Cardiomyopathy Flashcards

1
Q

____ mutations with amino acid substitutions and truncating variants are the most common genetic abnormalities in cardiomyopathy.

A

Missense

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2
Q

The most commonly recognized genetic causes of DCM are truncating mutations of the giant protein ___, encoded by TTN, which maintains sarcomere structure and acts as a key signaling molecule.

A

titin

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3
Q

Which of the following best defines cardiomyopathy according to the 2013 classification?

A) Cardiac dysfunction caused by structural heart diseases such as coronary artery disease or valve disease.
B) Disorders characterized by morphologically and functionally abnormal myocardium in the absence of any other disease sufficient to cause the observed phenotype.
C) Any diffuse dysfunction attributed to multivessel coronary artery disease.
D) Cardiac abnormalities limited to genetic causes with no acquired component.

A

B

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4
Q

Which of the following is true about the traditional classification of cardiomyopathies?

A) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by low left ventricular ejection fraction.
B) Restrictive cardiomyopathy is defined primarily by abnormal diastolic function.
C) Dilated cardiomyopathy shows normal left ventricular cavity dimension.
D) The classification triad (dilated, restrictive, hypertrophic) adequately defines all phenotypes and therapies.

A

B

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5
Q

What is the primary difference between primary and secondary cardiomyopathies in the modern classification system?

A) Primary cardiomyopathies include only acquired causes.
B) Secondary cardiomyopathies are unrelated to systemic diseases.
C) Primary cardiomyopathies affect primarily the heart, while secondary cardiomyopathies result from systemic diseases.
D) Secondary cardiomyopathies are exclusively caused by genetic mutations.

A

C

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6
Q

What is a key reason that peripheral edema might be absent in young patients with severe fluid retention in cardiomyopathy?

A) Peripheral vasoconstriction prevents visible edema.
B) Fluid retention often manifests as abdominal discomfort due to hepato-splanchnic congestion and ascites.
C) Younger patients compensate by increasing diuresis.
D) Edema only occurs during the late stages of disease.

A

B

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7
Q

Often considered the hallmark of congestion

A

peripheral edema

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8
Q

What is the most common inheritance pattern seen in familial cardiomyopathies?

A) Autosomal recessive.
B) X-linked.
C) Autosomal dominant.
D) Matrilineal (mitochondrial).

A

C

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9
Q

Which of the following mutations is most commonly associated with dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM)?

A) Missense mutations causing dominant negative effects.
B) Truncating mutations of the TTN gene encoding titin.
C) Frameshift mutations in mitochondrial DNA.
D) Deletions of the dystrophin gene.

A

B

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10
Q

What is a key feature of the clinical expression of genetic cardiomyopathy?

A) It is always present at birth in affected individuals.
B) The phenotype is identical among family members with the same mutation.
C) Penetrance is age-dependent and incomplete.
D) Genetic testing always predicts the clinical course of the disease.

A

C

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11
Q

Which genetic abnormality is most commonly associated with familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A) Mutations in sarcomeric genes.
B) Mutations in cytoskeletal proteins.
C) Deletions of dystrophin gene.
D) Mutations in mitochondrial DNA.

A

A

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12
Q

Which of the following clinical features indicates incomplete penetrance in genetic cardiomyopathy?

A) All individuals with a mutation manifest severe disease.
B) The defining phenotype is present at birth.
C) Some individuals with a pathogenic mutation may never develop the disease.
D) Genetic mutations always lead to arrhythmias in affected individuals.

A

C

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13
Q

Which of the following statements about sex differences in genetic cardiomyopathy is correct?

A) Women are more likely than men to show severe disease.
B) Penetrance and clinical severity are greater in men for most cardiomyopathies.
C) Men and women are equally affected in terms of disease severity.
D) Cardiomyopathy severity depends only on genetic factors, not sex.

A

B

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14
Q

Mutations in dystrophin, encoded by the DMD gene, primarily result in which condition?

A) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM).
B) Restrictive cardiomyopathy.
C) Duchenne’s and Becker’s muscular dystrophy with DCM.
D) Arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy.

A

C

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15
Q

Which sarcolemmal channel protein mutation is associated with DCM with conduction disease?

A) SCN5A.
B) TTN.
C) DES.
D) Lamin A/C.

A

A

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16
Q

What is the hallmark structural feature of dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM)?

A) Thickened ventricular walls with normal cavity size.
B) Enlarged left ventricle with reduced systolic function.
C) Normal left ventricular dimensions with abnormal diastolic function.
D) Concentric hypertrophy with preserved ejection fraction.

A

B

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17
Q

What is the expected cardiac outcome for patients with fulminant myocarditis who receive timely and aggressive circulatory support?

A) Permanent systolic dysfunction with frequent arrhythmias.
B) Recovery of ejection fraction to near-normal levels, with possible residual diastolic dysfunction.
C) Irreversible progression to dilated cardiomyopathy.
D) High mortality despite therapy in most cases.

A

B

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18
Q

Which of the following is the most commonly implicated type of pathogen in infective myocarditis?

A) Bacteria.
B) Protozoa.
C) Viruses.
D) Fungi.

A

C

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19
Q

What is the primary role of Toll-like receptors during the nonspecific (innate) immune response in viral myocarditis?

A) To directly lyse infected cardiomyocytes.
B) To recognize common antigenic patterns and initiate cytokine release.
C) To suppress viral replication.
D) To produce antibodies specific to viral proteins.

A

B

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20
Q

Which phase of viral myocarditis is characterized by viral infection and replication causing myocardial injury?

A) Secondary acquired (adaptive) immune response.
B) Nonspecific (innate) immune response.
C) Direct viral invasion.
D) Chronic inflammatory phase.

A

C

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21
Q

Which of the following is a known consequence of prolonged cytokine activation during the acquired immune response in myocarditis?

A) Direct neutralization of viral proteins.
B) Myocyte hypertrophy and ventricular wall thickening.
C) Disruption of collagen and elastin scaffolding, leading to ventricular dilation.
D) Inhibition of profibrotic signaling pathways.

A

C

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22
Q

What is the typical initial symptom in a young adult with presumed viral myocarditis?

A) Progressive dyspnea and weakness within a few days to weeks following a viral syndrome.
B) Sudden onset of palpitations and syncope without prior illness.
C) Peripheral edema and ascites without systemic symptoms.
D) Chronic chest pain and stable exertional fatigue.

A

A

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23
Q

hich of the following is a feature of fulminant myocarditis?

A) Gradual worsening of dyspnea over months after a respiratory illness.
B) Rapid progression from febrile respiratory syndrome to cardiogenic shock involving multiple organ systems.
C) Stable ECG changes mimicking pericarditis without hemodynamic compromise.
D) Asymptomatic elevation of cardiac biomarkers following a viral infection.

A

B

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24
Q

Which of the following diagnostic modalities is increasingly used to support the diagnosis of myocarditis by detecting increased tissue edema and gadolinium enhancement?

A) Echocardiogram.
B) Electrocardiogram (ECG).
C) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI).
D) Endomyocardial biopsy.

A

C

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25
Q

What is a primary indication for performing an endomyocardial biopsy in a patient with suspected myocarditis?

A) Elevated cardiac biomarkers without symptoms.
B) Evidence of conduction blocks or ventricular tachyarrhythmias with new-onset heart failure.
C) Mild left ventricular dysfunction on echocardiogram.
D) Chronic dyspnea without a clear diagnosis.

A

B

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26
Q

What laboratory finding supports a diagnosis of acute viral myocarditis when comparing acute and convalescent blood samples?

A) Elevated anti-heart antibodies.
B) Increasing circulating viral titers.
C) Persistent elevation of CK-MB.
D) Normal troponin levels with ECG abnormalities.

A

B

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27
Q

The most common cause of death in patients with this infection (Diphtheria)

A

Cardiac

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28
Q

The most commonly diagnosed noninfective inflammatory process affecting the myocardium is _____, including both _____ and ____

A

granulomatous myocarditis

sarcoidosis
giant cell myocarditis.

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29
Q

___ is the most common toxin implicated in chronic DCM.

A

Alcohol

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30
Q

_____ are the most common drugs implicated in toxic cardiomyopathy.

A

Chemotherapy agents

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31
Q

The most common restrictive cardiomyopathy is ____, in which a common protein assembles into β-pleated sheets of amyloid fibrils that infiltrate between cells of target organs

A

amyloidosis

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32
Q

There are multiple mutations in the transthyretin molecule, of which the most common is ____, which confers a 50% increased risk of heart failure in the 3-4% of African Americans who are heterozygous, but it is often clinically silent.

A

V1221

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33
Q

Endomyocardial biopsy is virtually 100% reliable for the diagnosis of all amyloid due to the characteristic ____ pattern of ___ of the amyloid fibrils under polarized light

A

birefringence

Congo red staining

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34
Q

____frequently accompany e omyocardial fibrosis but are not common in Löffler’s endocarditis.

A

Pericardial effusions

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35
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy caused by hypertension
B. Left ventricular hypertrophy without a hemodynamic cause
C. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy caused by infiltrative disease
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy due to pulmonary hypertension

A

B

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36
Q

Which term is now the preferred nomenclature for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS)
B. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)
C. Asymmetric septal hypertrophy (ASH)
D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with or without obstruction

A

D

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37
Q

What percentage of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy cases are associated with sarcomere mutations?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 80%

A

C

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38
Q

Which two genes are most commonly mutated in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A. MYBPC3 and MYH7
B. TNNI3 and TNNT2
C. LAMP2 and PRKAG2
D. GLA and TTN

A

A

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39
Q

Which maneuver increases the systolic ejection murmur in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A. Squatting
B. Valsalva maneuver
C. Handgrip
D. Passive leg raise

A

B

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40
Q

The primary imaging modality for diagnosing hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is:
A. Chest X-ray
B. Echocardiography
C. Cardiac catheterization
D. Nuclear perfusion imaging

A

B

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41
Q

Which feature distinguishes athlete’s heart from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A. Increased wall thickness
B. Diastolic dysfunction
C. Regression of hypertrophy after cessation of training
D. Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction

A

C

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42
Q

Which feature distinguishes athlete’s heart from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A. Increased wall thickness
B. Diastolic dysfunction
C. Regression of hypertrophy after cessation of training
D. Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction

A

B

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43
Q

The first-line medication for symptomatic hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is:
A. ACE inhibitors
B. β-blockers
C. Digoxin
D. Nitrates

A

B

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44
Q

Which of the following is true regarding surgical myectomy?
A. It is associated with high perioperative mortality.
B. It is ineffective for relieving LVOT obstruction.
C. It is the treatment of choice for severe refractory symptoms.
D. It does not improve long-term survival.

A

C

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45
Q

Alcohol septal ablation achieves symptomatic relief in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy by:
A. Excising the septum
B. Inducing controlled infarction of the proximal septum
C. Replacing the mitral valve
D. Reducing myocardial fibrosis

A

B

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46
Q

What is the most common complication of surgical myectomy and alcohol septal ablation?
A. Stroke
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Complete heart block
D. Pulmonary edema

A

C

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47
Q

A 42-year-old male with known hypertrophic cardiomyopathy presents for routine evaluation. He denies chest pain, dyspnea, or syncope. His echocardiogram shows preserved ejection fraction and no evidence of left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) obstruction at rest. Risk stratification reveals a family history of sudden cardiac death in a sibling. What is the next best step in management?

A. Prescribe disopyramide to prevent obstruction
B. Implant an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)
C. Begin beta-blocker therapy
D. Follow with serial evaluations

A

B

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48
Q

A 55-year-old woman with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy presents with worsening exertional dyspnea and angina. Physical exam reveals a late-peaking systolic murmur at the left sternal border that increases with the Valsalva maneuver. Echocardiography confirms significant LVOT obstruction. She is on maximal doses of beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers with limited improvement. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Perform cardiac transplantation
B. Prescribe disopyramide
C. Consider septal ablation
D. Initiate diuretics

A

B

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49
Q

A 68-year-old man with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and NYHA class III heart failure presents with severe symptoms despite beta-blockers and disopyramide. Echocardiography shows significant LVOT obstruction with a gradient of 70 mmHg. What is the next step in management?

