Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Adult Health 2 > Care of Patients with Cancer > Flashcards

Care of Patients with Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

cancer w/ highest incidence among women

A

breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

cancer w/ highest incidence among men

A

prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

process of cancer development

A
  • initiation
  • promotion
  • progression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

stage of cancer development where there is a mutation of a cell’s genetic structure

A

initiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what causes mutation of cell’s genetic structure

A
  • inherited mutation (5-10%)

- exposure to carcinogens (chemical, radiation, viral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F: activities of promoting factors for cancer are reversible

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are most cancer-related deaths in the US related to

A
  • tobacco use
  • unhealthy diet
  • physical inactivity
  • obesity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

latent period (time between mutation in cell and actual signs of cancer)

A

1-40 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

stage of cancer where there is growth and invasion of tissues and tumor angiogenesis

A

progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

routes for metastasis

A

blood and lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

most common sites of metastasis

A
  • brain
  • bone
  • liver
  • lung
  • adrenal glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

antigens found on tumor cell surfaces, in tumor cells, and in fetal cells

A

oncofetal antigens (tumor markers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) indicates what

A
  • colon, lung, pancreas, or breast cancer

- also seen in cirrhosis, ulcerative colitis, and heavy smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

alpha fetoprotein (AFP) indicates what

A

hepatic or germ cell cancers (testicular and ovarian)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CA-125 indicates what

A

ovarian cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CA-19-9 indicates what

A

pancreatic and gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CA 15-3, CA 27-29, and HER-2 indicate what

A

breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

prostate-specific antigen (PSA) indicates what

A

prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

characteristics of benign tumors

A
  • well differentiated and encapsulated
  • no metastasis
  • rare recurrence
  • expansive growth
  • similar to parent cells
  • slight vascularity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

characteristics of malignant tumors

A
  • poorly differentiated and non-encapsulated
  • can metastasize
  • possible recurrence
  • infiltrative and expansive growth
  • different from parent cells
  • moderate to marked vascularity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

purpose of cancer staging

A

helps determine patient’s prognosis and best treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

TNM cancer staging

A
  • tumor size and invasiveness
  • Nodes (spread to lymph nodes)
  • Metastasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

5 stages of cancer

A
  • 0: cancer in situ
  • 1: tumor limited to tissue of origin; localized tumor growth
  • 2: limited local spread
  • 3: extensive local spread and regional spread
  • 4: metastasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

prevention of cancer

A
  • avoid or reduce exposure to known carcinogens (smoking, alcohol, excessive sun exposure)
  • eat a balanced diet
  • exercise regularly
  • maintain healthy weight
  • adequate rest
  • reduce stressors and improve coping skills
  • use sunscreen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

7 warning signs of cancer

A

CAUTION

  • changes in bowel or bladder
  • a sore that doesn’t heal
  • unusual bleeding or discharge from any orifice
  • thickening or a lump (breast or elsewhere)
  • indigestion or difficulty swallowing
  • obvious changes in wart of mole
  • nagging cough or hoarseness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

diagnostic tests for cancer

A
  • radiologic studies
  • colonoscopy or sigmoidoscopy
  • laboratory tests
  • biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the definitive test for cancer

A

biopsy

28
Q

treatment goals for cancer

A
  • cure
  • control
  • palliation
29
Q

treatment of cancer is determined by what factors

A
  • type of tumor and stage
  • pt’s physical health
  • pt’s psychological health
  • pt’s personal choice of tx
  • ethical decisions
30
Q

reasons for surgical therapy for cancer

A
  • diagnosis (biopsy)
  • prevention (removal of nonvital organs to prevent cancer)
  • cure/control (removal of localized cancer tissue; primary site or metastasis)
  • palliation of symptoms (relief of pain, obstruction, or hemorrhage)
  • supportive care (insertion of therapeutic devices)
  • rehabilitation (reconstructive sx)
31
Q

preparation and administration of chemotherapy

A
  • potential occupational hazard
  • caution w/ body fluids for 48 hours (double gloved and special signs)
  • double flush the toilet and cover toilet to prevent spraying
  • only properly trained personnel can administer chemo
32
Q

How might chemo be absorbed by the nurse

A
  • skin

- inhalation during preparation, transportation, and administration

33
Q

methods of chemo administration

A
  • oral
  • IM
  • IV (most common)
  • intracavitary (pleural or peritoneal)
  • intrathecal
  • intraarterial
  • intravesical (bladder)
  • continuous infusion
  • subcutaneous
  • topical
34
Q

best venous access device to prevent extravasation during chemotherapy

A

central line

35
Q

what does chemo cause as an irritant

A

sclerosis of vein (monitor signs of phlebitis)

36
Q

what does chemo cause as a vesicant

A
  • severe local tissue destruction and necrosis w/ infiltration
  • if infiltrated -> stop IV immediately
37
Q

what to assess for w/ central line

A
  • inspect site for redness, edema, warmth, drainage, and tenderness
  • check for patency (flush w/ normal saline)
38
Q

