Case 6 - Multiple Sclerosis Flashcards
1
Q
- Which section of the MCA 2005 refers to lasting powers of attorney?
- What 2 decisions can a person confer authority on another for?
- How old must a person be to confer an LPA?
- What must a person have before they can confer a LPA?
A
- Section 9
- Financial matters, and their personal welfare
- 18 years old
- Capacity
2
Q
- How old must a person be to make an advanced decision?
- What must the patient do in order for an AD to be valid?
- Does a withdrawal of an AD need to be in writing?
- What can nullify an advanced decision?
- What are the 3 things that can invalidate an AD?
- What must an AD in relation to life sustaining treatment have? (2)
- What are the barriers to advanced care planning? (5)
A
- 18 yrs old
- Must specify the treatment they are refusing
- No
- A lasting power of attorney
- Treatment not being specified, Any specified circumstances are absent, or if there are reasonable grounds to believe patient didnt anticipate something
- In writing and witnessed, patient must make clear that it is to apply in that situation
- Lack of skills, difficult conversations, resources, logistics, inequality in terms of access
3
Q
- What is an advanced statement?
- What is its effect?
- Is it legally binding?
A
- Statement setting down preferences etc regarding future care
- Provides guidance to those making decisions about the patient (Best interests)
- No, only advisory
4
Q
- Do patients with capacity have the right to refuse treatment?
- Is there a right to demand treatment?
- Which case demonstrates this?
A
- Yes
- No
- R v Burke
5
Q
- What does the double effect doctrine say?
- What does s2 of the suicide act 1961 say?
- What does s1 say?
- What was the result of R v Purdy & Pretty v UK?
A
- Doctors who administer medication to relieve a patients pain and suffering, but which could cause their death are legally protected
- It is an offence to aid and abet the suicide of another person
- Suicide is legal, no crime is committed
- DPP set out factors which would lead to prosecution of a person aiding another to commit suicide. Doctors will very likely always be charged. There is no right to die in the UK
6
Q
- What is the aim of end of life care?
- What is palliative care?
A
- To allow a person to live as well as possible and die with dignity
- Making a patient as confortable as possible with psychological, social and spiritual support for them
7
Q
- What are the 2 aspects of the health belief model?
- What are the 2 key beliefs of threat perception?
- What are the 2 key beleifs of behavioural evaluation?
A
- Threat perception and behavioural evaluation
- susceptibility to illness or health problems & anticipated severity of the illness
- beliefs about the benefits of a recommended health behaviour & concerning the costs of or barriers to enacting that behaviour
8
Q
- What is stress?
- What is a stressor?
- What are the physiological symptoms of stress? (4)
- What is activated when a situation is deemed stressful?
- What is the short term response by the body? what pathway?
- What is the long term response? what pathway?
A
- Physiological response when we encounter a threat we feel we dont have the resources to deal with
- Stimulus that causes stress
- Increased HR, BR, decrease in digestive activity, and liver releases glucose for energy
- Hypothalamus
- Fight or flight response - Sympathomedullary pathway
- Hypothalamic pituitary adrenal pathway
9
Q
- In the HPA axis what is activated first?
- What does this then stimulate?
- What hormone is secreted?
- What is the purpose of it?
- What does it also do which can be detrimental?
A
- Hypothalamus
- Pituitary gland
- Adenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
- Enables body to maintain steady supply of glucose to cope with the stressor
- Suppresses the immune system
10
Q
- In the SAM pathway, what is activated first?
- What does it then activate?
- What does this secrete?
- What is the physiological response? (2)
- What happens when the threat is over?
A
- Hypothalamus
- Adrenal medulla
- Adrenaline
- Leads to arousal of SNS and reduces activity of PNS (Decrease in digestion etc)
- When threat is over, the PNS takes over and balances the body again
11
Q
- What are the 2 types of coping responses?
- What is emotion focused coping?
- When is this useful?
- Is it useful?
- Who is more likely to use this method of coping? (Men or women)
- What is problem focused coping?
- Is it useful?
A
- Emotion focused coping & Problem focused coping
- Aim is to reduce negative emotional responses associated with stress
- When the source of the stress is outside the persons control
- No, Doesnt provide long term solution, just delays the persons problem
- Women
- Targets the cause of the stress, such as using social support or problem solving
- Yes as it deals with the root cause of the stress, but only works if the stressor is within their control
12
Q
- How are neurons classified?