A. Mitral valve replacement
B. Refer for septal ablation
C. Prescribe high-dose diuretics
D. Reevaluate for underlying causes of symptoms

A

B

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50
Q

______ is common in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and may lead to hemodynamic deterioration and embolic stroke.

A

Atrial fibrillation

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51
Q

A 45-year-old male presents with dyspnea on exertion and significant exertional intolerance. Echocardiography reveals an ejection fraction of 25%, a left ventricular diastolic dimension of 65 mm, and normal left ventricular wall thickness. What is the most likely type of cardiomyopathy?

A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D. Constrictive pericarditis

A

A

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52
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic finding in restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A. Normal atrial size
B. Increased atrial size, often involving both atria
C. Decreased atrial size due to reduced filling pressures
D. Increased left atrial size with normal right atrial size

A

B

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53
Q

A 52-year-old woman is evaluated for progressive fatigue and shortness of breath. Imaging reveals mild mitral and tricuspid regurgitation associated with endocardial involvement and preserved ejection fraction. Which cardiomyopathy does this most likely represent?

A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D. Arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy

A

B

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54
Q

Which arrhythmia is most commonly associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

AF
VTachyarrhythmias

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55
Q

A 60-year-old male presents with abdominal discomfort, ascites, and peripheral edema. He denies pulmonary symptoms such as orthopnea or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Echocardiography shows normal ejection fraction, mildly reduced LV diastolic dimension, and enlarged atria. Which cardiomyopathy is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D. Constrictive pericarditis

A

B

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56
Q

Restrictive cardiomyopathy is most commonly caused by which of the following?
A. Coronary artery disease
B. Infiltrative or fibrotic processes
C. Valvular heart disease
D. Hypertension

A

B

The most common restrictive cardiomyopathy is amyloidosis, in which a common protein assembles into β-pleated sheets of amyloid fibrils that infiltrate between cells of target organs

57
Q

What is a typical imaging feature of cardiac amyloidosis on echocardiography or MRI?

A. Concentric hypertrophy with high ECG voltage
B. Atrial enlargement with apical hypertrophy
C. Diffuse late gadolinium enhancement
D. Right ventricular dilation with reduced ejection fraction

A

C

58
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing cardiac amyloidosis?

A. Technetium-pyrophosphate scan
B. Cardiac MRI
C. Endomyocardial biopsy with Congo red staining
D. Serum and urine protein electrophoresis

A

C

59
Q

What is the primary utility of technetium-pyrophosphate scanning in cardiac amyloidosis?

A. Detecting light chain amyloidosis
B. Identifying transthyretin amyloidosis (ATTR)
C. Quantifying amyloid burden in the myocardium
D. Differentiating restrictive cardiomyopathy from constrictive pericarditis

A

B

60
Q

A 68-year-old male with a history of spinal stenosis and bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome develops progressive heart failure. What is the most likely cause?

A. Wild-type transthyretin amyloidosis
B. AL amyloidosis
C. Fabry’s disease
D. Restrictive pericarditis

A

A

61
Q

Peripheral and autonomic neuropathy are common in which types of cardiac amyloidosis?

A. Wild-type transthyretin amyloidosis only
B. AL amyloidosis and ATTR mutant amyloidosis
C. AL amyloidosis only
D. ATTR wild-type amyloidosis only

A

B

62
Q

Which of the following therapies stabilizes transthyretin structure in cardiac amyloidosis?

A. Tafamidis
B. Patisiran
C. Bortezomib
D. Cyclophosphamide

A

A

63
Q

Which of the following is a hallmark of endomyocardial disease?

A. Progressive fibrosis of the endocardium
B. Uniform left ventricular dilation
C. Severe systolic dysfunction at initial presentation
D. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy

A

A

64
Q

In non-tropical regions, endomyocardial disease is most commonly associated with:

A. Chronic hypereosinophilic syndrome
B. Parasitic infections
C. Nutritional deficiencies
D. Tropical cardiomyopathy

A

A

65
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Löffler’s endocarditis?

A. It is more common in women than men
B. It affects men more frequently than women
C. It has an equal prevalence in men and women
D. It predominantly affects children

A

B

66
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of tropical endomyocardial fibrosis?