What technique is used for central line dressing changes and cleansing

A

sterile technique

39
Q

How to care for central lines

A
  • place transparent occlusive dressing
  • don’t submerge in water
  • educate on signs of infection and when to change dressing
40
Q

3 types of central lines for chemo

A
  • PICC line
  • implanted port
  • tunneled catheter
41
Q

acute toxicity of chemotherapy (normal tissues)

A
  • occurs during and immediately after administration
  • N/V
  • allergic reactions (anaphylaxis)
  • dysrhythmias
  • extravasation
42
Q

delayed effects of chemo on normal tissues

A
  • mucositis (irritation in mouth)
  • alopecia
  • bone marrow suppression (risk for infection, anemia, and bleeding)
  • delayed N/V
  • skin rashes
  • altered bowel function (diarrhea/constipation)
  • cumulative neurotoxicity (chemo brain: foggy and memory problems; peripheral neuropathy)
43
Q

chronic toxicity of chemo (normal tissues)

A
  • hemorrhagic cystitis
  • heart (rapid heart failure and pericardial effusion)
  • kidney (nephrotoxicity)
  • liver (hepatotoxicity)
  • lungs (pneumonitis and fibrosis)
  • infertility (men and women)
44
Q

2 types of radiation therapy

A
  • external (teletherapy)

- internal (brachytherapy)

45
Q

characteristics of external radiation therapy

A
  • typically delivered once a day for 5 days a week for 2-8 weeks
  • used to treat defined area of body
  • effects on all tissues that radiation goes through
46
Q

T/F: radiation markings should be removed when bathing

A

False; marking should never be removed

47
Q

characteristics of internal radiation

A
  • implanted or inserted into patient
  • radiation seeds or brachycatheter
  • minimizes exposure to healthy tissue
  • patient is emitting radioactivity
48
Q

nursing safety when caring for patient receiving internal radiation

A
  • limit time near pt (cluster care)
  • distance from source
  • shielding used
  • wear film badge to monitor exposure
49
Q

symptoms of chemotherapy and radiation therapy

A
  • bone marrow suppression (infection, bleeding, anemia)
  • fatigue
  • stomatitis, mucositis, esophagitis
  • N/V
  • taste alterations
  • anorexia
  • diarrhea or constipation
  • neurologic changes (chemo brain and peripheral neuropathy)
  • integumentary (hair loss, desquamation)
50
Q

how to care for dry desquamation (looks like sunburn)

A
  • goal: facilitate healing and prevent infection
  • ## apply ointment (no perfumes or alcohol) -> aquafor or aloe
51
Q

how to care for wet desquamation (tissue is destroyed faster than it’s replaced; painful)

A
  • keep area clean
  • vaseline gauze
  • avoid the sun
  • avoid tight soft clothing
  • don’t put hot or cold on the skin
  • don’t soak skin
  • avoid using tape or adhesives on skin
52
Q

radiation causes increased risk for what

A
  • leukemia
  • angiosarcoma
  • skin cancer
53
Q

other late effects of radiation

A
  • strictures/fistulas
  • radiation necrosis
  • arthralgia
  • renal insufficiency
  • osteoporosis
54
Q

other treatment for cancer

A
  • biologic and targeted therapies
  • hematopoietic growth factors
  • erythropoietin
55
Q

alter biologic response to tumor cells

A

biologic therapies

56
Q

target and bind cell receptors important to tumor growth

A

targeted therapies

57
Q

types of hematopoietic growth factors

A

colony-stimulating factors: filgrastim (Neupogen) -> stimulates bone marrow production or establish bone marrow function

58
Q

how is epoetin alpha (Epogen) administered

A

subcutaneous injections

59
Q

types of hematopoietic stem cell transplantations (HSCT)

A
  • allogenic: comes from another person (graft vs host disease)
  • syngeneic: comes from identical twin
  • autologous: comes from the patient (if allogenic is not available)
60
Q

sources of cells for stem cell transplant

A
  • bone marrow transplant (BMT)
  • peripheral stem cell transplantation (PSCT) - doesn’t get as many cells
  • umbilical cord - may not have enough cells for adult transplant
61
Q

process for stem cell transplant

A
  • pt has total body irradiation (destroy bone marrow and cancer cells)
  • stem cells infused
62
Q

care for patient after bone marrow irradiation

A
  • protective isolation
  • double airlock door
  • no fresh fruits or flowers
63
Q

complications of stem cell transplant

A
  • bacterial, viral, and fungal infections

- graft vs host disease

64
Q

explain graft vs host disease

A
  • T lymphocytes from donor stem cells recognize recipient as foreign
  • attacks organs such as skin, liver, and GI tract
65
Q

coping w/ cancer

A
  • American cancer society (look good, feel better program)
  • support groups
  • care giver support groups
66
Q

how to care for patient w/ mouth sores from chemo/radiation

A
  • provide high-protein and high-calorie, soft foods every 2 hours
  • avoid acidic foods/fluid (ex. orange juice)

Adult Health 2 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions