Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 2 > Case 2 > Flashcards

Case 2 Flashcards

1
Q

MOA of combined oral contraceptive pill

A

Oestrogen - inhibits FSH, therefore stops follicle development
Progesterone - inhibits LH, therefore stops ovulation. Also prevents sperm traffic since P causes vagina to have thicker mucus and be more acidic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ADRs of combined oral contraceptive pill

A 
Thromboembolism 
Stroke/MI
Increased risk of breast cancer 
Hypertension 
Skin pigmentation 
Weight gain
Nausea 
Irregular bleeding 
Mood changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Contraindications for combined oral contraceptive pill

A

Hx of thrombosis,
Risk factors for thromboembolism - obese, immobile, >35yrs, smoking, family hx
Heart disease with pulmonary hypertension/embolism
Migraines
Hx or family Hx of breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Methods of emergency contraception

A

Levonorgestrel - Inhibits GnRH release by binding to O and P receptors. Can be used up to 70 hours after unprotected sex.

Ulipristal - Inhibits ovulation by binding to progesterone receptor. Can be used up to 120 hours after unprotected sex.

IUD - more effective than levonorgestrel (unknown comparison to ulipristal). Can be used up to 120 hours after unprotected sex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Methods of Contraception: Cap/Diaphragm

A

Inserted up to 2 hrs before sex
Left in for at least 6 hours after sex.
Can be used during period.
Used with spermicide gel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Methods of Contraception: Depo Provera

A

Medroxyprogesterone injection, lasting 12-14wks

ADRs
Little or no bleeding, mood problems, bone density problems, long lasting effects (can be more than one year)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Methods of Contraception: Implanon

A 
Etonergestrol 
Lasts 3 yrs
15-20% risk of abnormal bleeding 
Regain fertility very quickly after removal 
**Most effective form of contraception**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Methods of Contraception: Intrauterine System

A

Progesterone impregnated coil.
Progesterone creates an unfavourable environment for sperm - thick mucus and acidic
Lasts 5 yrs
Sometimes causes hormonal problems and irregular bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Methods of Contraception: Intrauterine Device

A

Copper coil (copper is spermicidal)
Lasts 10yrs
Often causes heavy bleeding
Almost 100% effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Effects of FSH

A

Development of primary follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Effects of LH

A

Ovulation

Stimulates theca cells to convert cholesterol to androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Effects of oestrogen

A

Inhibits FSH
Stimulates granulosa cells to convert androgens to oestrogens
Makes cervical mucus thinner and therefore easier for sperm to swim
Stimulates proliferation of stratum basalis to form stratum functionalis (thickening of endometrium) AND elongation of endometrial glands
Increased movement in uterine tubes
Increased clotting factors and platelet adhesion
Reduced bone loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Effects of progesterone

A

Thickening of endometrium
Increased viscosity and acidity of cervical mucus
Stimulates uterine glands to secrete uterine milk (high in protein and glycogen)
Suppresses maternal immune response during pregnancy
Decreased uterine contractility
Inhibits lactation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

LH and FSH are released from:

A

Anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Progesterone is secreted by…

A

Granulosa cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does the secondary follicle differ from primary?

A

Larger
More follicular/granulosa cells
Follicular fluid spaces have formed and will coalesce to form the antrum.
Theca layer differentiates into an interna and externa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do theca interna and externa cells differ?

A

Theca interna - large, steroid hormone-producing cells

Theca externa - small, compact cells, continuous with stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Function of thecal cells

A

Production of steroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Function of granulosa cells

A

Converts steroids into oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Peg cell

A

Non ciliated epithelial cell within uterine tube. Secretes a watery solution to nourish gametes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

LH surge occurs as a result of…

A

High levels of oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Formation of corpus luteum

A

LH stimulates proteolytic activity in theca externa and tunica albuginea - therefore breakdown of collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Corpus luteum appears yellow due to…

A

Fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Formation of corpus albicans

A

Progesterone secretion by corpus luteum inhibits FSH and LH
After 10 days, leutolysis of CL
Corpus albicans is formed at day 25.
It is a fibrous, ovoid structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cholesterol to Oestrogen

A

Theca cells convert cholesterol to androgens (stimulated by LH). Androgens converted to oestrogen by granulosa cells (stimulates by FSH and oestrogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Epithelium found in uterine tubes

A

Simple cuboidal

Secretory peg cells and ciliated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Epithelium found in ectocervix

A

Non keratinised, stratified squamous epithelium - protection from abrasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Epithelium found in endocervix

A

Simple columnar epithelium. Contains crypts which secrete mucous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Nervous innervation of Clitoris and Vestibule (Anterior vulva)

A

Anterior ilioinguinal branch of genitofemoral nerve.

Parasympathetic innervation from cavernous nerves of uterovaginal plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Nervous innervation of Posterior vulva

A

Posterior pudendal nerve and cutaneous nerve of thigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Lymphatic drainage of vulva

A

Superficial inguinal lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Venous drainage of vulva

A

Pudendal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Arterial supply of vulva

A

Pudendal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Epithelium found in vagina

A

Stratified squamous - protection, lubrication, stimulated by oestrogen to secrete glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Arterial supply of vagina

A

Uterine and vaginal arteries branching from internal iliac vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Venous drainage of vagina

A

Vaginal venous plexus, drains into internal iliac vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Lymphatic drainage of vagina

A

Iliac and superficial inguinal lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Nervous innervation of vagina

A

Superior portion - inferior uterovaginal plexus

Inferior portion - deep perineal branch of pudendal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Tissues of the penis

A 
Corpus cavernosum (x2)
Corpus spongiosum (x1) contains urethra
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Muscles involved in maintaining an erection

A

Ischiocavernosus - surrounds crura, contracts to push blood into corpus cavernosum.
Bulbospongiosus - associated with bulb of penis, contracts to empty urethra of residual semen and urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Arterial supply of penis

A

Internal pudendal (branch of internal iliac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Venous drainage of penis

A

Deep dorsal vein of penis - drains cavernous spaces into prostatic venous plexus
Superficial dorsal veins - drain superficial structures such as skin and cutaneous tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Sensory and sympathetic innervation of penis

A

Dorsal nerve (branch of pudendal nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Parasympathetic innervation of penis

A

Cavernous nerves from prostatic plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Tunica Albuginea of testis

A

Divides testi into lobules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Nervous innervation of testis and epididymis

A

Testicular plexus - derived from renal and aortic plexus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Arterial supply of testis and epididymis

A

Testicular arteries - branch from aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Venous drainage of testis and epididymis

A

Pampiniform plexus forms testicular veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Layers of spermatic cord

A 
Skin
Dartos 
External spermatic fascia 
Cremaster muscle 
Internal spermatic fascia 
Tunica vaginalis - parietal and Visceral
Testis

Some Damned Englishman Called It The Testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Contents of spermatic cord

A

3x Arteries: Testicular, Cremasteric and artery to vas deferens
Pampiniform plexus and cremasteric vein
Lymph vessels (drain into paraaortic nodes (lumbar)
Vas deferens
Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Arterial supply of scrotum

A

Posterior scrotal artery (branch of internal pudendal artery)
Anterior scrotal artery (branch of external pudendal artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Venous drainage of scrotum

A

Scrotal vein - into external pudendal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Seminal Vesicles

A

Secrete 70% of semen
Alkaline fluid - neutralises vagina
Fructose - nourishment of sperm
Prostaglandins - suppress female immune response to foreign bodies
Clotting factors - keeps semen in female reproductive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Bulbourethral glands

A

Produce an alkaline lubricant to carry sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Prostate cancer

A 
Peripheral zone (adjacent to rectum) - most common site of prostate cancer (carcinoma)
Transitional zone - most common site of benign prostatic hyperplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Nervous innervation of prostate

A

Inferior hypogastric plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Venous drainage of prostate

A

Prostatic venous plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Arterial supply of prostate

A

Prostatic arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Function of dartos muscle

A

Temperature regulation - contracts to decrease surface area of scrotum, therefore reducing heat loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Nervous innervation of anterolateral scrotum

A

Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Nervous innervation of anterior and posterior scrotum

A

Scrotal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Nervous innervation of inferior scrotum

A

Perineal branches of posterior femoral cutaneous nerve (from sacral plexus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Sertolli Cells

A

Tall, simple columnar epithelial cells

Provide nutrients to sperm
Phagocytose excess spermatoid cytoplasm
Have tight junctions between them, forming the blood-testis barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Leydig Cells

A

Intersitial cells, lying between tubules in the testis.

Have an eosinophilic, cholesterol containing cytoplasm

Secrete testosterone in response to LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Direct inguinal hernia

A

Medial to epigastric vessels
Weakness in posterior wall of inguinal canal - inguinal contents emerges medial to deep ring
Seen in elderly with chronic conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Indirect inguinal hernia

A

Lateral to epigastric vessels
Inguinal contents pass through inguinal canal and exit through superficial inguinal ring
Seen in children and young people
Can descend into scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Deep inguinal ring is located…

A

At the midpoint between ASIS and pubic tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Symptoms of lower UTI

A

Dysuria (pain on urination) and nocturia
Smelly, cloudy, foul-smelling urine
Urgency
Frequency
(Suprapubic tenderness and haematuria in cystitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Symptoms of upper UTI

A 
Loin pain
Chills 
Fever
Dysuria (pain on urination)
Smelly, cloudy urine 
Urgency 
Frequency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Management of UTI

A

Encourage fluids inc. Cranberry Juice
Uncomplicated - Trimethoprim
Complicated - Amoxycillin +/- gentamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Complicated UTI?

A 
Children under 5
Pregnant women
Men
Patient who is immunocompromised 
Patient with renal impairment or renal tract abnormality 
Pyelonephritis 
Recurrent or relapsed UTI
72
Q

MOA of beta lactam antibiotics

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis

73
Q

Beta Lactam Antibiotics examples

A

Penicillins - amoxycillin, flucloxacillin

Cephalosporins - cefalexin

74
Q

MOA of aminoglycoside antibiotics

A

Binds to 30s of ribosome, causing mRNA to be read incorrectly. Inhibitor of protein synthesis

75
Q

Aminoglycoside Antibiotic examples

A

Gentamycin
Steptomycin
Kanamycin

76
Q

MOA of glycopeptide antibiotics

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis

77
Q

Glycopeptide antibiotic examples

A

Vancomycin

78
Q

MOA of Quinolone antibiotics

A

Interfere with DNA replication and transcription

79
Q

Quinolone antibiotic examples

A

Ciprofloxacin

Levofloxacin

80
Q

MOA of Oxazolidinones

A

Inhibit protein synthesis

81
Q

Oxazolidinone antibiotic examples

A

Linezoid
Posizoid
Cycloserin

82
Q

ADRs of beta lactam penicillins

A

GI disturbance
Type I and IV hypersensitivity reactions
Cholestatic jaundice (with co-amoxiclav)

83
Q

Indication for beta lactam antibiotics

A

Gram positive and negative organisms

84
Q

Amoxicillin is indicated for…

A

Oral infections: Lyme Disease, Anthrax, H-Pylori

85
Q

ADRs of Quinolones

A 
Tendon rupture (elderly)
Decreased seizure threshold 
Peripheral neuropathy 
Hypoglycaemia 
High C. Diff risk
86
Q

Co amoxiclav is indicated for…

A

Animal bites
GU infection
Joint/bone infection

87
Q

Indication for Quinolones (Ciprofloxacin)

A

Gram +ve and -ve bacteria

Pseudomonas, chlamydia, gonorrhoea and typhoid

88
Q

MOA of Macrolides

A

Bind to 50s of ribosome, inhibiting binding of tRNA.

Protein synthesis inhibition.

89
Q

Example of macrolide antibiotic

A

Clarithromycin

90
Q

Indication for Cephalosporins (Beta Lactam)

A 
Septicaemia
Pneumonia
Biliary tract infection
Meningitis 
Epiglottitis 
Gonorrhoea
91
Q

Indication for clarithromycin

A

Atypical pneumonias

Campylobacter

92
Q

ADRs of macrolides

A

QT Prolongation

SJS/TENS (potentially fatal skin reaction)

93
Q

ADRs of Aminoglycosides/Gentamyci

A

Nephrotoxicity

Irreversible ototoxicity

94
Q

MOA of nitrofurantoin

A

Acetyl CoA inhibitor. Interferes with CHO metabolism

95
Q

Indication for nitrofurantoin

A

UTIs

96
Q

ADRs of nitrofurantoin

A

Pulmonary fibrosis
Retroperitoneal fibrosis
Peripheral neuropathy

97
Q

MOA of Trimethoprim

A

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase.

Therefore, reduced folate metabolism.

98
Q

Indication for trimethoprim

A

UTI
Bronchitis
Pneumocystic Pneumonia

99
Q

ADRs of Trimethoprim

A

Hyperkalaemia

100
Q

Indication for glycopeptides/vancomycin

A

Gram positive cocci

C.Diff

101
Q

ADRs for glycopeptides/vancomycin

A

Nephrotoxicity

Ototoxic

102
Q

MOA of metronidazole

A

Disrupts DNA structure and inhibits nucleic acid synthesis

103
Q

Indication for metronidazole

A

Anaerobic infection
Protozoal infection
H. Pylori
Crohn’s

104
Q

ADRs of metronidazole

A

Disulfram reaction with alcohol

105
Q

Acute pyelonephritis

A

Inflammation of kidney tissue

Pain in loins, fever, shivering, fits, N+V, Malaise

106
Q

Perinephrosis

A

Obstruction and infection of the kidney - usually caused by a kidney stone.
Leading to pus formation

Signs/Symptoms:
Loin pain/swelling
Weight loss
Night sweats and rigor 
Scoliosis
107
Q

Staghorn calculus

A

Branched kidney stone forms a cast of collecting system of kidney. Fills calyx and pelvis.

Can cause perinephric abscess or pyonephrosis.

108
Q

Vesico-ureteric reflux

A

On contraction of the bladder, valve between ureter and bladder is not closed off (due to damage or congenital abnormality). Back flow of urine into ureter, where it sits as a stagnant pool - infected urine can reach the kidneys.

109
Q

Recurrent UTI

A

Different organism causing UTI each time

110
Q

Relapse UTI

A

Same organism causing another UTI within 2 weeks

111
Q

Treatment of non pregnant, adult female with symptoms of lower UTI

A

Trimethprim or nitrofurantoin

112
Q

Treatment of non pregnant, adult female with symptoms of upper UTI

A

Ciprofloxacin or co-amoxiclav

113
Q

Treatment of adult male with symptoms suggestive of prostatitis

A

Ciprofloxacin (Quinolones)

114
Q

Treatment of UTI in pregnant woman

A

Nitrofurantoin

Amoxicillin

115
Q

UTI antibiotics contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Trimethoprim - Folate antagonist

Ciprofloxacin - causes bone development problems

116
Q

Why does pregnancy increase risk of UTI?

A

Reduced hygiene
Compression of bladder by uterus - incomplete voiding
Increased GFR - glc filtered out more rapidly, more glc in urine attracting bacteria

117
Q

Function of internal urethral sphincter

A

Only found in males
Contracts during ejaculation to prevent seminal regurgitation
In response to sympathetic innervation

118
Q

Mechanisms of prevention of UTI by the body:

A

Complete urinary voiding (vesicoureteric junction)
Bactericidal secretions
Low pH of urine
High [urea] in urine

119
Q

Clinical measure of GFR

A

Creatinine

120
Q

Arterial supply of ureters

A

Abdominal region - renal and testicular/ovarian arteries

Pelvic region - vesical arteries

121
Q

Venous drainage of ureters

A

Abdominal region - renal and testicular/ovarian veins

Pelvic region - vesical veins

122
Q

Nerve supply of ureters

A

T11-L2

Renal, testicular/ovarian hypogastric plexuses

123
Q

Epithelium found in bladder

A

Transitional - able to stretch in response to increasing volume of bladder
Looks like stratified squamous epithelium

124
Q

Detrusor Muscle

A

Smooth muscle found in walls of bladder.

Contracts during voiding

125
Q

Trigone

A

Smooth, triangular area of the bladder, marking the internal urethral orifice
Borders: 2 ureteric openings and 1 urethral opening.

126
Q

Nervous innervation of bladder

A

Sympathetic (retention) - hypogastric nerve T12-L2
Parasympathetic (micturition) - Pelvic nerve S2-S4
Somatic - Pudendal nerve S2-S4

127
Q

Function of external urethral orifice

A

Skeletal muscle involved in micturition (in both sexes)

128
Q

Bartholin’s Glands

A

Posterior and to the left and right of the vaginal opening.
Secrete mucus to lubricate the vagina.
Homologous to bulbourethral glands in males.

129
Q

Epithelium found in proximal convoluted tubule

A

Simple, tall cuboidal

Convoluted surface, increases surface area for reabsorption

130
Q

Function of PCT

A

Responsible for 2/3s of reabsorption of H2O, Na+, K+, Cl- and HCO3-

131
Q

Glucose transporters found in PCT

A

Proximal 2/3: GLUT2 and SGLT2 (low affinity, act when [Glc] is high)

Distal 1/3: GLUT1 and SGLT1 (high affinity)

132
Q

SGLT

A

Sodium Glucose Transport Proteins. Reabsorption of Glc in PCT coupled with movement of Na+ down its concentration gradient.

133
Q

AQP1

A

Aquaporin. Allows reabsorption of water from descending loop of Henle

134
Q

How does epithelium in DCT differ from that of the PCT?

A

DCT also has cuboidal epithelium

But has fewer villi (since it is less important for absorption)

135
Q

Calcium reabsorption in kidney nephrons

A

TRPV5 and TRPV6 (increased expression in response to PTH, in order to increase plasma Ca2+)
70% occurs in PCT and ascending loop

136
Q

How does ADH/vasopressin bring about increased water reabsorption?

A

Released from posterior pituitary.
Binds to GPCRs on basolateral membrane.
Activation of AC, increased cAMP and activation of PKA.
PKA initiates fusion of vesicles containing water channels - Aquaporins 2 and 3

137
Q

Progression of acquired syphilis

A

Painless but highly infectious rash for 2-6wks
Followed by sore throat, fever and skin rash.
Can lead to gummatous (15%), CVD - aortitis or aneurysm (6%) and neurological problems - dementia, psychosis, paresis (10%

138
Q

Characteristics of congenital syphilis

A 
Rash
Periostitis 
Enlarged lymph nodes, spleen and liver
Neuro and ocular movement changes 
Swelling of joints 
Tooth deformity (Hutchinson's - spikey)
High palatal arch
Short maxilla 
Saddle nose
139
Q

Treatment of syphilis

A

Early - Penicillin for 10 days

Late - Daily penicillin, Probenecid 4x/day (increases uric acid secretion in urine, enhances action of penicillin)

140
Q

Signs/Symptoms of Chlamydia

A

80% Asymptomatic
Urethritis
Proctitis
Epididymitis

141
Q

Treatment of chlamydia

A

Single dose of azithromycin (protein synthesis inhibitor)

Doxycycline (protein synthesis inhibitor) BTD for 7 days

142
Q

Signs/Symptoms of Gonorrhoea

A 
10% asymptomatic 
Urethritis 
Proctitis 
Discharge (anal, vaginal, urethral)
Pharyngitis and eye infections
143
Q

Treatment of Gonorrhoea

A

Ceftriaxone I/M
1g Azithromycin Orally

(Single dose)

144
Q

Clinical presentation of genital warts (HPV)

A

Painless, soft, fleshy growths around genitalia

145
Q

Treatment of genital warts (HPV)

A

Removal (surgical, freezing, chemical)

146
Q

Types of HSV

A

Type I - Oral cold sores

Type 2 - STI/Painful genital ulcers

147
Q

Effect of compression of pudendal nerve during childbirth

A

Sensory loss surrounding skin of perineum

Motor loss of urethral sphincters (incontinence)

148
Q

Pouch of Douglas

A

Rectouterine pouch

149
Q

How does the female pelvis differ from the male pelvis

A

Female has a wider suprapubic angle and pubic inlet

150
Q

Effects of relaxin hormone

A 
Increased laxity of pubic symphysis and sacroiliac joints during pregnancy - allowing expansion during childbirth.
Increased CO
Induces constipation 
Increased renal perfusion
Cervix dilatation
151
Q

How do the structures palpated during a DRE differ in a male and female?

A

Male: seminal vesicle and prostate gland. Female: Uterus

152
Q

Hypospadias

A

Congenital malformation causing there to be an abnormal opening to the urethral meatus

153
Q

Transurethral Resection of Prostate

A

Removal of part of prostate through urethra using a cauterising loop.
Risk of removing part of the internal urethral sphincter - resulting in retrograde ejaculation.

154
Q

‘Water under the bridge’

A

Ureters run underneath the uterine artery.

Important when carrying out an ovariectomy, when ovarian arteries are ligated, to avoid damage to ureters.

155
Q

Pap smear

A

Used to detect changes to the cells (dysplasia) in and around the cervix.

156
Q

Description of Pap smear showing Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion

A 
Mild dysplasia (CIN I) Often associated with HPV/Genital warts
Normally resolved without intervention within 18-24 months
157
Q

Description of Pap smear showing high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion

A

Severe dysplasia - shrivelled membranes, enlarged nuclei with less cytoplasm, giants cells and RBCs (CIN II and III)
Precancerous lesions

158
Q

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia Grade II

A

Moderate dysplasia

Confined to basal 2/3 of epithelium

159
Q

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia Grade III

A

Severe dysplasia
Spans more than 2/3 of epithelium (may be full thickness)
Also referred to as Carcinoma in situ

160
Q

Tanner Scale

A

Measures male and female development (puberty)

161
Q

Prader Orchometer

A

Measures volume of testis (4ml at the onset of puberty)

162
Q

Female growth spurt occurs at age

A

11

163
Q

Male growth spurt occurs at age

A

13

164
Q

Effect of age on gonadal feedback

A

Prepuberty - gonadal steroids and gonadotrophins are LOW but feedback mechanism is very sensitive.
Puberty - gonadal steroids and gonadotrophins are HIGH but decreasing in sensitivity
Adult - maximum gonadal steroids and gonadotrophins, lowest sensitivity

165
Q

Leptin deficiency in puberty

A

Causes biochemical Hypothalamic Hypogonadism - adult women not menstruating or are prepubertal developmentally

166
Q

Effects of delayed onset puberty

A 
Short stature
Low self confidence
Rejection
Inadequacy
Disturbed relationship with parents
Attention seeking behaviour 
Persistence of psychological characteristics into adult life
167
Q

Treatment of delayed onset puberty in males

A

Testosterone from 14yrs until testicular volume reaches >8mls

Pituitary-gonadal testing if no testicular enlargement occurs

168
Q

Treatment of delayed onset puberty in females

A

Ethinyloestradiol until puberty established

169
Q

Treatment of delayed onset puberty in females

A

Ethinyloestradiol until puberty established

170
Q

Conditions associated with hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

A

Kallman’s Syndrome - Mutations in KAL1 gene causing olfactory hypogenesis and failure of GnRH neuronal migration.

Prader-Willi Syndrome - impaired response to LH and FSH

171
Q

Treatment of precocious puberty in females

A

Aromatase inhibitor - enzyme normally converts testosterone to oestrogen

172
Q

Abortifacients

A

Mifepristone - Progesterone receptor antagonist. Causes endometrial degeneration and sensitises uterine contractions to prostaglandins

Gemeprost - Analogue of PGE2, used with mifepristone. Reduces obstetric bleeding by causing vasoconstriction.

173
Q

3 forms of chlamydia

A

Infection of eyelids
STI
Lymphogranuloma Venereum (of lymph nodes)

174
Q

Consequences of untreated chlamydia

A 
Pelvic inflam disease 
Ectopic pregnancy 
Tubal infertility 
Chronic pain 
Increased HIV transmission 
Reiter's Syndrome (arthritis, conjunctivitis, urethritis)
Transmission to baby during childbirth.
175
Q

Antibiotics which delay metabolism in the liver

A

Metronidazole, Isoniazid, chloramphenicol

Year 2 (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions