Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Case 1 > Case 1 Independent Learning > Flashcards

Case 1 Independent Learning Flashcards

1
Q

What are the layers of a vessel wall from inside to outside

A

Tunica intima, subendothelium, internal elastic lamina, tunica media and tunica adventitia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe tunica intima

A

Also known as endothelum. Composed of endothelium cells and is a continuous membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe subendothelium

A

Composed of fibrous collagen which means the blood vessel retains its shape during contraction and expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe internal elastic lamina

A

Composed of elastin fibres which means the blood vessel retains its shape during contraction and expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe tunic media

A

Composed of smooth muscle fibres, elastin and collagen is fed by the autonomic nervous system which stimulates vasoconstriction or vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe tunica adventitia

A

Composed of collagen, fibroblasts and elastin which provide support and shape the vessel around the surrounding tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is formed in primary haemostasis

A

A soft clot involving platelets and von willebrand factor. The soft clot heals the sight of damage however is not strong or stable enough on its own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happens during secondary haemostasis

A

The clot is stabilised by fibrin which goes over and through the clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

During primary haemostasis what sticks platelets to the wall of the vessel

A

von Willebrand factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens when the vessel wall is damaged

A

Collagen of the subendothelium is exposed resulting in von Willebrand factor changing shape which causes platelets to bind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens when platelets bind to the damaged vessel wall

A

They activate other platelets via platelet aggregation resulting in the formation of a soft clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is factor II called when inactive and then when active

A

II= prothrombin IIa= thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is factor III called and where does is come from

A

Tissue factor which comes from outside the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is factor I called when inactive and then when active

A

I= fibringogen, Ia= fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where does the the common pathway start

A

At X being converted to Xa.Va

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Xa.Va called

A

Prothrombinase complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the three stages of the current model

A

Initiation, amplification and propagation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens in initiation

A

Coagulation occurs as surrounding tissue is activated and combines with tissue factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens in amplification

A

Vessel damage results in primary haemostasis and thrombin activated incoming coagulation factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens in propagation

A

The negative platelet surface attracts coagulation factors which bind to platelets which results in large amounts of thrombin being produces which is a called a ‘trombin burst’ and results in fibrization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 3 aspects of the classic model

A

Intrinsic pathway (starts factor XII), extrinsic pathway (starts and factor III) and common pathway (starts at factor X)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do people with haemophilia A lack

A

Factor VIIIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do people with haemophilia B lack

A

Factor IXa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which model explains why haemophiliacs bleed

A

Only the current model (not the classic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What do people with Haemophilia C lack

A

Factor XI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe Von Willibrand Type 1 disease

A

Some levels of VWF deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe Von Willibrand Type 2 disease

A

Normal levels of VWF but it doesn’t function properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe Von Willibrand Type 3 disease

A

No VWF present at all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe thrombocytopathia

A

Vitamin C deficiency- weakened blood vessels (vitamin C is involved in the formation of collagen present in the vessel wall)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe Vitamin K deficiency

A

Vitamin K is required for the synthesis of certain clotting factors (e.g. prothrombin); disorder of the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What type of joint is the knee

A

A bicondylar synovial joint- 3 articulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the joint between the foot and the lower leg

A

Synovial joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the function of fibrocartilage

A

Increases stability of the joint by deepening the articular surfaces, provides shock absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is made of fibrocartilage

A

Menisci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where is hyaline cartilage and what is its function

A

Surrounds ends of the bones and provides a smooth surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe the structure and function of bursae

A

Filled with synovial fluid for smooth movement

37
Q

Describe the structure and function of ligaments

A

A ligament is a bone to bone attachment which limits allowable movements and inhibits unwanted movements, proprioception, can hold tendons in place, made of dense regular tissue

38
Q

Describe the structure and function of a tendon

A

Muscle to bone attachments, make muscle contraction more economical, allows the muscle belly to be distant from the site of action, consists of type I collagen and dense regular connective tissue (layers of collagen and fibroblasts)

39
Q

What is foot drop caused by

A

Damage to the common fibular nerve

40
Q

Describe a tibial or fibular fracture (tibia shaft)

A

Open fracture, the nutrient canal containing the nutrient artery could be damaged causing excessive bleeding

41
Q

Describe compartment syndrome

A

Results in swelling (oedma) and subsequent loss of function, increases intra-compartmental pressure

42
Q

Describe ACL damage

A

hyperextension (not landing properly when jumping), tend to be complete ruptures

43
Q

Describe PCL damage

A

Dashboard injury, tend to be more partial tears

44
Q

Describe medial ligament damage

A

Pain on medial rotation and medial meniscus

45
Q

Describe lateral ligament damage

A

Pain on lateral rotation

46
Q

What is the function of the patella

A

To increase the angle at which the joint can act (patellar ligament)

