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Biomedicine basics > Cardiovascular System - Blood > Flashcards

Cardiovascular System - Blood Flashcards

1
Q

What is blood?

A

Fluid type of connective tissue

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2
Q

What is the percentage split of plasma and cells in the blood?

A

Plasma 55%

Cells 45%

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3
Q

Blood accounts for 7% of body weight. What is the average amount in litres for adult males and females?

A

On average Males have approximately 5.6 litres and Females 4.5 litres

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4
Q

Name three functions of the blood…

A
  1. Homeostasis through Transportation (of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, waste and hormones)
  2. Helps regulate pH and temperature
  3. Immune function with antibodies, phagocytes, clotting factors etc..
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5
Q

What is blood plasma?

A

The yellow coloured liquid that remains when the cells are removed from the blood.

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6
Q

What does blood plasma consist of?

Name 4/8

A
  1. Mostly water (91%)
  2. Proteins (7%)
  3. Mineral salts (0.9%)
  4. Nutrients
  5. Organic waste material
  6. Hormones
  7. Enzymes
  8. Gases
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7
Q

What organ synthesis’s the majority of plasma proteins?

A

The liver

Liver cells - hepatocytes

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8
Q

Name the most numerous plasma protein…

A

Albumin

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9
Q

Name 2 functions of Albumin protein…

A
  1. Carrier of substances (lipids and steroid hormones)
  2. Maintains osmotic pressure

(Albumin is responsible for 75-80% of osmotic pressure of plasma)

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10
Q

Name 3 blood plasma proteins…

A
  1. Albumin
  2. Globulins (38%)
  3. Fibrinogen (7%)
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11
Q

List two functions of globulins

A
  1. Immunity - immunoglobulins (antibodies) secreted by B cells
  2. Transport iron, lipids and vitamins
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12
Q

What is another name for Fibrinogen?

A

Clotting factor one

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13
Q

Blood plasma nutrients pass into the blood from digested products and distributed to all body cells.
These nutrients include … (name 4)

A
  1. Simple sugars (carbohydrates) - mostly glucose
  2. Amino acids (building blocks for proteins)
  3. Fats/oils - carried by proteins
  4. Vitamins
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14
Q

Name the two main mineral components..

Hint: ions

A
  1. Cations - positively charged ions

2. Anions - negatively charged ions

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15
Q

Name 4 cations

A
  1. Sodium
  2. Potassium
  3. Calcium
  4. Magnesium
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16
Q

Name 3 Anions

A
  1. Chlorides
  2. Bicarbonates
  3. Phosphates
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17
Q

Name 4 organic waste materials found / transported in blood plasma

A
  1. Urea - produced from protein breakdown
  2. Creatinine - by-product of muscle metabolism
  3. Uric acid - from the breakdown of purines
  4. Carbon dioxide - from cell metabolism
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18
Q

What are hormones?

A

Chemical messengers carried by the blood

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19
Q

Fill in the missing word:

______ are catalysts for biochemical reactions in the body.

A

Enzymes

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20
Q

Name the two gases found in the blood plasma

A
  1. Oxygen (small amount)

2. Carbon dioxide (large amount)

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21
Q

Name 3 blood cells

A
  1. Erythrocytes = red blood cells
  2. Leukocytes = white blood cells
  3. Thrombocytes = platelets
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22
Q

What is haematopoiesis?

A

Haematopoiesis is the production of all blood cells.

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23
Q

What is the name of the original stem cell that all blood cells originate and where in the body is it found?

A

All blood cells originate from pluripotent stem cells in the red bone marrow

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24
Q

Describe the structure of an erythrocyte and its life span.

A
  • biconcave structure (large surface area)
  • no nucleus (which creates the shape of the cell)
  • life span of 90 - 100 days
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25
Q

What is the percentage of blood volume occupied by erythrocytes called?

A

haematocrit

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26
Q

Give the approximate haematocrit percentage in females and males…

A

Females roughly 42%

Males approx 47%

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27
Q

Why might women have a lower haematocrit volume?

A

Because women lose blood through menstruation hence the lower blood count

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28
Q

What molecules make up erythrocytes?

A

Haemoglobin molecules

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29
Q

Each erythrocyte has how many million Hb (haemoglobin) molecules?

A

280 million Hb molecules

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30
Q

How many polypeptide chains does one haemoglobin consist of?

A

Each Hb consists of 4 polypeptide chains (globin)

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31
Q

Each polypeptide chain is bound to a pigment called ‘haem’ which contains ___

A

Iron

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32
Q

Each Haemoglobin molecule can carry up to 4 oxygen molecules.

A
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33
Q

Name the sub-units in Adult and Foetal haemoglobin.

A 
Adult = 2 alpha and 2 beta sub-units 
Foetal = 2 alpha and 2 gamma sub-units
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34
Q

Why is blood red?

A

Blood appears red due to the interaction of iron and oxygen within the haem units. (more specifically how it reflects light)

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35
Q

What does erythropoiesis mean?

A

The formation of new red blood cells.

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36
Q

Where does erythropoiesis occur?

A

In red bone marrow

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37
Q

Name the 3 nutrients required for erythrocyte formation…

A
  1. Vitamin B12
  2. Folate (vitamin B9)
  3. Iron
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38
Q

What does hypoxia mean?

A

low blood oxygen

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39
Q

Which hormone does hypoxia stimulate from the kidneys?

A

erythropoietin (EPO)

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40
Q

The hormone erythropoietin which is secreted from the kidneys stimulates what in the bone marrow?

A

Erythropoiesis (red blood cell production)

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41
Q

Name three possible causes of hypoxia?

A
  1. high altitudes
  2. haemolysis
  3. Blood loss

(4. pregnancy)

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42
Q

What is haemolysis?

A

Haemolysis describes the destruction of erythrocytes to release haemoglobin into plasma.

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43
Q

What specialised cell carries out haemolysis?

A

Macrophages (phagocytic cells) found in many tissues; especially the spleen, bone marrow and liver.

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44
Q

What is bilirubin?

A

A yellow coloured pigment formed from the breakdown of haem.

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45
Q

Where is bilirubin excreted?

A

In bile and urine

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46
Q

Where is bilirubin predominantly formed?

A

In the spleen, bone marrow and liver.

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47
Q

Fill in the missing words…

Once formed, bilirubin is described as being ‘_____’. Bilirubin must be conjugated in the ____ for it to be effectively secreted in the ___ tract.

A

unconjugated
liver
GI

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48
Q

Name the two major blood group systems.

A
  1. ABO system

2. Rhesus factor

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49
Q

Fill in the missing word…

The ABO system is based on two ______ antigens called A and B

A

glycolipid

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50
Q

What blood group do those who have erythrocyte displaying antigen A have?

A

Blood group A

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51
Q

Which blood group is described as the universal donor and why?

A

Blood group O- is described as the universal donor because erythrocytes have neither A or B antigens for antibodies to attach to.

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52
Q

Which blood group is described as the universal recipient and why?

A

Blood group AB+ is the universal recipient because it contains no anti-bodies against either A or B antigens that could be donated.

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53
Q

What is Rhesus factor?

A

Another surface antigen found on erythrocytes.

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54
Q

Those that have the rhesus antigen (Rh) are rhesus positive; those lacking the Rh antigens are Rh negative. Which is the dominant gene?

A

Rhesus positive is the dominant gene. (85% of people are rhesus positive)

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55
Q

What are leukocytes and name their main function?

A

Leukocytes are white blood cells and they function to defend the body from microbes and foreign particles.

56
Q

Fill in the missing words…

Leukocytes account for ___% of blood volume and contain___.

A

1%

Nuclei

57
Q

Leukocytes can be classified as:

2 x ____cytes

A
  1. Granulocytes

2. Agranulocytes

58
Q

Name three granulocytes

A
  1. Neutrophils (60%)
  2. Basophils / Mast cells (1%)
  3. Eosinophils (2-4%)
59
Q

What are the primary functions and mode of action for neutrophils?
(3)

A
  • Phagocytosis - ingest and destroy microbes.
  • The cells die forming part of there pus.
  • First to migrate to site of infection
60
Q

What are the primary functions and mode of action for basophils / mast cells?
(3)

A
  • Key cells in inflammation
  • Release histamine and heparin (from granules)
  • Histamine dilates blood vessels.
61
Q

What are the primary functions and mode of action for eosinophils?
(3)

A
  • Eliminate parasites
  • Phagocytosis and promote inflammation
  • Migrate to allergic site
62
Q

Name the two Agranulocytes

A
  1. Microphages / Monocytes (6%)

2. Lymphocytes (30%)

63
Q

Name the 3 primary functions of Monocytes / Macrophages

A
  1. Inflammation and repair
  2. Phagocytosis - ingest and destroy cellular debris and pathogens.
  3. Activate other immune cells via antigen presentation
64
Q

Name the three lymphocytes

A
  1. B-Lymphocytes
  2. T-Lymophocytes
  3. Natural killer cells (Nk)
65
Q

What does chemotaxis in regards to monocyte/macrophage mode of action mean?

A

chemotaxis attracts other components of the immune system.

66
Q

Monocytes/Macrophages secrete cytokines like interleukin. What does interleukin promote?

A

Promotes fever, produces globulins and activates T-lymphocytes.

67
Q

What are Thrombocytes? (platelets)

A

Thrombocytes are small non-nucleated discs produced in red bone marrow. Involved in blood clotting.

68
Q

How are thrombocytes made?

A

Thrombocytes develop from megakaryoblasts that transform into megakaryocytes. These huge cells break down into 2000-3000 fragments called thrombocytes.

69
Q

Name the glycoprotein hormone that produces thrombocytes.

A

thrombopoietin

70
Q

What is the life span of thrombocytes?

A

10 days

71
Q

Fill in the missing words…

Platelets contain 1._____ granules. These are tiny sacs that release 2._____ and 3_____ molecules such as 4_______factors.

A
  1. Storage
  2. Protein
  3. Adhesion
  4. Clotting
72
Q

Platelet activation also initiates the production of _____ which is a ______ that helps in blood clotting.

A

thromboxane

vasoconstrictor

73
Q

Name the four stages of blood clotting…

A
  1. Vasoconstriction
  2. Platelet Plug formation
  3. Coagulation
  4. Fibrinolysis
74
Q

What happens during vasoconstriction? (2)

A
  • smooth muscles in the arterial wall contract.

- when collagen is exposed the the vascular endothelium, thromboxane is released which attracts platelets.

75
Q

Name the main factors of Platelet plug formation.

A
  • platelets contact and stick to the damaged wall. They are then activated and release binding proteins. vWF (von Willebrand factor) is needed for this stage.
  • platelet aggregation, causing platelets top become sticky - positive feedback.
76
Q

What does the enzyme thrombin convert fibrinogen into? And what does this do.

A

Fibrin - long sticky threads - producing a mesh in the clot.

77
Q

What does the enzyme plasmin do during the fibrinolysis stage of blood clotting.

A

Plasmin can dissolve a clot by digesting fibrin threads and inactivating fibrinogen and thrombin.

78
Q

Name the fat soluble vitamin responsible for making four clotting factors

(Does not cause clotting itself?

A

Vitamin K

K1 and K2

79
Q

Key suffixes;

What does ‘-blast’ mean

A

Immature cell (only partially differentiated)

80
Q

Key suffixes;

What does ‘-cytosis’ mean

A

More than normal cell numbers

81
Q

Key suffixes;

What does ‘-penia’ mean

A

Lack of cells

82
Q

What is anemia?

A

A deficiency in haemoglobin

83
Q

What does tachycardia mean?

A

Fast heart beat

Tachy = fast 
Cardio = heart
84
Q

Name 4 symptoms of anaemia…

A
  1. Fatigue
  2. Shortness of breath on exertion
  3. Palpitations
  4. Irritability
  5. Fainting
85
Q

Name 3 signs of anaemia…

A
  1. Tachycardia
  2. Thin, Thready pulse
  3. Pallor
86
Q

What does pallor mean?

A

an unhealthy pale appearance

87
Q

The most common cause of anaemia worldwide is iron deficiency. Name 4 causes…

A
  1. Deficient dietary intake
  2. Malabsorption
  3. Excessive blood loss
  4. Excess requirements (eg pregnancy, rapid growth)
88
Q

Name key signs of iron deficiency that differ from general anaemia signs and symptoms…

A
  • spoon shaped nails (koilonychia), angular stomatitis (cracked corners of the mouth), Glossitis, brittle hair, tachycardia.
  • blood tests: low RBCs, Hb, low ferritin (correlates with total body iron stores)
89
Q

What is megaloblastic anaemia?

A

Megaloblastic anaemia is characterised by large, immature and dysfunctional red blood cells.

90
Q

Name 2 vitamins required for DNA synthesis

A
  1. Folate (folic acid) B9

2. Vitamin B12

91
Q

Name four causes of megaloblastic anaemia…

A
  1. Deficient dietary intake of folate and/or vitamin B12
  2. Lack of intrinsic factor
  3. Malabsorption
  4. Drugs - methotrexate is a folate antagonist
92
Q

Vitamin B12 is also essential for the production of the _____ _____ (surrounds nerve fibres)

A

Myelin sheath

93
Q

Name 3 signs and symptoms of megaloblastic anaemia through vitamin B12 deficiency…

A
  1. General anaemia signs and symptoms
  2. Enlarged red, sore, shiny tongue
  3. Neurological symptoms: tingling, numbness, weakness, loss of coordination, burning sensation, tinnitus, depression
94
Q

What are the cells described as if someone has megaloblastic anaemia?

A

Macrocytic cells

Large cells

95
Q

During a blood test for megaloblastic anaemia they measure for the size of the blood cells. What is this called?

A

MCV

Mean carposcular volume

96
Q

What is intrinsic factor?

A

A protein created by the stomach required to adequately absorbe B12

97
Q

What is the difference in symptoms from b12 deficient anaemia to folate deficient anaemia?

A

Folate deficient anaemia doesn’t have neurological damage

98
Q

What is aplastic anaemia?

A 
A- = without 
-plastic = formation

Failure of haematopoiesis (blood cell
Production)
Characterised by; pancytopenia (lack of all three blood cell types)
And hypocellular bone marrow (few or no cells)

99
Q

Name 3 causes of aplastic anaemia…

A
  1. Congenital (from birth) (fanconi’s anaemia)
  2. Idiopathic (unknown cause)
  3. Can be secondary to drugs, chemicals, radiation, cancer, hepatitis/EBV (Epstein-Barr virus)
100
Q

Name 3 signs and symptoms of aplastic anaemia…

A
  1. Anaemia (pallor, headache, dyspnoea, palpitations etc…) dyspnoea is shortness of breathe
  2. Multiple infections (due to low white blood cell count)
  3. Easy bleeding (due to low thrombocyte count)
101
Q

Give one treatment for aplastic anaemia

A
  1. Bone marrow stem cell transplant

2. Platelet transfusion / blood transfusion

102
Q

What is haemolytic anaemia?

A

Anaemia resulting from excessive breakdown of erythrocytes, when bone marrow cannot compensate for the loss of RBC’d

(Haem = blood
-lytic = destruction)
103
Q

How low can the erythrocyte life span become from haemolytic anaemia?

A

As low as 5 days

104
Q

Name two genetic causes of haemolytic anaemia

A
  1. Sickle cell
  2. Thalassemia

Thalassemia (thal-uh-SEE-me-uh) is an inherited blood disorder that causes your body to have less hemoglobin than normal

105
Q

Name four other factors that may cause haemolytic anaemia

A
  1. Rhesus factor incompatibility (blood transfusion)
  2. Malaria (causes erythrocytes to rupture)
  3. Chemicals
  4. Auto immune
  5. Radiation
106
Q

Name 3 signs and symptoms unique to haemolytic anaemia

A
  1. Jaundice (excess bilirubin production)
  2. Splenomegaly (excess haemolysis in spleen causes it to enlarge)
  3. Gallstones and vascular occlusions (blockage)
107
Q

Haemolytic anaemia - Sickle cell.

What deficiency does sickle cell cause

A

Deficiency of the 2-alpha 2-beta formation of haemoglobin and causes the cell to ‘sickle up’
The Cell is ‘sickle’ in shape - like a crescent moon

108
Q

Fill in the missing words:

Sickle cells 1._____ easily. Even though 2.___________ is stimulated, it cannot keep up with haemolysis. Sickle cell is an 3._________ 4._________condition, (substitution chromosome 5.___) affecting African and Caribbean populations.

A
  1. Rupture
  2. Erythropoiesis
  3. Inherited
  4. recessive
  5. 21
109
Q

What infectious disease can sickle cell protect against?

A

Malaria

110
Q

When might the signs and symptoms of sickle cell anaemia begin?

A

Usually begins 3-6 months of age as the foetal haemoglobin is changing to the adult haemoglobin

111
Q

What is ischaemic pain?

A

A condition in which the blood flow (and thus oxygen) is restricted or reduced in a part of the body. Can cause pain in fingers, placental infarction, strokes…

112
Q

What signs would you look for in a blood test of someone with sickle cell?

A

Blood film - sickle shaped blood cell

Haemoglobin count low

113
Q

What is thalassaemia anaemia?

A

Describes a defect in synthesis of either the alpha or beta Hb chains.
An inherited disease (recessive)

114
Q

What does recessive mean in biology?

A

Refers to a trait that is expressed only when genotype is homozygous; a trait that tends to be masked by other inherited traits, yet persists in a population among heterozygous genotypes

115
Q

There are two types of thalassaemia, name them.

A
  1. B-Thalassaemia

2. A-Thalassaemia

116
Q

What is polycythaemia?

A

Describes excessive production of erythrocytes resulting in increased blood viscosity, reduced blood flow and an increased risk of thrombosis.

117
Q

Give another name for Polycythaemia

A

Erythrocytosis

118
Q

Give a physiological cause of polycythaemia

A

Training at high altitude

119
Q

Give four signs / symptoms of Polycythaemia

A
  1. Mild cases may cause no symptoms
  2. Arterial thrombosis. (Clot) myocardial infarction (heart attack), pulmonary embolism, stroke.
  3. Venous thrombosis (deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
  4. Hypertension, red skin, headaches, dizziness, pruritus (itchy skin)
120
Q

Leukocyte pathologies: What is granulocytopenia?

A

Reduction in the number of granulocyte leukocytes.

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

121
Q

Name 3 Causes of Granulocytopenia

A
  1. Drug toxicity and radiation
  2. Bone marrow diseases
  3. Severe infections, HIV and AIDS
122
Q

Name 3 Signs and symptoms of Granulocytopenia

A
  1. Severe illness
  2. Malaise
  3. Necrosis of mucous tissues (death of)
123
Q

What is Leukocytosis?

A

Describes a marked increase in the number of ALL leukocytes.

124
Q

Causes of Leukocytosis

A

Response to infection

Leukaemia

125
Q

What is Leukaemia?

A

Describes a group of bone marrow cancers, characterised by an abnormal over production of leukocytes

126
Q

Leukaemia

What does the over production of leukocytes in the bone marrow suppress?

A

Suppresses the production of other blood cells - erythrocyte (anaemia) and thrombocytes (thrombocytopenia)

127
Q

Leukaemia is divided into two types …

A
  1. Acute leukaemia

2. Chronic leukaemia

128
Q

Give five points about Acute leukaemia

A
  • rapid onset
  • more aggressive
  • very high immature cells
  • can occur at any age
  • mild lymph enlargement
  • prominent anaemia
129
Q

Give four points about Chronic leukaemia

A
  • insidious onset (slow onset - stealthy)
  • differentiated cells
  • usually occurs in adults
  • prominent lymph enlargement
  • mild anaemia
130
Q

List the four types of Leukemia

A
  1. Acute myelogenous leukaemia (AML)
  2. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL)
  3. Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
  4. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)

(Myeloid - relating to bone marrow)
(Lymph - lymphocytes)

131
Q

Name 4 signs and symptoms of Leukemia

A
  1. Malaise, anaemia, frequent infections, easy bleeding/bruising
  2. Fever, weight loss
  3. Splenomegaly (abdominal swelling/discomfort)
  4. Lymph node enlargement
132
Q

How is Leukaemia diagnosed?

3

A
  1. Full blood count
  2. Blood film (viewing sample of blood)
  3. Bone marrow biopsy
133
Q

Platelet disorders: Thrombocytopenia

-penia = deficiency

A

Reduction in thrombocyte count

134
Q

4 Signs / symptoms of Thrombocytopenia …

A
  1. Excessive bleeding and bruising
  2. Petechia (micro-haemorrhages in the skin)
  3. Haematuria, vomiting blood, bleeding gums
  4. Post-partum haemorrhage
135
Q

What causes thrombocytopenia?

Name 3 of 5

A
  1. Leukaemia
  2. Congenital
  3. Radiation / drugs / chemo
  4. Viral infections
  5. Auto immune destruction
136
Q

Haemophilia is a deficiency of clotting factors. What is haemophilia A and haemophilia B?

A 
A = deficiency of clotting factor 8 
B = deficiency of clotting factor 9
137
Q

Name the cause of Haemophilia

A

Genetic : X - linked recessive disorder

Usually affects males, females normally carries. XY chromosome XX chromosome

Biomedicine basics (9 decks)

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