happens in the muscle fiber?
- What happens after contraction?
A
- Activate Nicotinic ACh receptors – Creates a local +ive potential change in the membrane (End plate potential)
- Initiates an AP in the muscle membrane - muscle contraction (EPSP)
- AP causes release of Ca+ from the Sarcoplasmic reticulum — Excitation contraction coupling.
- Reuptake of Ca+ into the SR, to stop contraction
23
Q
- What happens to the tetrad during an AP?
- Where does most of the Ca+ flow through?
A
- AP causes conformational change in tetrad channels - opens Ca+ release channel in SR membrane
- Ca+ release channels
24
Q
Constituents of the muscle fiber:
- Sarcoplasmic reticulum - What does this store?
- Sarcolemma
- Myofibrils - What are they responsible for?
- Transverse (T) Tubule -
- Nucleus
- Mitochondria

A
- Ca+
- Myofibrils are responsible for contraction in response to an AP

25
Q
- What is the receptor that senses the AP in the T tubule?
- What are they linked to?
- What do these channels do?
A
- Dihydropyridine receptor
- Ryanodine channels (Ca+ release channels)
- Release Ca+ into the sarcoplasm
26
Q
- Which protein pumps the Ca+ back into the SR?
- Which protein aids in the storage of Ca+ in the SR?
A
- SERCA
- Calsequestrin
27
Q
- What is anchored to the Z lines?
- What is Myosin composed of?
- What does the myosin head function as?
A
- Actin filaments
- 2 heavy polpeptide chains, and 4 light chains
- ATPase
28
Q
- What is Actin made of? (4)
- What are the 3 types of troponin?
- What does Troponin I bind to?
- What does troponin T bind to?
- What does Troponin C bind to?
A
- F actin, G Actin, Tropomyosin, and Troponin
- Troponin I, C, T
- Actin
- Tropomyosin
- Calcium
29
Q
Identify:
- I band
- H band
- A band
- Z line
- Titin
- Sarcomere
- M line
- Thin filament
- Thick filament

A

30
Q
- What causes rigor mortis?
A
- Muscles starved of ATP so myosin heads cannot detatch from actin
31
Q
- What happens to the sarcomere at rest?
A
- Myosin is free
- Troponin & Tropomyosin form a complex
32
Q
- What happens to the sarcomere during contraction?
- What happens on the Actin?
- What 2 things bind?
A
- Ca+ binds to Troponin C
- Tropomyosin shifts after conformational change, myosin binding site exposed
- Myosin binds to the exposed site on Actin
33
Q
- What causes the myosin head to disengage?
- What molecule is present on the myosin head before it binds?
A
- ATP binding, hydrolysed to ADP
- ADP
34
Q
- What are the 3 energy sources for muscle?
A
- Phosphocreatine, Glycolysis, and Oxidative metabolism
35
Q
- What is Isotonic contraction?
- What is isometric contraction?
- Which diagram shows which?

A
- When muscle shortens but tension on muscle is constant.
- When muscle doesnt shorten during contraction, load is so large that shortening is not possible. Tension but no shortening

36
Q
- What is a muscle spindle?
- Which sensory neurons detect their changes?
A
- Special skeletal muscle fibers contained in a fibrous capsule, which detect stretch of muscle
- Group I a snesory neurons
37
Q
- What happens to the firing rate of the axons when muscle is stretched?
- What happens to the firing rate of the axons when muscle is shortened?
- What kind of ion channels are opened when the muscle is stretched?
A
- Discharge rate goes up
- Discharge rate goes slack
- Mechanically sensitive ion channels
38
Q
- When the muscle is stretched what do the stretch receptors do?
- Give an example of this reflex?
A
- Cause the muscle to contract (Shorten it)
- Knee jerk reflex
39
Q
- What are intrafusal fibers? What are they innervated by?
- What are extrafusal fibers? What are they innervated by?
A
- fibers within the fibrous capsule, innervated by Gamma motor neurons
- Fibers outside of the muscle spindle, forming the bulk of muscle. Innervated by Alpha motor neurons
40
Q
- What are gamma motor neurons?
- What happens when they are activated?
- What is the effect of this?
A
- Innervate the intrafusal muscle fibers
- Leads to contraction of the 2 poles of the muscle spindle
- Increases the Ia activity
41
Q
- What are golgi tendon organs?
- Where are they found?
- What innervates them?
A
- Monitor muscle tension or force of contraction
- Junction between muscle and tendon
- Ib sensory axons - Smaller than Ia
42
Q
- What happens to golgi tendons when the muscle contracts?
- What do they synapse with?
- What is their function?
A
- Ib axons are squeezed, mechanosensitive ion channels are activated – AP triggered
- Spinal interneurons - inhibitory
- Protect muscle from being overloaded
43
Q
- What is muscle hypertrophy?
- What is another form of muscle hypertrophy?
A
- When the total mass of a muscle increases, increase in number of A & M filaments, so enlargement of muscle fibers
- When muscles are stretched to greater length, new sarcomeres are added to the ends
44
Q
- What is muscle atrophy?
- What pathway does this happen through?
- What are proteosomes?
A
- Decrease in the size of muscle fibers
- ATP-Dependent ubiquitin proteosome pathway
- Protein complexes which degrade damaged or uneeded proteins by proteolysis
45
Q
- What is ubiquitin?
2.
A
- Regulatory protein which labels cells for proteasomal degradation
46
Q
- What is fiber hyperplasia?
- What are some of the triggers to decreasing the protein synthesis rate? (2)
- What are the triggers to Increasing the protein degredation rate? (4)
A
- Increase in number of fibers
- Akt, mTOR
- Glucocorticoids, myostatin, NF-kappaB, Reactive O2 species
47
Q
- Which hormone has an anabolic (Build) effect on muscle?
- What is the hormone that causes deposition of fat?
A
- Testosterone
- Estrogen
48
Q
- What are the metabolites used by muscle in exercise?
- Which cycle is used to produce glucose from lactate? Where does this happen?
- What is the last gasp source of energy for muscles? What enzyme does this?
A
- ATP, Phopho-creatine system, Glycogen-lactic acid system, Aerobic system
- Cori cycle using O2, Liver
- Regeneration of ATP using ADP, Myokinase
49
Q
- What is used to reconstitute ATP?
- What is used to reconstitute both PCS & ATP?
- What is used to reconsitute all other systems?
A
- Phospho-creatine system
- Glycogen-lactic acid system energy
- Oxidative metabolism (Aerobic)
50
Q
- What does the boutulinum toxin affect?
- What does Tetanus do?
A
- Cleaves synaptobrevin so disrupts SNARE complex formation - Paralysis
- Cleaves synaptobrevin in inhibitory neurons, so no inhibition of motor neurons - Tetany
3.
51
Q
- What do curare, Bungarotoxin do?
- What does Sarin do?
A
- ACh receptor antagonists, so cause paralysis
- Desensitises receptor so they stop working, leads to paralysis
52
Q
- What is a compound fracture?
- What is a comminuted fracture?
A
- Bone communicates with the skin surface
- Bone is fragmented
53
Q
- What is a displaced fracture?
- What is a stress fracture?
- What is a greenstick fracture?
A
- Ends of the bone are not aligned
- Slowly developing fracture due to increased physical activity with repetitive loads
- Extends only partially through the bone, common in infants due to soft bones
54
Q
- What are the steps of bone repair?
- What are:
- Osteoclasts
- Osteoblasts
- Osteocytes
A
- Haematoma — Soft callus — Hard callus — Lamellar bone
- Cells which degrade bone
- Cells which rebuild bone
- Mature bone cells
55
Q
- What is an orthosis?
- What is an osteophyte?
A
- Surgical device which exerts external forces on part of the body to support joints or correct deformity
- Bony projection that occur at sites of cartilage degeneration or destruction
56
Q
- What are the 3 cmmon syndromes of the female athlete?
- What is the difference between primary and secondary amenorrhea?
A
- Eating disorders, menstrual dysfunction, decreased bone mineral density
- Primary is absence by age of 16, never had period. Secondary is absence of menstruation for 3 months for woman who has had period
57
Q
- What hormone is needed for menstruation?
A
- GnRH