Identify the different types of neurons:
- Unipolar
- Bipolar
- Multipolar
- Pseudo-unipolar

A
- Based on the number of axons and dendrites that extend from the soma

13
Q
- What are the other types of glial cells? (4)
- What is the difference between an oligodendrocyte, and a Schwann cell?
- What is the function of Astrocyctes?
- What is the function of myelin sheaths?
- What is the function of microglia?
- What is the function of epedymal cells?
A
- Astrocytes, Oligodendrocytes, Microglia, Ependymal cells
- Oligodendrocytes - CNS and can myelinate more than 1 axon, Schwann cells - PNS
- They influence the growth and retraction of neurons, and regulate the chemical content of the brain (BBB)
- They insulate axons, speed up nerve impulses
- Phagocytes which remove debris in the brain
- Line the ventricles, direct cell migration during development
14
Q
- What is the lipid that makes up the myelin sheath?
- What are the 3 glycoproteins that make up the myelin sheath?
A
- Galactocerebroside
- MBP, MOG, and MAG
15
Q
- What is Multiple sclerosis?
- What are the 4 possible causes of MS?
- What is the condition called when it is in the peripheral nervous system?
- Which nerve is most often affected in MS? What is this called?
A
- De-myelinating disease
- Immune mediated destruction of myelin, Leukoencephalopathy (Infection), Inherited disorders which affect synthesis of myelin, and Leukodystrophies
- Gullian Barre syndrome
- CN II, Optic Neuritis
16
Q
- What causes MS lesions?
- What is the cause of the neurological deficits?
A
- Auto-immune response directed against components of myelin sheath
- Loss of saltatory conduction, slower conduction which can lead to inefficiency or conduction block
17
Q
- Which nervous system cells initiate the response?
- What do TH1 cells secrete? What does this do?
- What do TH17 cells secrete? What does this do?
- Which T cells are responsible for the damage?
- What is believed to cause the cells to attack the myelin?
- Which interleukins are thought to be involved?
A
- TH1 & TH17
- IFN Gamma - activation of macrophages
- Recruitment of leukocytes
- CD4 & CD8 T cells, and Macrophages
- The homologous myelin proteins which look like foreign proteins, causing them to be attacked.
- IL 2 & IL 7
18
Q
- What determines the symptoms of MS for the patient?
A
- Which area of the brain is affected
19
Q
- Are the myelin sheaths formed during remylination the same?
- What cells promote remyelination?
- What sends the signal that remyelination is needed?
- What molecule plays a key role in their differentiation?
A
- No, they are thinner, but provide protection from further damage
- Oligodendrocyte precursor cells
- Microglia or astrocytes at the injured axon site
- TNF alpha
20
Q
- What is the BBB?
- What happens in an active plaque?
- What cells can be found there?
- What is found in an inactive plaque?
- Which cells are found?
- What is a shadow plaque?
A
- Capillary system which prevents foreign bodies, and immune cells from entering the brain
- There is ongoing myelin breakdown with macrophages containing lipid rich PAS debris
- Lymphocytes and monocytes and activated microglia containing myelin degredation products
- Little or no myelin is found, and there is a reduction in the number of oligodendrocytes
- Astrocytes proliferate in the area, and there is gliosis
- In between inactive and normal, thinned out myelin but not gone.
21
Q
- What is an MS relapse?
- How long must the symptoms last for? What must not be present?
- What is a remission in MS?
A
- An attack which leads to the worsening of MS symptoms
- At least 24hrs, and in absence of fever or infection
- Improvement for the patient, no new signs of disease. When symptoms of an attack subside
22
Q
- What is benign MS?
- What is Relapsing remitting MS?
- What is secondary progressive MS?
- What is primary progressive MS?
- What is progressive relapsing MS?
- Which is most common?
A
- Deficits resolve between attacks, disability in the long term
- Unpredictable relapses (Attacks), may not leave permanent deficits with periods of improvement (Remission)
- Initially there are relapses and remission, then progresses with more neurological deficits
- Steady increase in disability with no remission. Decline is continous
- Steady decline with relapses superimposed
- Relapsing remitting MS is most common
23
Q
Which graph corresponds to which course:
- Relapsing remitting MS
- Secondary progressive MS
- Primary progressive MS
- Progressive relapsing MS

A

24
Q
- What is the prevalence of MS in the UK?
- Are men more affected than women?
A
- Affects 1 in 500 people in the UK
- No, women are more affected 3:1
25
Q
- What is the link between vitamin D and MS?
