Care of the surgical patient Flashcards

1
Q

Preoperative fasting

A

Fasting ensures that the stomach is empty of contents. This reduces the risk of pulmonary aspiration, which can occur during the perioperative period, which can lead to both aspiration pneumonitis (inflammation caused by very acidic gastric contents, leading to desquamation) and aspiration pneumonia (due to secondary infection following pneumonitis or direct aspiration of infected material).

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2
Q

Stop eating

A

6 hours before

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3
Q

Stop clear fluids

A

2 hours before

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4
Q

why do diabetic patients need special consideration before surgery

A
  • Stress of surgery can increase BM (due to stress increasing steroid production)
  • HOWEVER usually patients are asked to fast before surgery, however for diabetics= risk of hypoglycaemia (greater than hyperglycaemia).
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5
Q

Management is dependent on they way that their Type II DM is controlled.

A

If diet controlled, no action is required peri-operatively.

If, however, the patient is controlled by oral hypoglycaemics:

  • Metformin (lactic acidosis) should be stopped on the morning of surgery,
  • Whilst all others should be stopped ~24 hours before the operation.
    • sulphonyureas
    • glicazide
  • These patients will then be put on IV variable rate insulin infusion along with 5% dextrose as described above and managed peri-operatively the same as a Type I diabetic.
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6
Q

if a patient has poorly controlled type 2 diabetes they may need to be put on an

A

Variable rate insulin infusion (insulin sliding scale)

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7
Q

In patients on insulin going for surgery

A
  • Continue a lower dose (BNF recommends 80%) of their long-acting insulin
  • Stop short-acting insulin whilst fasting or not eating, until eating and drinking again
  • Have a variable rate insulin infusion alongside a glucose, sodium chloride and potassium infusion (“sliding-scale”) to carefully control their insulin, glucose and potassium balance
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8
Q

which patients on long term corticosteroids will need to take additional steroids

A

if on >5mg of oral prednisolone

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9
Q

pathophysiology of needing higher dose of steroids if having surgery

A
  • Surgery adds additional stress to the body, which normally increases steroid production
  • HOWEVER, in patients on long-term steroids, there is adrenal suppression that prevents pt from creating extra steroids required to deal with stress
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10
Q

management of patients on >5mg of steroids

A
  • Additional IV hydrocortisone at induction and for the immediate postoperative period (e.g., first 24 hours)
  • Doubling of their normal dose once they are eating and drinking for 24 – 72 hours depending on the operation
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11
Q

reassurance to patient before surgery

A

It almost goes without saying that most patients are anxious about their upcoming surgery. Recognition of this fact and a kind word will make a big difference to a wary patient.

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12
Q

drugs to stop before surgery

CHOW

A

Clopidogrel

Hypoglcycarmics

Oral contraceptives or hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

Warfarin

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13
Q

Clopidogrel stopped when

A

stopped 7 days prior to surgery due to bleeding risk.

Aspirin and other anti-platelets can often be continued and minimal effect on surgical bleeding

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14
Q

Oral contraceptive pill (OCP) or Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) stopped when

A

stopped 4 weeks before surgery due to DVT risk.

Advise the patient to use alternative means of contraception during this time period.

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15
Q

Warfarin

A

usually stopped 5 days prior to surgery due to bleeding risk and commenced on therapeutic dose low molecular weight heparin

  • Surgery will often only go ahead if the INR <1.5
  • May have to reverse the warfarinisation with PO Vitamin K if the INR remains high on the evening before
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16
Q

drugs to starts

A
  • LMWH
    • Most pt will have this, with the exception of those with contraindications or having neck or endocrine surgery)
    • 28 day prophylactic LMWH if GI surgery for cancer or lower limb joint replacement
  • TED stockings
  • Antibiotics prophylaxis
    • Orthopaedic, vascular or GI
    • Prescribed by anaesthetics or surgeons
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17
Q

bowel preparation

A
  • Patients having colorectal surgery may need bowel preparation (laxatives or enemas) to clear their colon pre-operatively.
    • Bowel preparation is used less frequently, as the fluid shifts can be harmful to patients who are elderly or have cardiac or renal disease.
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18
Q

which bowel surgeries require bowel prep

A

Left hemi-colectomy, sigmoid colectomy, or abdominal-perineal resection: Phosphate enema on the morning of surgery

Anterior resection: 2 sachets of picolax the day before or phosphate enema on the morning of surgery

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19
Q

pre operative assessment includes

A
  • History
  • Examination
  • ASA grade (risk from anaesthesia)
  • Investigations
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20
Q

preoperative investigations

A
  • ECG if there is known or possible cardiovascular disease
  • Echocardiogram if there are heart murmurs, cardiac symptoms or heart failure
  • Lung function tests may be required if there is known or possible respiratory disease
  • Arterial blood gas testing may be required if there is known or possible respiratory disease
  • HbA1C (within the last 3 months) for people with known diabetes
  • U&Es for patients at risk of developing an acute kidney injury or electrolyte abnormalities (e.g., taking diuretics)
  • FBC may be required if there is possible anaemia, cardiovascular or kidney disease
  • Clotting testing may be required if there is known or possible liver disease
  • LFTs
  • Cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPEX)- high risk patients undergoing major surgery. Involves a graded intensity period on a stationary bicycle whilst wearing mask, as well as ECG monitoring (VO2 max and anaerobic threshold)
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21
Q

more specific tests to do prior to

A

group and save

crossmatching

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22
Q

group and save

A
  • determines the patient’s blood group (ABO and RhD) and screens the blood for any atypical antibodies.
    • The process takes around 40 minutes and no blood is issued.
    • A G&S is recommended if blood loss is not anticipated, but blood may be required should there be greater blood loss than expected.
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23
Q

crossmatching

A
  • involves physically mixing the patient’s blood with the donor’s blood, in order to see if any immune reaction takes places. If it does not, the donor blood is issued and can be transfused in to the patient.
    • This process also takes ~40 minutes, in addition to the 40 minutes required to G&S the blood (which must be done first).
    • A X-match is done if blood loss is anticipated, but the surgeon will usually inform you of this..
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24
Q

which microbial tests are done routinely

A

covid swab

MRSA- Topical antibiotics, such as mupirocin and fusidic acid

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25
Q

past medical history

A
  • Cardiovascular disease
    • HTN
    • Exercise tolerance is useful indicator of CVS fitness- can help predict risk of post-op complications and level of cate needed post-operatively
      • Screening questions may elucidate undiagnosed disease e.g. presence of chest pain, syncopal episodes, orthopnoea
  • Respiratory
    • An adequate oxygenation and ventilation is essential in reducing risk of acute ischaemic events in the peri-op period
      • Questions inc whether patient is able to life flat for prolonged periods of time or has a chronic cough (may preclude spinal anaesthesia)
      • Screen for OSA
  • Renal disease
    • Including baseline renal function
    • Any renal specific medications
  • Endocrine
    • DM
    • Thyroid
  • Gastro-oesophageal reflux (GORD)
    • Aspiration of gastric contents can be fatal
  • Pregnancy- females of repro age
  • Sickle cell disease- could they have undiagnosed sickle cell disease, esp if their country of birth does not have routine screening for sickle cell
  • Malnourished <18.5- Input of dietician and additional nutritional support
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26
Q

post anaesthetic history

A
  • Has patient had anaesthesia before?
  • If so what type?
  • Were there any problems?
  • Did the patient experience any post-op N and V?
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27
Q

drug history

A

full drugs list

+ allergies

28
Q

family history

A

think Malignant hyperthermia (domiannt condition)

29
Q

social hisotry

A
  • Smoking, alcohol, recreational drug use
  • Living situation
  • ADLs
    *
30
Q

pre-operative examination

A

General examination

ASA grade

31
Q

general examination

A
  • General examination (to identify any underlying undiagnosed pathology)
    • Cardiovascular (in particular murmurs or signs of heart failure)
    • Respiratory
    • Abdominal signs
  • Anaesthetic examination
    • Airway (mallampati score)
32
Q

