Cardiovascular Pharmacology Part I Flashcards

1
Q

What 3 physiological components are responsible for the RAPID control of blood pressure?

A
  1. Baroreceptor reflex
  2. Peripheral chemoreceptors
  3. Adrenergic system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What system is responsible for the LONG TERM control of blood pressure?

A

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most potent and powerful vasoconstrictor in the body?

A

Angiotensin II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_____ serves as the catalyst that converts angiotensin into angiotensin I.

A

Renin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

____ serves as the catalyst to convert angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

A

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_____ is responsible for the reabsorption and excretion of sodium/water that increases plasma volume and cardiac output.

A

Aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the purpose of a diuretic?

A

Antihypertensive drugs that BLOCK the reabsorption of sodium to promote water loss (decrease BP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List the 2 mechanisms of action of diuretics.

A
  1. Inhibit sodium pumps

2. Induce renal PG (prostaglandin) synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

____ make diuretics less effective.

A

NSAIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_____ are powerful antihypertensive agents but moderate diuretics.

A

Thiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

_____ are mod anti-hypertensives-yet powerful diuretics.

A

Loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List the 2 mechanisms of action for K+ sparing diuretics.

A
  1. Blocks aldosterone receptors

2. Inhibit Na flux through ion channels in luminal membrane (slow the release of potassium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List the 3 most important ADRs related to diuretic use.

A

Hyperglycemia (diabetes)
Increased LDL
DEHYDRATION (decreased turgor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What electrolyte should be closely monitored in patients with cardiac disease?

A

Potassium (k+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which diuretic in particular can cause an ADR in the form of an arrhythmia?

A

K+ sparing diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What lab value will be elevated in patients experiencing dehydration secondary to diuretic use?

A

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

17
Q

What is contraindicated, in terms of exercise, for patients taking diuretics?

A

Prolonged exercise in the heat

18
Q

List 3 mechanisms of action for beta blockers.

A
  1. Slows down the heart and reduces cardiac output
  2. Central inhibitory effect on sympathetic activity
  3. Inhibits renin release
19
Q

Beta blockers mask the symptoms of and delay recovery from ______ but cause _____ with long term use. Why?

A
  1. Hypoglycemia
  2. Hyperglycemia

Because beta receptors are involved with gluconeogenesis, so repressing that will decrease glucose production, but long term use of beta blocker results in diabetes

20
Q

An increase in ____ is an ADR associated with using a beta blocker.

A

LDL

21
Q

True or False: LE edema should be a clinical sign to watch for in patients on beta blockers who might be experiencing heart failure.

A

TRUE

22
Q

If patient has myocardial ischemia, beta blockers can _____ exercise performance but for uncomplicated hypertension, exercise performance ____.

A

Increases

Decreases

23
Q

What is the MOA for calcium channel blockers?

A

Interfere with calcium uptake in arteriole smooth muscle and in cardiac muscle

24
Q

List 5 ADRs associated with calcium channel blockers.

A
  1. Low BP
  2. Orthostatic hypotension
  3. LE edema
  4. Dizziness
  5. AV block
25
Q

List 3 MOAs of ACE I drugs.

A
  1. Inhibits ACE (enzyme)
  2. Does not adversely affect lipids or glucose and preserves renal function
  3. CO and HR do not change
26
Q

What is a hallmark ADR of ACE I drugs?

A

Chronic cough (affects 20% of population)

27
Q

What is the MOA of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)?

A

Prevent angiotensin II from binding to their receptors on blood vessels

28
Q

What is the advantage of using Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) over ACE I drugs?

A

ARBs have no effect on bradykinin metabolism so chronic cough is not an ADR.

29
Q

What antihypertensive ADR, relevant to vital signs, should warrant the PT to call the patient’s prescriber?

A

Notify prescriber if BP<100 and HR<60

30
Q

What is the difference between a competitive and non competitive antagonist?

A
  1. Competitive antagonists bind to the same receptors as the agonist, and make the agonist look less potent but their effect can be overcome by increasing the dose of the agonist. THEY HAVE NO EFFECT ON THEIR OWN.
  2. Noncompetitive antagonists bind to a different site than the agonist and reduces the max response
31
Q

______ are useful in diabetics with renal disease.

A

ACE inhibitors

32
Q

______ and ______ antihypertensive agents are useful in treating angina.

A

Beta blockers

Calcium blockers

33
Q

_______ or _______ are good antihypertensive drugs in treating CHF.

A

ACE inhibitors

Diuretics

34
Q

If a patient taking a beta-blocker needs a second drug, add a _________ rather than a ________ to reduce the patient’s risk of developing diabetes.

A

Calcium-channel blocker

Thiazide-type diuretic