- How is it relevant?
A
- People with high levels of vitamin D are less likely to develop MS
- Due to its use in the regulation of the immune system
26
Q
- What are the changes in the CSF of a person with MS?
- How is the CSF obtained?
- What proteins are present in the CSF of a MS sufferer?
A
- Increased IgG levels
- Lumbar puncture
- Oligoclonal bands
27
Q
- What are the Mcdonald criteria used for?
- What is required in terms of lesions?
- What is the time requirement?
A
- Early diagnosis of MS
- Lesions in 2 areas out of 4 (Periventricular, juxtacortical, infratentorial, or spinal cord)
- Must have new lesion with reference to baseline scan (2 attacks at least)
28
Q
- What are MRI scans used for?
- What does it image?
- Which molecule?
- What is emitted by the protons?
- What will be seen in non-myelinated areas?
A
- Imaging the brain, spinal cord, etc.
- Measuring water content in tissue
- H+ or protons
- Resonance signals, which are picked up
- More water content - so bright spot or darkened area
29
Q
- What is a T1 weighted scan?
- What does it show?
- Why is it useful?
A
- MRI exhanced with Gadolinium
- Shows areas of active inflammation
- Shows areas where the BBB has broken down, shouldnt normally cross it
30
Q
- What are the better prognostic factors?
- Which are the poor prognostic factors?
A
- Being female, caucasian, and low relapse rate
- non-white, male, smokers, high relapse rate
31
Q
- What are the 7 components of a neurological exam?
A
- General appearance
- Mini mental status exam
- Cranial nerve examination
- Motor system examination
- Sensory system examination
- Reflex exam
- Coordination exam
32
Q
- What is the visual evoked potential test?
- What does it detect?
- How is this relevant for MS?
- What are the 3 other types of evoked potential?
A
- Measures electrical activity of brain in response to stimulation
- Detects slowing of electrical conduction
- Can show demyelination as this would lead to slowed conduction
- Visual evoked potential, brainstem auditory evoked potentials, sensory evoked potentials
33
Q
- What are some of the symtpoms of Major Depressive disorder?
- What must the patient have to be diagnosed under DSM IV?
- Within what time period must they have these symptoms?
A
- Low mood, self esteem, loss of libido, sleep disturbance
- Little interest or pleasure in things nearly every day & Feeling down and depressed more than half of the days
- 2 weeks
34
Q
- What areas are thought to be involved? (3)
- What are the 2 types of depressive syndrome?
3.
A
- Amygdala, Hippocampus, Prefrontal cortex
- Unipolar depression & Bipolar depression
35
Q
- What is unipolar depression?
- What is bipolar depression?
- What happens when a person has more depressive episodes?
A
- Non-familial, associated with stressful life events
- Mix of depression & mania
- They are more likely to have more depressive episodes
36
Q
- What are the areas of ventral neural system? (5)
- Is it overactive or underactive?
A
- Ventral anterior cingulate, lateral orbitfrontal cortex, medial thalamus, ventral striatum, amygdala
- Overactive - Amygdala, and Ventral anterior cingulate. Depressed mood
37
Q
- What are the areas of the dorsal neural system?
- Is it underactive or overactive?
A
- Hippocampus, Dorsal anterior cingulate, DLPFC
- Underactive - leads to apathy, deficits in attention
38
Q
- What are the genetic vulnerabilities which lead to MDD?
- What are the 3 variations of the gene?
- Which has a higher likelihood of MDD?
- What is the normal combination of the alleles?
A
- 5-HT reuptake transporter gene
- short/short (s/s), short/long (s/l), Long/Long (l/l)
- s/s
- s/l
39
Q
- Which serotonin receptors are positive?
- What type of receptors are they?
- What does NA do to th 5HT receptor?
- What does the a2 receptor do?
A
- All except for 5HT1 and 5HT5
- All are G protein except for 5HT3
- Activates a1 receptor, Increases firing of the 5HT cell
- Decrease firing, so switches off 5-HT release
40
Q
- What is thought to be the cause of depression?
- What hormone is increased in the brain? (2)
- What does this affect?
- What causes the decrease in hippocampal volume?
A
- Deficit of NA and 5-HT transmitters
- Corticotrophin releasing hormone (CRH) & Cortisol
- Dysregulates the amygdala, and increases MAO so decreases NT’s
- Decrease in BDNF or malfunction of its receptor (TrkB)