ASA grade

A

Classified physical status or patient for anaesthesia . patient given a grade to describe current fitness prior to undergoing anaesthesia

  • ASA I – normal healthy patient
  • ASA II – mild systemic disease
  • ASA III – severe systemic disease
  • ASA IV – severe systemic disease that constantly threatens life
  • ASA V – “moribund” and expected to die without the operation
  • ASA VI – declared brain-dead and undergoing an organ donation operation
  • E – this is used for emergency operations
33
Q

Enhanced recovery

A
  • Aims to get pt back to pre-op condition as quickly as possible
    • Early mobility
    • Appropriate diet
      • Increased nutritional requirement after stress of surgery- sufficient calories important
    • Discharge ASAP
  • Principles of enhanced recovery
    • Good preparation for surgery (e.g., healthy diet and exercise)
    • Minimally invasive surgery (keyhole or local anaesthetic where possible)
    • Adequate analgesia
    • Good nutritional support around surgery
    • Early return to oral diet and fluid intake
    • Early mobilisation
    • Avoiding drains and NG tubes where possible, early catheter removal
    • Early discharge
34
Q

whats important to think about post surgery

A

analgesia

35
Q

why is analgesia important post surgery

A
  • Mobilisation
    • VTE risk
  • Ventilate lungs fully
    • Reduced risk pneumonia and atelectasis
      • shallow breathing if in pain
    • adequate oral intake
36
Q

types of analgesia used

A
  • Regular paracetamol
  • NSAIDS
    • Contraindicated
      • Asthma
      • Renal impairment
      • Heart disease
      • Stomach ulcers
    • Opiates if required
      • Modified release oxycodone with immediate-release oxycodone as required for breakthrough pain
    • local anesthetic injection in wound
37
Q

patient controlled analgesia (PCA)

A
  • Patient controlled pump- opiates- morphine oxycodone or fentanyl
    • Button will stop working for a set time after amin to prevent over-use
38
Q

principles of pain management

A

WHO pain ladder

39
Q

RF for PONV

A
  • Female
  • Motion sickness or previous PONV
  • Non-smoker
  • Use of post op opiates
  • Younger
  • Use of volatile anaesthetics
40
Q

tubes after surgery

A

Post-operative patients may have a catheter, drains or nasogastric tube, and these will be monitored and removed when appropriate.

  • Drains are usually removed once they are draining minimal or no blood or fluid
  • Nasogastric tubes are removed when they are no longer required for intake or drainage of gas or fluid
  • Catheters are removed when the patient can mobilise to the toilet
41
Q

TWOC

A

trial without catheter

It is called this as there is a risk the patient will find it difficult to pass urine normally and go into urinary retention, and the catheter may need to be reinserted for a period before removal can be tried again. This is quite common, more so in male patients.

42
Q

nutritional support post surgery

A

aids healing and overall recovery

Where possible, patients should get their nutrition via their gastrointestinal tract. Having nutrition via the gastrointestinal tract is called enteral feeding. This could be by:

  • Mouth
  • NG tube
  • Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) – a tube from the surface of the abdomen to the stomach
43
Q

TPN

A

total parenteral nutrition

involves meeting the full ongoing nutritional requirements of the patient using an intravenous infusion of a solution of carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins and minerals. This is used where it is not possible to use the gastrointestinal tract for nutrition. It is prescribed under the guidance of a dietician.

44
Q

Risk of TPN

A

thrombophlebitis - irritant to veins

so given via a central line

45
Q

Post operative complications

A

Patients are monitored for a long list of complications that can occur in the post-operative period:

  • Anaemia
  • Atelectasis is where a portion of the lung collapses due to under-ventilation
  • Infections (e.g., chest, urinary tract or wound site)
  • Wound dehiscence is where there is separation of the surgical wound, particularly after abdominal surgery
  • Ileus is where peristalsis in the bowel is reduced (typically after abdominal surgery)
  • Haemorrhage with bleeding into a drain, inside the body creating a haematoma or from the wound
  • Deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
  • Shock due to hypovolaemia (blood loss), sepsis or heart failure
  • Arrhythmias (e.g., atrial fibrillation)
  • Acute coronary syndrome (myocardial infarction) and cerebrovascular accident(stroke)
  • Acute kidney injury
  • Urinary retention requiring catheterisation
  • Delirium refers to fluctuating confusion and is more common in elderly and frail patients
46
Q

anaemia

A

A post-op full blood count is used to measure the haemoglobin.

  • Hb under 100 g/l – start oral iron (e.g., ferrous sulphate 200mg three times daily for three months)
  • Hb under 70-80 g/l – blood transfusion in addition to oral iron
47
Q

who should get a blood transfusion

A

<70g/L

48
Q

blood grouping

A
  • Rhesus D (RhD) group
  • ABO blood system
49
Q

ABO group

A

Refers to presence of A and/or B antigens on the surface of RBC

  • Universal donor: O-ve – this blood can be given to anybody, irrespective of the recipient’s blood group, because there are no AB or Rhesus antigens on the donor RBC surface membrane. The recipient can have both A, B and Rhesus antibodies in their circulation, but they will likely not reject this donor blood, as there are no ABO or Rh antigens to attack.
  • Universal Acceptor: AB+ve – you can give this recipient any donor blood, irrespective of the ABO or Rhesus status. The recipient does not have any A, B, or Rhesus antibodies in their circulation and therefore cannot mount an immune response to the donor blood.
50
Q

Rhesus D (RhD) Group

A

Classification

  • RhD+ (85%)
  • RhD-
    • If given RhD+ blood patient will make RhD antibody
    • This is okay since their blood cells do not have RhD therefore will not attack
51
Q

when does being RhD- become a problem

A
  • Problem during pregnancy
    • As anti-D antibodies can cross the placenta
    • Haemolytic disease of the newborn
    • Therefore give RhD specific blood to women
  • Not a problem for men
52
Q

Haemolytic disease of the newborn

A
  • A woman is born with RhD- blood. Her partner is RhD+ and she becomes pregnant with a fetus that is also RhD+. During childbirth, she comes into contact with the foetal (Rh+ve) blood and develops antibodies to it.
  • She later becomes pregnant with a second child that is also Rh +ve.
  • The woman’s anti-D antibodies cross the placenta during this pregnancy and enter the foetal circulation, which contains RhD+ blood, and bind to the foetus’ RhD antigens on its RBC surface membranes.
  • This causes the foetal immune system to attack and destroy its own RBCs, leading to foetal anaemia. This is termed haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN).
53
Q

Administering Blood Products

A

If a patient requires more than one unit of blood, each unit must be prescribed individually. Whilst the patient is receiving the transfusion, there are specific observations timings that should be carried out:

  • Before the transfusion starts.
  • 15-20 minutes after it has started.
  • At 1 hour.
  • At completion.

Blood products should only be administered through a green (18G) or grey (16G) cannula, otherwise the cells haemolyse due to sheering forces in the narrow tube.

54
Q

types of blood product

A

packed red cells

platelets

fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

crypoprecipitate

55
Q

Packed Red Cells

A
  • Major constituents– Red blood cells
  • Indications– (i) Acute blood loss; (ii) Chronic anaemia, where the Hb ≤70g/L (or ≤100g/L in those with cardiovascular disease) or symptomatic anaemia
  • Duration over which it is administered –2-4 hours. It must be completed within 4 hours of coming out of the store

1 unit of blood should increase a patient’s haemoglobin by around 10g/L. Patients given red blood cells may produce autoantibodies to donor surface antigens (of which there are many, other than ABO and RhD). Because of this, before any future transfusions, a new G&S will need to be sent (unless the last G&S was sent and processed within around 3 days of the most recent transfusion).