47
Q

Describe the peroneal nerve

A

Also known ad the deep fibular nerve. branch of the sciatic nerve (L4-F3), trauma or injury to the knee are common causes of damage

48
Q

Describe A delta fibres

A

Sharp pain, myelinated

49
Q

Describe C fibres

A

Dull, achy pain, polymodal

50
Q

What is secondary hyperalgesia

A

Increase in pain sensitivity due to build-up of substance P in dorsal horn

51
Q

What is the role of nociceptors in the joint capsule

A

Release neuropeptides such as substance P

52
Q

What is the release of substance P required for

A

Stimuli to be perceived as moderate to intense pain

53
Q

What do all primary sensory neurones use as their main excitatory transmitter

A

Glutamate

54
Q

What other neurotransmitters do nociceptive afferents use

A

Substance P or CGRP

55
Q

What does substance P stimulate

A

Release of histamine from mast cells and causes vasodilation which contributes to teh inflammatory response

56
Q

What does CGRP do

A

Promote vasodilation

57
Q

What do histamine, prostaglandins and bradykinin do

A

Increase the sensitivity of nociceptive sensory endings

58
Q

What is primary hyperalgesia

A

Histamine, prostaglandins and bradykinin increasing the sensitivity of nociceptive sensory endings

59
Q

What can NMDA receptor antagonists be used as

A

Analgesics

60
Q

What happens when there is prolonged stimulation of nociceptors

A

Build up of substance P in dorsal horn accompanied by progressive increase in activity of nociceptove pathways which is associated with changes in the responsiveness of NMDA type gulamate receptor which may lead to long term potentiation of synapses in pain= secondary hyperalgesia

61
Q

What is allodynia

A

Touch sensory neurones may start to generate the sensation of pain

62
Q

What do spinothalamic neurones receive input from

A

Both nociceptive and touch sensitive sensory neurones

63
Q

Describe the action of nociceptors on spinothalamic neurones

A

Stimulate spinothalamic neurones leading to perceieved sensation of pain

64
Q

Describe the action of mechanoreceptors on spinothalamic neurones

A

Low threshold mechanoreceptors stimulate spinothalamic neurones only weakly which is not perceived as pain

65
Q

What closes the gate to pain pathway

A

Stimulation of low threshold mechanoreceptors

66
Q

Where are cutaneous receptors located

A

In the skin

67
Q

Where are somatic receptors located

A

In the body e.g. joint teceptors and golgi tendon organs (detect tensile force in the tendons)

68
Q

What triggers the inflammatory response

A

Cytokines released by sentinel macrophages

69
Q

What are the macrophages activated by in inflammation

A

Macrohphages are activated by PAMP’s (pathogen associated molecular patterns) expressed on the pathogen tnan can bind and activate PRRs including the toll-like receptor

70
Q

What are the main cytokines produced by macrophages

A

IL-1, IL-6, IL-8, IL-12, TNFα

71
Q

How does TNFα work

A

It is able to act on the local endothelium to make it leaky, thereby allowing the entry of blood plasma containing complement proteins.

72
Q

What does TNFα release result in

A

Up-regulation of adhension receptors on teh endothelial cell to permit the binding and extravastion of blood neutrophils.

73
Q

What is oedema

A

The medical term for fluid retention in the body, the build-up of fluid causes affected tissue to become swollen. Swelling outside the joint

74
Q

What contribute activation product also contributes to inflammation

A

C5a

75
Q

What are prostaglandins derived from

A

Membrane phospholipids

76
Q

What are prostaglandins produced in response to

A

IL-1β and TNFα mediated activation of phospholipid A2

77
Q

What do prostaglandins play a role in

A

Inflammation, induce vasodilation and contribute to pain (reduce the threshold for sensing pain)

78
Q

What do NSAIDs such as aspirin and ibubrofen inhibit

A

Prostaglandin synthesis and thereby reduce the inflammation and pain

79
Q

Describe C3 convertase

A

Cleaves C3 into C3a and C3b, also cleaves C5 into C5a and C5b

80
Q

Describe the role of C3b

A

Involved in opsonisation, circulated in the blood, generated C3 convertase, C3b binds to C5 which allows it to be cleaved by the convertase

81
Q

What is C3a needed for

A

Mast cells to degranulate

82
Q

What is C5a needed for

A

Mast cells to degranulate

83
Q

What is haemarthrosis

A

Bleeding in the joint, normally causes by an injury resulting in rapid swelling

84
Q

If a swollen knee develops a few hours-days after an injury what is it most likely due to

A

An increase in synovial fluid in the joint

85
Q

What is knee effusion

A

An increase of synovial fluid in the joint (swelling in the joint

86
Q

What does (P)RICE stand for

A

Protection, rest, ice, compress, elevate

87
Q

Which antibody crosses the placenta

A

IgG

88
Q

Which antibody is found in breast milk

A

IgA

Case 1 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions