Case 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Function of oligodendrocytes

A

Myelination of axons in CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mechanism for MS

A

Demyelination of axons in CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Functions of Astrocytes

A

Regulate glutamate Ca2+, Cl- and H2O concentrations in extracellular space
Convert glucose to lactate to be taken up by neurons
Control of breathing - release ATP in response to low pH, stimulating chemosensitive neurons and increasing breathing rate
Uptake of K+ and redistribution within glial syncytium
Formation of BBB - tight junctions between them allowing only specific molecules to cross
Inhibit or enhance synaptic activity by uptake and release of neurotransmitters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ependymal cells

A

Ciliated, cuboidal epithelium lining the ventricular system. Modified in choroid plexus for formation of CSF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Microglia

A

Resident macrophages - activated in brain injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Site of noradrenaline synthesis

A

Locus coeruleus (rostral pons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Site of serotonin synthesis

A

Raphe Nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Site of dopamine release in the brain

A

VTA and Substantia nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Functions of serotonin pathways

A

Mood,
Memory,
Sleep,
Cognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Functions of dopamine pathways

A
Reward,
Pleasure,
Euphoria,
Motor function, 
Compulsion, 
Perseveration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the glial syncytium?

A

Coupling of astrocytes via gap junctions, allowing diffusion of molecules <1kDa e.g. Second messengers, nucleotides and ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tripartite synapse is composed of…

A

ONE presynaptic nerve terminal
TWO astrocyte processes
and the postsynaptic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Major excitatory neurotransmitter in CNS

A

Glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Major inhibitory neurotransmitter in CNS

A

GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cholinergic neurons in the CNS

A

2 main groups in the pons whose axons run rostrally and terminate in either:
Substantia nigra/subthalamic nuclei - involved in stereotyped movements

Forebrain cholinergic nuclei - involved in memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Spinal projection of serotonergic nuclei from raphe nuclei are responsible for…

A

Analgesia in dorsal horn

Promotion of continence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Rostral projection of serotonergic nuclei from raphe nuclei are responsible for…

A

Sleep modulation

Some involvement in schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Function of corpus callosum

A

White matter tract which transfers information from one hemisphere to the other. Essential for integration of information inside the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Parts of the corpus callosum

A

Clockwise:

Rostrum
Genu (most anterior)
Body
Splenium (most posterior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where is the primary auditory cortex found?

A

Herschl’s gyrus - AKA transverse temporal gyrus, part of the temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Broca’s areas

A

Production of coherent speech

Found in frontal lobe of dominant hemisphere (left in 90% of individuals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Broca’s Aphasia

A

Limited ability to produce speech - broken

Good understanding of language - frustrated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Wernicke’s Aphasia

A

Able to produce connected speech - word salad

Poor understanding of language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Wernicke’s Area

A

Speech processing and understanding language
Found in posterior section of the superior temporal gyrus in (usually left) cerebral hemisphere.
Encircles auditory cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Function of CSF

A
Allows brain to float - almost weightless 
Protection from mechanical injury
Chemical stability (regulation of H+)
Protection against ischaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do the ventricles vary with age?

A

Increase in size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Weigert staining

A

Dark staining of white matter due to the presence of fat (myelin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Insula

A

Portion of cerebral cortex folded deep within lateral sulcus.
Separates temporal lobe from frontal and parietal
Responsible for autonomic effects of emotional changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hippocampus is responsible for…

A

Processing and formation of new memories.

Declarative memory - i.e. memories that can be explicitly verbalised (facts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Amygdala is responsible for…

A

Aggression and rage

Tags emotion to memories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the fornix?

A

White matter tract. Communicates between limbic system and cortex.
Major output tract of the hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Components of the limbic system

A
Amygdala 
Hippocampus 
Thalamus and hypothalamus 
Cingulate gyrus 
Basal ganglia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Thalamus and hypothalamus are associated with…

A

Changes in emotional reactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cingulate gyrus is responsible for…

A

Coordinating smells and sights with pleasant memories, induction of emotional reaction to pain and regulation of aggressive behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Function of the basal ganglia

A

Organising motor behaviour

Coordination of rule-based, habit learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Major components of basal ganglia

A

Caudate
Putamen
Globus pallidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Flow of CSF

A

Lateral ventricles through interventricular foramen into 3rd ventricle.
Through cerebral aqueduct into 4th ventricle
Then into subarachnoid space OR spinal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Resorption of CSF

A

Via arachnoid villi into dural venous sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Function of external ear

A

Collection of sound to be passes down the eardrum

40
Q

Function of middle ear

A

Secretory

41
Q

Function of inner ear

A

Sensory transduction

42
Q

Conduction hearing loss results from damage to…

A

Outer and middle ear

43
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss results from damage to…

A

Inner ear

44
Q

Function of the organ of corti

A

Sensory transduction - conversion of sound waves into electrical signals

45
Q

Ossicles: Lateral to medial

A

Malleus, Incus, Stapes

46
Q

Function of oval window of the middle ear

A

Receives vibrations from stapes - increased efficiency of sound transmission from tympanic membrane

47
Q

Function of round window of the middle ear

A

Pressure release valve - allows vibration of fluid in inner ear

48
Q

Otosclerosis

A
Loss of free movement of ossicles due to calcification of joint
Common in females 
15-35 yrs onset 
Can be triggered by pregnancy
Treated with prosthetic stapes
49
Q

Scala vestibuli contains

A

Perilymph

50
Q

Scala media contains

A

Endolymph

51
Q

Scala tympani contains

A

Perilymph

52
Q

Composition of endolymph

Why is this?

A

High concentration of K+ due to Na+/K+ pump is stria vascularis membrane

53
Q

Normal functioning of organ of Corti in response to sound:

A

Sound wave causes stereocilia to become deflected.
K+ channels open.
K+ diffuse into hair cells from scala media (since scala media has a high concentration of K+)
Depolarisation of hair cells generates an action potential.
Release of neurotransmitter causing sensory information to be carried along nerve fibres.

54
Q

Outer hair cells

A

12000
3 rows
Function as a cochlear amplifier - Basilar membrane on which the OHCs sit vibrates in response to sound waves. OHCs bounce on the basilar membrane, increasing size of the wave.

55
Q

Inner hair cells

A

3500
1 row
Responsible for pitch determination - Contraction of stereocilia in response to sound waves causing K+ channels to open.

56
Q

Tip links

A

Found between stereocilia (microvilli).
Cause stretching when villi are deflected.
Can be damaged by high intensity sound.

57
Q

Cochlear Microphonics

A

When the ear is damaged, hairs may still oscillate in the absence of external sound. Basilar membrane therefore vibrates and acts as a loud speaker, emitting sound.

58
Q

Difference tones

A

When 2 pure tones are presented to the ear, the movement of hair cells generates new waves that interact on basilar membrane to produce a 3rd peak. Perceived as a sound by the brain.

Frequency of difference tone = F2-F1

Only present if hair cells are intact.

59
Q

Tinnitus

A

Virtual sound from within the brain caused by a decreased perception of external sound, lesion of auditory nerve or hair cell damage.

60
Q

Tonotopy

A

Distance travelled down the basilar membrane by a wave is dependent on frequency.
Base is narrow and under tension.
Apex is wide and slack - cannot move fast enough to maintain a high frequency.

61
Q

Stapedius muscle

A

Limits movement of stapes to protect cochlea.

Activated by loud sounds and the sound of your own voice.

Innervated by facial nerve (CNVII)

62
Q

Loud sound exposure

A

For every 3dB increase in sound energy, safe exposure time is halved.

63
Q

Noise induced hearing loss

A

Most commonly affects frequency of 4kHz - therefore harder to hear consonants.
Roundening and shortening up of hair cells.

64
Q

Structures in the brain involved in hearing

A

Auditory cortex
Thalamus - Medial geniculate nucleus, involved in communication and control of auditory reflex.
Midbrain - Inferior colliculi, controls visual and auditory reflexes
Medulla - superior olivary nucleus, sound source localisation

65
Q

Function of superior olivary nucleus

A

Sound source localisation by comparison of the time and sound intensity between ears.

Found in medulla

66
Q

Indication for cochlear implants

A

Cochlear hair cell dysfunction.

Spiral ganglia and cochlear branch of vestibulococlear nerve must be intact.

67
Q

Mechanism for cochlear implant function

A

External processor breaks down sound into its frequency components.
Different frequency channels transmitted to the implant receiver.
Signal conducted along wires that end in electrodes in the cochlear (only go half way into cochlear - scala tympani)
Stimulation of nerve cells underneath the appropriate region of basilar membrane.

68
Q

Links between Central executive and long term memory in multistore model

A

Short term, working memory:

Visuospatial sketchpad - temporary holding of information (frontal, parietal and occipital lobes)

Episodic buffer

Phonological loop - inner ear, voice and Broca’s areas

69
Q

Features of phonological loop

A

Temporary - rehearsal of speech-like information

Iconic: <1s, visual storage
Echoic: <4s, sound storage
Haptic: Touch and sensation
Smell: Via olfactory bulb

70
Q

Characteristic of short term/working memory

A

Can hold 5-9 items for about 20s

Useful for reasoning, learning and comprehension

71
Q

Long term memory consolidation occurs due to…

A

Strengthening of neural networks by increased [Ca2+] in post synaptic membrane

72
Q

Types of long term memory

A

Explicit/Declarative - can be episodic or semantic

Implicit/Non declarative - can be procedural or emotional

73
Q

Area of the brain responsible for explicit/declarative long term memory

A

Medial temporal lobe

74
Q

Area of the brain responsible for procedural skills and actions (a form of implicit/non declarative memory)

A

Striatum

Cerebellum controls the skeletal musculature essential for this.

Motor cortex

75
Q

Area of the brain responsible for emotional conditioning (a form of implicit/non declarative memory)

A

Amygdala

76
Q

Anterograde amnesia

A

Problems encoding, storing or retrieving new information

77
Q

Retrograde amnesia

A

Problems remembering events from the past

78
Q

Causes of amnesia

A
Anoxia/Hypoxia
Korsakoff's Syndrome 
Alzheimer's Disease
Temporal lobe surgery
Herpes Simplex Encephalitis
79
Q

Damage to hippocampus results in…

A

Retrograde amnesia

80
Q

Function of prefrontal cortex in memory

A

Monitoring, organising and using memory

81
Q

Effect on memory of damage to frontal lobe

A

Affects how patients use memory - unable to manipulate explicit memory i.e. scheduling and planning.

Leads to exaggerated stroop effect (i.e. when names of colours are written in different colours, px says the colour and not the word) - demonstration of interference in the reaction time of a task.

82
Q

Effects of ageing on the brain

A

Brain starts to shrink
Degradation of myelin - therefore reduces communication between hemispheres and frontal lobe.
Narrowing of blood vessels
Ventricles dilate.

83
Q

Area of the brain responsible for episodic memory (a form of explicit/declarative memory)

A

Hippocampus
Medial temporal lobe
Neocortex

84
Q

Area of the brain responsible for semantic memory (a form of explicit/declarative memory)

A

i.e. knowledge and concepts

Lateral and anterior temporal cortex
Prefrontal cortex

85
Q

Prebycusis

A

Age related hearing loss, particularly at high frequency end

86
Q

Pinae

A

External ear

87
Q

Serous Otitis Media

A

Problem with drainage along a narrow eustachian tube.
Common in children and often linked to respiratory infection.
Can be treated with grommets - provide an alternative drainage route.

88
Q

Waardenburg Syndrome

A

When cells that control K+ secretion in stria vascularis fail to migrate during development.
DEAFNESS due to lack of endocochlear potential.

89
Q

Involuntary cough when cleaning ears may occur due to

A

Stimulation of auricular branch of vagus nerve - responsible for cough reflex

90
Q

Inner ear is located…

A

Within petrous part of temporal bone

91
Q

Auditory reflex

A

Turning of head and eyes to look towards stimulus. Results from tectospinal tract.

92
Q

How does Herschl’s Gyrus distinguish between sounds?

A

Contains a tonotopic map of frequency.
Lower frequency sounds will cause vibration of wide, slack apex of basilar membrane.
Higher frequency sounds will cause vibration of narrow, tight base of basilar membrane.

93
Q

Damage to chorda tympani branch of facial nerve

A

Decrease in taste and salivary production (Supplies the anterior 2/3rds of tongue)

94
Q

Pulsatile tinnitus

A

Caused by blood flow in the ear, muscle grinding or grinding of temporo-mandibular joint

95
Q

Medications which affect hearing:

A

Salycilates e.g. aspirin
Anti-inflammatories e.g. ibuprofen
Pain medication e.g. hydrocodone - opiate
Cinchona Alkaloids- antimalarial e.g. Quinine, Quinidine
Loop diuretics for hypertension/oedema
Aminoglycoside antibiotics
Antineoplastics for cancer chemotherapy