56
Q

Platelets

A
  • Major constituents: Platelets
  • Indications – (i) Haemorrhagic shock in a trauma patient; (ii) Profound thrombocytopenia (<20 x 109/L; normal range 150 – 400); (iii) Bleeding with thrombocytopenia; (iv) Pre-operative platelet level <50 x 109/L
  • Duration over which it is administered – 30 minutes
  • 1 ATD (adult therapeutic dose) of platelets should increase platelet levels by around 20-40 x 109/L.
57
Q

fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

A
  • Major constituents– Clotting factors
  • Indications– (i) Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC); (ii) Any haemorrhage secondary to liver disease; (iii) All massive haemorrhages (commonly given after the 2ndunit of packed red cells)
  • Duration over which it is administered– 30 minutes
58
Q

Cryoprecipitate

A
  • Major constituents – Fibrinogen, von Willebrands Factor (vWF), Factor VIII and fibronectin
  • Indications – (i) DIC with fibrinogen <1g/L; (ii) von Willebrands Disease; or (iii) Massive haemorrhage
  • Duration over which it is administered – Stat
59
Q

Complications of transfusion

A

Complications become more likely with increasing volume

  • Clotting abnormalities
  • Electrolyte abnormalities
  • Hypothermia
  • Acute haemolytic reactions
  • Transfusion associated circulatory overload
  • Transfusion related acute lung injury
  • Other complications
    • Mild allergic reaction
    • Anaphylaxis
    • Infective/bacterial shock
  • Delayed transfusion complications
    • Infection
    • Graft vs host disease
    • Iron overload
60
Q

Clotting abnormalities

A
  • Due to dilution effect
  • Due to packed red cells transfused not having any platelets or clotting factors
  • To reduce risk: fresh frozen plasma and platelets should be administered concurrently (if pt receiving more than 4 units of RBC)
61
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities

A
  • Hypocalcaemia – Chelation of calcium by the calcium binding agent in the preservative results in a reduced serum calcium level
  • Hyperkalaemia – Due to the (inevitable) partial haemolysis of the red blood cells and the resultant release of intracellular potassium
62
Q

hypothermia

A

As blood products are thawed from frozen and then kept at cool temperatures, they may not be up to body temperature by time of transfusion, especially in a major haemorrhage protocol scenario.

Rapid transfusion of these products can lead to a drop in the patient’s core temperature, hence regular monitoring of core body temperature is always required during a blood product transfusion.

63
Q

Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload

A

Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO) presents with dyspnoea and features of fluid overload. This is often a common problem in those who are already overloaded, such as those with cardiac failure.

Obtain an urgent chest radiograph, and for those whose diagnosis is confirmed, treatment is via oxygen and diuretic therapy.

Prevention: Patients at risk of overload (and not as part of resuscitation or inacute haemorrhage) can be prescribed 20mg furosemide prophylactically during the transfusion to prevent this.

64
Q

Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)

This is a form of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), a non-cardiogenic cause of pulmonary oedema. Patients are dyspnoeic and have features of pulmonary oedema on clinical examination.

These patients have a high mortality. Start patients on high flow oxygen and obtain an urgent chest radiograph (Fig. 3), getting specialist and intensive care input urgently.

A

This is a form of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), a non-cardiogenic cause of pulmonary oedema. Patients are dyspnoeic and have features of pulmonary oedema on clinical examination.

These patients have a high mortality. Start patients on high flow oxygen and obtain an urgent chest radiograph (Fig. 3), getting specialist and intensive care input urgently.

65
Q

Acute haemolytic reaction (ABO incompatibility)

A

Presentation

  • Urticaria
  • Hypotension
  • Fever
  • Haemoglobinuria from rapid haemolysis
  • Blood test
    • Reduced Hb
    • Low serum haptoglobin
    • High LDH and bilirubin in
  • Positive DAT

Management

Stop transfusion, begin supportive measures

  • Fluid resus
  • O2