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Year 2 > Case 9 > Flashcards

Case 9 Flashcards

1
Q

What molecules recognise a virus in the immediate innate immune response?

A

Defensins, Lactoferrin, Lysozyme

Preformed soluble effector molecules

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2
Q

What cells recognise a virus in the immediate innate immune response?

A

Macrophages, Mast cells, Conventional Dendritic Cells

Some memory T cells and NK cells

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3
Q

How does Influenza A target the mucus barrier to infection?

A

Cytolytic. Causes acute cell death of ciliated respiratory epithelial cells and removal of mucous secreting cells.
Blocks muco-ciliary escalator

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4
Q

Sentinel Cells

A

First line of defence.

Macrophages, Dendritic cells and a few NK cells.

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5
Q

PRRs recognises

A

PAMPs

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6
Q

Which Toll-like Receptors are found within endosomes?

A

TLR 3, 7, 8, 9

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7
Q

TLR3 detects…

A

dsRNA

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8
Q

TLR7 detects…

A

single stranded viral RNA

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9
Q

TLR8 detects…

A

single stranded viral RNA

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10
Q

TLR9 detects…

A

Unmethylated CpG-rich DNA

intracellular viral infection

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11
Q

Which Toll-like receptors detect viral glycoproteins?

A

TLR 1, 2, 4, 6

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12
Q

Which TLRs are found on the plasma membrane?

A

TLR1, 2, 4, 6

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13
Q

Genetic defect in TLR3 signalling pathway is associated with…

A

Recurrence of Herpes Simplex Encephalitis

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14
Q

How does TLR3 detect HSV-1 (a DNA virus)?

A

HSV-1 produces a dsRNA intermediate during transcription.

TLR3 detects ds RNA.

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15
Q

Epstein-Barr Virus infects what type of human cells?

A

B cells

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16
Q

Pyrogens released by macrophages on detection of a virus

A

IL-6,
TNF-alpha
IL-1 Beta

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17
Q

How do pyrogenic cytokines increase body temperature?

A

Act on hypothalamus to produce PGE2 (innervation of SNS, non-shivering thermogenesis and vasoconstriction)
Act on muscle to increase fat and protein utilisation,

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18
Q

TLR activation leads to….

A

Transcription of type 1 interferons (alpha and beta)

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19
Q

RIG-1

A

Interferon Stimulated Gene

Rig-like receptor involved in triggering interferon expression

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20
Q

MD-5

A

Interferon Stimulated Gene

Rig-like receptor involved in triggering interferon expression

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21
Q

IFITM3

A

Interferon Stimulated Gene

Prevents entry of enveloped viruses into cytoplasm by trapping them at plasma membrane.

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22
Q

Where are RLRs located?

A

cytosol

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23
Q

Interferon Response Factors

A

Activated by PRRs on detection of PAMPs

Enter nucleus and initiate transcription of type 1 interferons

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24
Q

Effect of Ebola on IFNs

A

Shuts off supply of interferons, preventing the antiviral state.

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25
Q

What do cytosolic RLRs detect?

A

Abnormal RNA

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26
Q

A majority of Interferon production in conducted by…

A

Plasmacytoid Dendritic Cells (pDCs)

Contain extensive rough endoplasmic reticulum.

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27
Q

Plasmacytoid Dentritic Cells are located…

A

Blood and lymphoid tissue

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28
Q

Plasmacytoid cells express TLRs…

A

7 and 9

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29
Q

Conventional Dendritic Cells - role…

A

Activation of naive T cells

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30
Q

Conventional dendritic cells are located (in the absence of infection)…

A

In peripheral tissues

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31
Q

Why are MMR vaccines not given singly and a week apart?

A

Interferon response to first vaccine would suppress replication of the second vaccine - diminished immune response.

Would need to be given 30 days apart (child is vulnerable to infection at this time)

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32
Q

NK cells release…

A

Perforins
Granzymes
IFN-g

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33
Q

Effect on macrophages of IFN-g release from NK cells

A

Makes macrophages more efficient at phagocytosis

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34
Q

Function of conventional dendritic cells

A

Transports antigen from site of infection to secondary lymphoid tissues

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35
Q

Cells which express MHC I

A

Found on surface of all nucleated cells.

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36
Q

MHC I display non-self proteins to…

A

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

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37
Q

MHC II display non-self proteins to…

A

T Helper Cells

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38
Q

CD4

A

Glycoprotein expressed by T Helper Cells

Involved in detection of MHC II

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39
Q

CD8

A

Glycoprotein expressed by cytotoxic T cells.

Involved in detection of MHC I

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40
Q

Vaccination into deltoid will reach which secondary lymphoid tissue?

A

Axillary node

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41
Q

Vaccination into quadriceps will reach which secondary lymphoid tissue?

A

Inguinal node

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42
Q

Route of administration of influenza vaccine in children

A

Oral/Nasal

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43
Q

Route of administration of Rotavirus vaccination

A

Oral/Nasal

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44
Q

cDCs in Peyer’s Patches and Mesenteric Lymph Nodes of Intestines detect pathogen.

Immunoglobulin produced in adaptive immune response is?

A

IgA

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45
Q

cDCs in Axillary/Inguinal Lymph Nodes of Intestines detect pathogen.

Immunoglobulin produced in adaptive immune response is?

A

IgG

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46
Q

CCR7

A

Directs cDC to nearest draining lymph node

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47
Q

Lymph from upper body eventually reaches…

A

Right lymphatic duct

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48
Q

Lymph from lower body eventually reaches…

A

Thoracic duct

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49
Q

Intracellular antigens processed into peptides by

A

Proteasome

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50
Q

Extracellular antigens processed into peptides by…

A

Endosome used to bring antigen into cell

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51
Q

Why are live-attenuated vaccines the best way to achieve a CTL response?

A

Only live viruses can replicate intracellularly and be presented by MHC class I

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52
Q

CD4 and CD8 are examples of…

A

Co-receptors

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53
Q

Function of US6 protein in Human Cytomegalovirus

A 
|nhibits peptide loading of MHC class I. 
Allows virus to evade recognition mechanisms.
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54
Q

2 Signals for full activation of CTLs by cDCs

A
  1. Binding of TCR with MHC:Peptide complex

2. Binding of C7 (upregulated by step 1) with C28 on surface of CTL

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55
Q

Swelling of lymph nodes occurs due to proliferation of which cells?

A

CD8 T cells/ Cytotoxic T Cells

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56
Q

Function of IL-2

A

Promotes proliferation and differentiation of T cells (into memory and effector cells)

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57
Q

On detecting virally infected target cells, CTLs release…

A

Perforins and Granzymes

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58
Q

TH1 cells

A

Migrate to infected tissues from lymph node to help macrophages

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59
Q

Function of Follicular Helper T cells

A

Stimulate somatic hypermutation of variable region of immunoglobulins on the surface of B cells.

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60
Q

Antibody on surface of B cells (prior to somatic hypermutation)

A

IgM

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61
Q

Activated Induced Cytidine Deaminase

A

Catalyses somatic hypermutation

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62
Q

Hyper IgM Syndrome

A

Mutation in gene which codes for AID.

B cells can only express IgM on their surface.

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63
Q

Linked Recognition

A

B cells and T cells must recognise epitopes of the same molecular complex in order to interact.
i.e. Both cells must recognise the antigen to interact.

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64
Q

Conjugate vaccines used for…

A

Encapsulated bacteria (covered in polysaccharide coat)

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65
Q

Conjugate vaccines consist of…

A

Protein and polysaccharide

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66
Q

What type of RNA is mRNA?

A

Positive, single stranded

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67
Q

Function of envelope of a virus

A

Syncytia formation - allows virus to utilise membranes of host cells.

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68
Q

Non-enveloped viruses are found…

A

In GI tract (since enveloped viruses cannot survive here)

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69
Q

DNA viruses mutate less frequently than RNA viruses because…

A

DNA polymerases have a proofreading function (RNA polymerases do not)

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70
Q

Treatment for Genotype 1 Hep C Infection

A

Sofosbuvir (nucleotide analogue)
Ledipasvir (inhibits viral infection)
Ribavirin (guanosine analogue, blocks RNA synthesis)

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71
Q

Interferons are not used for treatment of infection since…

A

They cause suicidal thoughts in patients

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72
Q

Pandemic

A

An epidemic that becomes very widespread, affecting a whole region/continent (may be worldwide).
High mortality.

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73
Q

Forms of Hepatitis spread by contaminated food and water..

A

A and E

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74
Q

HPV serotype causing cervical carcinoma

A

16 and 18

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75
Q

HPV vaccine protects against what percentage of cervical carcinomas?

A

70%

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76
Q

Inactivated polio vaccine protects against…

A

PV1, PV2 and PV3

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77
Q

Herpangina and Hand-Foot and Mouth Disease are caused by…

A

Cocksackie A Virus

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78
Q

Clinical Presentation of Cocksackie A virus

A

Sores in and around the mouth

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79
Q

Form of Hepatitis causing Hepatocarcinomas

A

Hep C

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80
Q

Clinical Presentation of Dengue Virus

A 
Haemorrhagic Fever:
Flushing of face and chest,
Oedema,
Bleeding, 
Samll red and purple spots (Petechiae)
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81
Q

Vaccination needed to go on a trip down the Amazon river

A

Yellow Fever

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82
Q

Major complications of pertussis infection

A 
Weight loss (vomiting)
Cerebral Hypoxia (Dyspnoea from cough)
Bronchopneumonia
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83
Q

Pertussis infection lasts…

A

2-3 months

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84
Q

Effect of cytotoxin produced by B.Pertussis

A

Stops cilia from beating.

Unable to clear mucus from lungs.

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85
Q

Whole Cell Pertussis Vaccine

A

Reactogenic (seizures, high fever and brain damage)

Longer lived immunity

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86
Q

Acellular Pertussis

A

Non Reactogenic

Short lived immunity

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87
Q

Immunity resulting from whole Cell Pertussis vaccine is mediated by…

A

TH17 and TH1

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88
Q

Immunity resulting from Acellular Pertussis vaccine is mediated by…

A

TH2

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89
Q

Definition of an adjuvant

A

Substance which enhances immune response to antigens by bringing antigen into contact with immune system

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90
Q

Examples of adjuvants

A

Aluminium phosphate

Aluminium hydroxide

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91
Q

Molecule responsible for reactogenesis in Whole Cell Pertusis

A

Endotoxin

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92
Q

How does TH17 elicit immunity to B.Pertussis?

A

Releases IL-17 which recruits more neutrophils from bone marrow.
Neutrophils mop up extracellular bacteria.

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93
Q

Rubalavirus

A

Virus causing mumps

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94
Q

Spread of Mumps

A

Direct contact or droplet

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95
Q

Early symptoms of mumps

A 
Fever
Malaise
Headache 
Anorexia 
Photophobia 
Earache
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96
Q

Late symptoms of mumps

A

Swelling of salivary/parotid glands (‘Hamster face’)
Hearing loss
Orchitis
Oophorytis (7%)

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97
Q

Complications of mumps

A

Encephalitis
Meningitis
Parotitis (Parotid glands)
Permanent Deafness

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98
Q

Diagnosis of mumps

A

Saliva (Mumps-specific IgM)
Urine
Observations
High serum amylase levels

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99
Q

Treatment of mumps

A

Treatment of symptoms e.g. Pyrexia using paracetamol

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100
Q

Genes coding for MHC are located on..

A

Chromosome 6

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101
Q

Why is herd immunity not effective against tetanus?

A

Tetanus is not transmitted from person to person

102
Q

HPV strain causing genital warts

A

6 and 11

103
Q

Spread of HPV

A

Skin-to-skin

104
Q

Diagnosis of cervical cancer

A

Pap smear

105
Q

Cervarix

A

2 in 1 HPV vaccine

Protects against HPV 16 and 18

106
Q

Gardasil

A

4 in 1 HPV vaccine

Protects against HPV 6, 11, 16 and 18

107
Q

Side effects of HPV Vaccine

A

Fever, Nausea, Rash, Itch, Headache, Dizziness

108
Q

Structure of HPV Vaccine

A

L1 capsid protein of HPV

No viral DNA, non infectious

109
Q

Neutralising antibodies

A

IgG and IgA

Block viral entry and uncoating

110
Q

Antibody which transports across epithelium

A

IgA

111
Q

Antibody which diffuses into extravascular sites

A

IgG

112
Q

Antibodies which activate complement

A

IgM, IgG, IgA

113
Q

Antibody which activates mast cells

A

IgE

114
Q

Mechanism of neutralising action of IgA and IgG

A

Block attachment of virus
Block endocytosis of virus
Block uncoating of virus in endosome.

115
Q

Why is intranasal administration of influenza vaccine more effective than injected?

A

Stimulates production of mucosal IgA antibodies.
Site of infuenza infection is mucosa.

Injection stimulates production of IgGs

116
Q

Advantage of Live attenuated Sabin Poliovirus vaccine

A

Elicits a strong mucosal IgA response - intestinal immunity

117
Q

Disadvantage of Injected Salk Poliovirus Vaccine

A

Does not produce intestinal immunity - less effective at preventing spread of poliovirus in a population.

118
Q

Antibody involved in opsonisation

A

IgG

119
Q

Phosphatidylserine

A

Membrane lipid found on surface of apoptotic cells.

Recognised by macrophages clearing debris from apoptosis.

120
Q

Memory response (i.e. to an antigen the immune system has encountered before)

A

Faster
Longer duration
Greater quantity (by 100-1000x)
Higher affinity of Abs

121
Q

Virulence of Hib

A

Encapsulated in polysaccharide coat.
Prevents fixation by alternative pathway.
Requires high affinity IgG to overcome this.

122
Q

Main cause of meningitis in the UK

A

Haemophilus Influenza B

123
Q

Early symptoms of meningitis

A

Fever
Irritability
Vomiting
Loss of appetite

124
Q

Symptoms of meningitis in babies

A 
High pitched, moaning cry
Drowsy
Stiff with jerky movements
Pale and blotchy skin
Turning blue 
Fever with cold hands and feet
Non blanching rash
125
Q

Transmission of Hib

A

Aerosol (coughing and sneezing)

126
Q

Proteins usually used in conjugate vaccines

A

Tetanus or diphtheria toxoid proteins

127
Q

Principle antibody of all bodily secretions

A

IgM

128
Q

B cells exposed to IL-4

A

Isotype switching to IgE

129
Q

End result of Hib vaccination

A

Secretion of high affinity, opsonising IgG

130
Q

Examples of encapsulated bacteria:

A 
Hib
Steptococcus Pneumoniae 
Neiseria Meningitidis
E. Coli
Klebsiella Pneumoniae
131
Q

Immunisations at 2 months

A

DTaP/IPV/Hib
PCV
Rotavirus

132
Q

Immunisations at 3 months

A

DTaP/IPV/Hib
Men C
Rotavirus

133
Q

Immunisations at 4 months

A

DTaP/IPV/Hib

PCV

134
Q

Immunisations at 12-13 months

A

Hib/MenC
PCV
MMR

135
Q

Immunisations at 40 months

A

DTaP/IPV

MMR

136
Q

DTap/IPV/Hib immunisation given at

A

2, 3 and 4 months

137
Q

Rotavirus immunisation given at

A

2 and 3 months

138
Q

Route of administration of rotavirus vaccine

A

Oral

139
Q

What type of vaccine is MMR?

A

Live attenuated

140
Q

Purpose of Yellow Card Scheme (Vaccinations)

A

Reporting of all suspected reactions to vaccinations

141
Q

Shingles vaccine is given to…

A

Patients over 70yrs

142
Q

Course for Hep B Vaccination

A

3 dose = 0, 1, and 6 months

4 dose = 0, 1, 2 and 12 months

Single booster 5 years later

143
Q

Immunisations for Health Care Workers

A 
Influenza,
BCG,
Hep B,
VZV
MMR
144
Q

Immunisations for patients over 65

A

Flu

PPV (Pneumococcal Infection)

145
Q

Immunisations for patients over 70

A

Shingles

146
Q

Immunisations for injecting drug users

A

Hep A and Hep B

147
Q

Immunisations for MSM (Men who have Sex with men)

A

Hep A and Hep B

148
Q

Immunisations for pregnant women

A

Influenza

Pertussis (aP)

149
Q

HLA genes code for…

A

MHCs

150
Q

Viral Envelope

A

Layer on the outside of a viral capsid, making the virus more fragile.
Makes it sensitive to drying out.

151
Q

How are viruses able to grow in a short period of time? (Burst/Yield)

A

Grow by assembly of preformed components

152
Q

mRNA is

A

Positive ssRNA

153
Q

Enzymes used to generate cDNA in retroviruses

A

Reverse transcriptase and RNA-ase H

154
Q

Plasma associated viraemia occurs in…

A

Polio (acute)

155
Q

Cell-associated viraemia occurs in…

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (affects B cells)
HIV (affects T cells)
Human Cytomegalovirus (affects myeloid cells)

156
Q

Influenza incubation period

A

1-2 days

157
Q

Herpes simplex incubation period

A

5-8 days

158
Q

Measles incubation period

A

9-12 days

159
Q

Mumps incubation period

A

17-20 days

160
Q

How does Herpes Virus become persistent?

A

Downregulates MHC expression - B cells do not recognise infected cells.

161
Q

How does HIV become a persistent virus?

A

Rapid mutation enables it to evade CTLs.

Since T cells are generated for a specific virus, they cannot kill mutated HIV.

162
Q

How are Hep B and Hep C similar?

A

Transmission via bodily fluids (semen, vaginal secretions, blood)

163
Q

Viruses using the lung as primary tissue of replication:

A

Rhinovirus
Measles
Influenza

(Adenovirus, Coronavirusm Parainfluenza, Respiratory Syncytial virus)

164
Q

Paramyxoviruses…

A

Measles

Respiratory syncytial virus and parainfluenza virus

165
Q

Difference between Parainfluenza virus and Respiratory Syncytial Virus

A

PIV in children <3yrs

RSV in children >3yrs

Both are paramyxoviruses causing respiratory infection in immunocompetent children.

166
Q

What is croup?

A

Barking cough

Stridor when breathing in

167
Q

Surface proteins found in lipid envelope of Influenza Virus

A

Hemagglutinin
Neuraminidase

(M2 ion channel protein found additionally in Influenza A)

168
Q

Complications of Influenza

A

Otitis Media
Pneumonia
Bronchitis
Myocarditis

169
Q

Symptoms of influenza

A 
Headache
Shivers
Myalgia 
Cough
Fatigue
170
Q

How does onset of common cold compare to influenza

A

Influenza = sudden onset

Common cold = Prolonged onset

171
Q

Duration of severe symptoms of influenza

A

8-10 days

172
Q

Epidemic caused by…

A

Antigenic Drift - progressive small changes in envelope proteins through mutation.

173
Q

Antigenic Drift

A

Progressive small changes in envelope proteins through mutation
Leads to epidemic

174
Q

Pandemic caused by..

A

Antigenic Shift - Sudden massive changes in envelope proteins through reassortment.

175
Q

Antigenic Shift

A

Sudden massive changes in envelope protein through reassortment
Leads to pandemic

176
Q

MOA of Amantadine

A

Inhibits M2 ion channel in viral envelope - preventing viral replication

177
Q

Amantadine is used in treatment of

A

Influenza A

178
Q

ADRs of Amantadine

A

GI disturbance, CNS effects

179
Q

MOA of Feramivir/Oseltamavir

A

Neuraminidase inhibition.
Protein found in viral envelope which allows virus to bud from host cell.
Prevents viral replication.

180
Q

ADRs of Feramivir/Oseltamavir

A

GI disturbance, Headache, Neuropsychiatric events

181
Q

Feramivir/Oseltamavir used in the treatment of…

A

Influenza A and B

182
Q

Contraindication for live attenuated vaccine

A

Immunosuppressed

183
Q

Types of Influenza Vaccine:

A

Injection (Enzira, Fluzone)

Nasal Spray (Flumist) - USA

184
Q

Influenza Vaccine recommended for:

A 
People >65yo
Chronic Respiratory Disease (e.g. Asthma)
CVD
Renal Disease
Diabetes Mellitus
Immunocompromised 
In residential long-stay accommodation
185
Q

Symptoms of Measles

A

Enanthema/Koplik Spots - red spots in mouth
Makulopapulous Exanthema - red spots on skin
Tracheobronchitis
Laryngitis
Fever

186
Q

Complication of Measles

A

Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (delayed CNS disease, no cure)

187
Q

Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis

A

Complication of persistent measles.

Elevated measles virus in CSF.

188
Q

Satellite Virus to Hep B

A

Hep D

189
Q

Symptoms of Viral Hepatitis

A

Icterus (yellowing of sclera and skin surrounding eyes)
Palmar Erythema
Ascites
Caput Medusae

190
Q

Treatment of Hep B

A

Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors - Tenofovir or Lamivudine

191
Q

Hepadnavirus causes

A

Hepatitis B

192
Q

Flavivirus causes

A

Hepatitis C

193
Q

Features of Liver Cirrhosis

A 
Gynaecomastia 
Testicular Atrophy
Oedema 
Ascites 
Spider naevi
Impaired immunity 
Splenomegaly
194
Q

Why does liver cirrhosis cause gynaecomastia and testicular atrophy?

A

Impaired metabolism of oestrogen

195
Q

Why does liver cirrhosis cause splenomegaly?

A

Portal Hypertension

196
Q

Why does liver cirrhosis cause oedema and ascites?

A

Low albumin, increased hydrostatic pressure of blood.

197
Q

Interferon alpha therapy is used for

A

Hepatitis B and C

198
Q

ADRs of interferon therapy

A

Flu-like symptoms, anorexia, fatigue

199
Q

Picorna Virus Causes

A

Hepatitis A

200
Q

Transmission of Hepatitis A

A

Faeco-oral

201
Q

Risk factor for Hep A

A

Poor sanitation
Travellers
Homosexual men

202
Q

Hep E is caused by

A

Calicivirus

203
Q

NANB (Hepatitis)

A

Non A and Non B

204
Q

Dysfunctional cell in HIV

A

T cell

205
Q

Pneumocystis Carinii

A

Opportunistic bacteria causing pneumonia in patients with HIV

206
Q

Karposi’s Sarcoma

A

Lesions in skin, mucous membranes, nose, throat and lymph nodes.
Caused by poorly controlled HIV.

207
Q

How does HIV lead to AIDS?

A

Depletion of CD4 T cells

Allowing opportunistic infection to occur e.g. thrush

208
Q

First line treatment for HIV

A

2 x Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

Plus
Non nucleoside RT inhibitor OR
Protease Inhibitor

209
Q

Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (treatment of HIV)

A

Abacavir
Lamivudine
Tenofovir

210
Q

Protease inhibitors (treatment of HIV)

A

Amprenavir
Darunavir
Fosamprenavir

211
Q

Why does immunocompromise increased risk of cancer?

A

Immunocompromised patients are less likely to be able to control cancer growth.