A. Obliteration of the ventricular apex with fibrosis
B. Primary involvement of the atria
C. Marked systolic dysfunction at early stages
D. Predominance in women

A

A

67
Q

Which of the following mechanisms of injury is most commonly involved in infective myocarditis?

A. Direct myocardial invasion and lysis by infectious agents
B. Pure autoimmune response to infection
C. Vasculitis without myocardial involvement
D. Coronary artery thrombosis

A

A

68
Q

Which phase of viral myocarditis is characterized by Toll-like receptor activation and rapid cytokine release?

A. Direct viral invasion phase
B. Innate immune response phase
C. Adaptive immune response phase
D. Fibrotic remodeling phase

A

B

69
Q

What is the primary characteristic of the adaptive immune response phase in viral myocarditis?

A. T-cell infiltration and antibody production
B. Matrix metalloproteinase activation
C. Collagen degradation
D. Myocyte apoptosis mediated by viral protease

A

A

70
Q

Which of the following is a histologic hallmark of myocarditis based on the Dallas criteria?

A. Fibrosis without cellular infiltration
B. Lymphocytic infiltration with evidence of myocyte necrosis
C. Granuloma formation without necrosis
D. Eosinophilic infiltration and vascular necrosis

A

B

71
Q

When is endomyocardial biopsy most indicated in the evaluation of myocarditis?

A. When biomarkers are negative but symptoms persist
B. When heart failure is associated with conduction blocks or ventricular arrhythmias
C. In all cases of suspected myocarditis
D. When echocardiography shows normal wall motion

A

B

72
Q

____ acute myocarditis is diagnosed when a typical viral syndrome occurs without cardiac symptoms, but with elevated biomarkers of cardiac injury, ECG suggestive of acute injury, and/ or reduced left ventricular ejection fraction or regional wall motion abnormality.

A

Possible subclinical

73
Q

____ acute myocarditis is diagnosed when the above criteria are met and accompanied by cardiac symptoms, such as shortness of breath or chest pain, which can result from pericarditis or myocarditis. When clinical findings of pericarditis are accompanied by elevated troponin or CK-MB or abnormal cardiac wall motion, the terms perimyocarditis or myopericarditis

A

Probable

74
Q

____ myocarditis is diagnosed when there is histologic or immunohistologic evidence of inflammation on endomyocardial biopsy (see below) and does not require any other laboratory or clinical criteria.

A

Definite

75
Q

Which viral family was the first to be implicated in myocarditis and remains a common cause?

A. Herpesviruses
B. Picornaviruses
C. Retroviruses
D. Flaviviruses

A

B

The picornavirus family, including enteroviruses such as coxsackievirus, was the first group of viruses implicated in myocarditis and remains a common cause

76
Q

Which of the following has contributed to the decreased prevalence of HIV-associated myocarditis?

A. Improved nutritional status
B. Reduced viral replication due to HAART
C. Widespread use of prophylactic antibiotics
D. Increased screening for myocarditis in HIV patients

A

B

77
Q

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for viral genomes in myocarditis most commonly detects which of the following viruses?

A. Influenza virus and herpes simplex virus
B. Parvovirus B19 and human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6)
C. Cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus
D. Adenovirus and enterovirus

A

B

78
Q

Which of the following is true regarding hepatitis C and myocarditis?

A. Hepatitis C rarely causes myocarditis and does not respond to treatment.
B. Hepatitis C–associated cardiac dysfunction often improves with interferon therapy.
C. Hepatitis C frequently causes acute myocarditis with necrosis.
D. Hepatitis C is more commonly implicated in myocarditis in North America than in Asia.

A

B

79
Q

Which of the following mechanisms is most likely involved in SARS-CoV-2-associated myocarditis?

A. Direct invasion of cardiomyocytes and endothelial dysfunction
B. Myocardial ischemia due to coronary artery spasm
C. Extensive fibrosis of the myocardium
D. Hypersensitivity reaction to antiviral therapy

A

A

80
Q

Which member of the herpesvirus family is commonly detected in myocarditis cases and has unclear significance in chronic cardiomyopathy?

A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
C. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6)
D. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

A

C

81
Q

There is currently no specific therapy recommended during any stage of viral myocarditis. T/F

A

T

82
Q

What is the most common parasitic cause of cardiomyopathy worldwide?

A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Trichinellosis
C. Chagas’ disease
D. Leishmaniasis

A

C

83
Q

Which of the following is the primary mode of transmission for Trypanosoma cruzi?

A. Bite of the tsetse fly
B. Contaminated water
C. Bite of the reduviid bug
D. Aerosolized parasite spores

A

C

84
Q

Which drugs are most commonly used in the treatment of Chagas’ disease?

A. Albendazole and ivermectin
B. Benznidazole and nifurtimox
C. Amphotericin B and fluconazole
D. Chloroquine and doxycycline

A

B

85
Q

Which species of Trypanosoma causes myocarditis in African trypanosomiasis?

A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
D. Trypanosoma rangeli

A

C

86
Q

Trichinellosis and Myocarditis

What is the primary mechanism of cardiac involvement in trichinellosis?

A. Direct parasitic invasion of myocardial cells
B. Eosinophilic inflammatory response to larval migration
C. Hemorrhagic necrosis of coronary vessels
D. Granulomatous reaction in the myocardium

A

B

87
Q

Diphtheria specifically affects the heart in almost one-half of cases, and cardiac involvement is the most common cause of death in patients with this infection

T/F

A

T

88
Q

Streptococcal infection with ____ is most commonly associated with acute rheumatic fever and is characterized by inflammation and fibrosis of cardiac valves and systemic connective tissue, but it can also lead to a myocarditis with focal or diffuse infiltrates of mononuclear cells.

A

β-hemolytic streptococci

89
Q

The most commonly diagnosed noninfective inflammatory process affecting the myocardium is _____myocarditis, including both ___ and ___

A

granulomatous

sarcoidosis

giant cell myocarditis.

90
Q

Which imaging modality is most useful for detecting active sarcoid lesions in the myocardium?

A. Cardiac MRI
B. Echocardiography
C. Positron emission tomography (PET)
D. Coronary angiography

A

C

91
Q

Which condition is most commonly associated with giant cell myocarditis?

A. Recent viral infection
B. Autoimmune diseases, such as thyroiditis or thymoma
C. Chronic hypereosinophilic syndrome
D. Toxin exposure

A

B

92
Q

Eosinophilic myocarditis may be associated with:

A. Churg Strauss Syndrome
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Thymoma-associated autoimmunity

A

A

93
Q

What is a typical histologic finding in hypersensitivity myocarditis?

A. Extensive fibrosis without inflammation
B. Lymphocytes, mononuclear and eosinophilic infiltrates
C. Neutrophilic infiltration with abscess formation
D. Granulomatous lesions

A

B

94
Q

Myocarditis is often associated with systemic inflammatory diseases, such as ___ and ___, which affect skeletal and cardiac muscle. A

A

polymyositis
dermatomyositis

95
Q

The most dramatic form of noninfectious inflammatory myocarditis is that seen with____

A

combined immune checkpoint inhibitors.

96
Q

A patient on immune checkpoint inhibitors presents with myocarditis. Which is the most appropriate initial therapy?

A. Beta-blockers and anticoagulation
B. High-dose glucocorticoids
C. Immunoglobulin therapy
D. Calcium channel blockers

A

B

97
Q

Peripartum cardiomyopathy (PPCM) is defined as cardiomyopathy that develops:

A. Before conception in women with preeclampsia
B. During the last trimester or within 6 months after delivery
C. Only after multiple pregnancies in older women
D. Exclusively during labor and delivery

A

B

98
Q

Which of the following is a recognized risk factor for peripartum cardiomyopathy?

A. History of smoking
B. Low maternal age
C. Twin pregnancy
D. Chronic kidney disease

A

C

Risk factors are increased maternal age, increased parity, twin pregnancy, malnutrition, use of tocolytic therapy for premature labor, and preeclampsia or toxemia of pregnancy.

99
Q

By contrast, heart failure presenting earlier in pregnancy has been termed ___

A

pregnancy-associated cardiomyopathy (PACM).

100
Q

____ is the most common toxin implicated in chronic DCM.

A

Alcohol

101
Q

What is the estimated daily alcohol intake required to cause alcoholic cardiomyopathy over time?

A. 40–50 g for 1–2 years
B. 80–100 g for 5–10 years
C. 200–300 g for 2–5 years
D. 20–30 g for 10–15 years

A

B

Estimates of the alcohol intake n essary to cause cardiomyopathy have been 4–5 ounces or 80–100 g of pure ethanol daily for 5–10 years, about 1 L of wine, 8 beers, or ½ pint of hard liquor. Frequent binge drinking may also be sufficient.

102
Q

What is the prognosis for alcoholic cardiomyopathy with complete abstinence?

A. No improvement regardless of abstinence
B. Marked improvement within 3–6 months of abstinence
C. Slow improvement over several years with abstinence
D. Improvement only with pharmacologic therapy

A

B

103
Q

Which of the following is a common pathological finding in cardiomyopathy due to chronic cocaine use?

A. Diffuse interstitial fibrosis
B. Microinfarcts from small vessel ischemia
C. Eosinophilic myocarditis
D. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy

A

B

104
Q

Which stimulant is associated with a cardiomyopathy similar to that seen in pheochromocytoma?

A. Methamphetamine
B. Cocaine
C. MDMA (Ecstasy)
D. Amphetamine

A

B

105
Q

What is the characteristic histologic finding in anthracycline-induced cardiotoxicity?

A. Lymphocytic infiltration
B. Vacuolar degeneration and myofibrillar loss
C. Microvascular thrombosis
D. Eosinophilic infiltration

A

B

106
Q

Which of the following increases the risk of cardiotoxicity with anthracycline therapy?

A. Younger age
B. Combination with trastuzumab
C. Low cumulative doses
D. No prior radiation exposure

A

B

Risk for cardiotoxicity increases with older age, preexisting cardiac disease, higher doses or combination therapies, or left chest irradiation.

107
Q

Which of the following is true regarding trastuzumab-induced cardiotoxicity?

A. It is irreversible in most patients.
B. It is more reversible than anthracycline cardiotoxicity.
C. It is characterized by diffuse myocardial fibrosis.
D. It occurs acutely with each dose.

A

B

Cardiotoxicity is highest when anthracyclines are administered in conjunction with trastuzumab; however, less toxicity is seen now when these agents are combined compared with the toxicity observed previously with paclitaxel for breast cancer.

108
Q

Which adverse effect is commonly associated with tyrosine kinase inhibitors targeting VEGF?

A. Myocardial infarction
B. Severe hypertension and proteinuria
C. Bradycardia and conduction block
D. Ventricular arrhythmias

A

B

109
Q

Which proteasome inhibitor is more cardiotoxic in the treatment of multiple myeloma?

A. Bortezomib
B. Carfilzomib
C. Ixazomib
D. Lenalidomide

A

B

110
Q

Which of the following drugs is associated with restrictive cardiomyopathy due to lysosomal dysfunction?

A. Hydroxychloroquine
B. Mefloquine
C. Artemisinin
D. Primaquine

A

A

111
Q

The cardiac toxicity of VEGF inhibitors often mimics which pregnancy-related condition?

A

Preeclampsia

112
Q

What is the primary risk during supervised alcohol withdrawal in patients with cardiomyopathy?

A. Arrhythmias and exacerbation of heart failure
B. Severe hypertension
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Acute renal failure

A

A

113
Q

-____ are the most common drugs implicated in toxic cardiomyopathy.

A

Chemotherapy agent

114
Q

Which of the following cardiac conditions is most commonly associated with hyperthyroidism?

A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
B. Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response
C. Right ventricular hypertrophy
D. Myocardial ischemia

A

B

115
Q

What is the primary mechanism by which amiodarone contributes to cardiomyopathy?

A. Direct myocardial toxicity
B. Excessive iodine content causing thyroid dysfunction
C. Calcium channel blockade
D. Potassium channel activation

A

B

116
Q

Which of the following mechanisms contributes to obesity-related cardiomyopathy?

A. Increased natriuretic peptide clearance
B. Coronary artery vasospasm
C. Decreased myocardial contractility due to amyloid deposits
D. Increased adrenergic tone

A

A

117
Q

Which factor is most implicated in the development of diabetic cardiomyopathy?

A. Focal ischemia from microvascular disease
B. Direct beta-cell toxicity
C. Myocyte apoptosis due to hyperglycemia
D. Peripheral neuropathy-related cardiac dysfunction

A

A

118
Q

Which deficiency is responsible for beriberi heart disease?

A. Vitamin D
B. Thiamine
C. Niacin
D. Folic acid

A

B

119
Q

Deficiency of trace elements such as ___ can cause cardiomyopathy (Keshan’s disease).

A

selenium

120
Q

Abnormalities in carnitine metabolism can cause ____cardiomyopathies, usually in children.

A

dilated or restrictive

121
Q

Inborn disorders of metabolism are most often associated with ____

A

restrictive cardiomyopathy

122
Q

Which gene is most commonly implicated in familial dilated cardiomyopathy?

A. MYH7
B. TTN
C. MYBPC3
D. SCN5A

A

B

123
Q

The most recognizable familial cardiomyopathy syndromes with extracardiac manifestations are the _____.

A

muscular dystrophies

124
Q

How do TTN mutations differ in presentation between men and women?

A. Women have more severe symptoms.
B. Men develop cardiomyopathy earlier than women.
C. Women are unaffected by TTN mutations.
D. Men have less severe clinical outcomes.

A

B

125
Q

Duchenne’s and the milder Becker’s dystrophies result from abnormalities in the _____ of the sarcolemmal membrane.

A

X-linked dystrophin gene

126
Q

Which of the following is a recognizable familial cardiomyopathy syndrome with extracardiac manifestations?

A. Arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy
B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D. Glycogen storage disease

A

B

127
Q

In familial DCM with skeletal myopathy, which protein is commonly affected?

A. Dystrophin
B. Titin
C. Lamin A/C
D. Desmin
Answer: A

A

A

128
Q

Which nuclear membrane protein mutation is associated with arrhythmias and conduction system disease in familial DCM?

A. TTN
B. SCN5A
C. Lamin A/C
D. MYH7

A

C

129
Q

A prominent family history of sudden death or ventricular tachycardia before clinical cardiomyopathy suggests genetic defects in the ____

A

desmosomal proteins

130
Q

What is the primary pathological finding in arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy?

A. Conduction system fibrosis
B. Fatty infiltration and myocyte replacement
C. Subendocardial ischemia
D. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy

A

B

131
Q

Which feature is commonly seen in desmosomal protein defects causing arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy?

A. Woolly hair and skin thickening
B. Prominent skeletal myopathy
C. Severe pulmonary hypertension
D. Isolated left ventricular dilation

A

A

132
Q

What is the most common clinical feature of left ventricular noncompaction with systolic dysfunction?

A. Pulmonary hypertension
B. Embolic events
C. Recurrent pericarditis
D. Persistent tachycardia

A

B

The three cardinal clinical features of ventricular arrhythmias, embolic events, and heart failure are largely restricted to noncompaction with concomitant systolic dysfunction.

133
Q

What imaging finding is diagnostic of left ventricular noncompaction?

A. Concentric hypertrophy
B. Multiple trabeculations in the left ventricle distal to the papillary muscles
C. Diffuse late gadolinium enhancement on MRI
D. Thickened ventricular septum

A

B

134
Q

Left ventricular noncompaction diagnostic criteria include the presence of _____ in the left ventricle distal to the papillary muscles, creating a “spongy” appearance of the apex, but are increasingly recognized as nonspecific findings in other cardiac diseases.

A

multiple trabeculations

135
Q

The apical ballooning syndrome, or acute stress-induced cardiomyopathy, occurs typically in older women after sudden intense emotional or physical stress.

A

Takotsubo

136
Q

Fabry’s disease results from a deficiency in which enzyme?

A. Beta-glucosidase
B. Alpha-galactosidase A
C. Glucocerebrosidase
D. Debranching enzyme

A

B

137
Q

Fabry’s disease results from a deficiency in which enzyme?

A. Beta-glucosidase
B. Alpha-galactosidase A
C. Glucocerebrosidase
D. Debranching enzyme

A

B

138
Q
A