212
Q

MOA of Aciclovir

A

DNA polymerase inhibitor (guanosine analogue)

213
Q

ADRs of Aciclovir

A

Abdominal pain
Diarrhoea
(topical) inflammation
Irritation

214
Q

Contraindications of Aciclovir

A

Elderly (may cause adverse neurological reactions)

215
Q

Indication of Aciclovir

A

HIV

VZV

216
Q

MOA of Zidovudine

A

Reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Thymidine analogue

217
Q

ADRs of Zidovudine

A

GI disturbance
Fatigue
Flu-like symptoms

218
Q

Contraindications of Zidovudine

A

Haemopoietically Suppressed

i.e. Low Hb +/- low neutrophils

219
Q

Indication for Zidovudine

A

HIV

220
Q

Indication of Oseltamavir

A

Influenza

221
Q

Contraindication of Oseltamavir

A

Pregnancy (BUT benefit:risk analysis may be carried out in pandemic situation)

222
Q

ADRs of Oseltamavir

A 
GI disturbance
Abdominal Pain
Dyspepsia
Headache
Nausea and Vomiting
223
Q

MOA of Ribavirin

A

Nucleoside mimetic

Causes viral hypermutation during RNA synthesis

224
Q

Indication of Ribavirin

A

Hep C

225
Q

Contraindications of Ribavirin

A

Pregnancy (Terratogenic)

Cardiovascular Disease

226
Q

Common ADR of Ribavirin

A

Depression

227
Q

Serious ADR of Ribavirin

A

Haemolytic Anaemia

228
Q

Symptoms of Rubella

A 
Rash
Fever
Swollen lymph nodes 
Aching joints
Cold-like symptoms
229
Q

Treatment of Rubella

A

Paracetamol/Ibuprofen
Drinking water
Treat cold-like symptoms

230
Q

Describe the rubella rash

A

Small red-pink spots.

Starts behind ears, spreads to head and neck, then trunk

231
Q

Features of congenital rubella syndrome

A 
Small head
Eye defects
Heart problems 
T1DM
Over/Underactive thyroid
232
Q

Ruth Griffiths Assessment

A

Formal assessment of development

233
Q

Tonic Neck Reflex

A

“Fencing Reflex” seen in newborns (up to 1 month)
When the head is turned to one side, the arm and leg on that side are extended. The arm and leg on the other side are flexed.

234
Q

Primitive reflexes seen in newborns:

A

Tonic neck reflex
Grip reflex
Step reflex
Crawl reflex

235
Q

Average weight of newborn

A

3.5kg

236
Q

Average length of newborn

A

50cm

237
Q

Average OFC (Head circumference) of newborn

A

35cm

238
Q

How many days after birth is weight gain seen?

A

10

239
Q

When a 0-3 month old is supine…

A

Head is turned to one side

240
Q

When a 0-3 month old is prone…

A

Props on forearms

241
Q

Gross motor function in 0-3 month old:

A

Prone - props on forearms
Supine - head turned to one side
Minimal head lag when pulled to sit

242
Q

In child development, when should a child begin to sit?

A

5-9 months

243
Q

Gross motor function in 3-6 month old:

A

Rolls from prone to supine
Pushes up on extended arms when prone
Sitting (5-9 months)

244
Q

When does stranger anxiety develop?

A

9 months

245
Q

Protoimperative vs protodeclarative pointing

A

Protoimperative - point at something you want (9 months)

Protodeclarative - point at something to show interest (1 year)

246
Q

Gross motor function at 1 year old

A

Walking (average 13 months)
Cruising (with support)
Crawls up stairs

247
Q

Pincer grasp develops at…

A

1 year

248
Q

Cognitive function in 1 year old:

A

Knows function for objects

i.e. comb for hair, hoover for floor

249
Q

Gross motor function in 2 year old:

A

Running
Kicking
Stairs (2 feet/step)

250
Q

Fine motor function in 2 year old:

A

Scribbling
Builds 2-3 cube tower
Turning of pages
Hand preference

251
Q

Speech and language function in 2 year old:

A

50 words

some 2 word phrases

Year 2 (17 decks)

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