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Paediatrics > cardiology rest > Flashcards

cardiology rest Flashcards

1
Q

cyanotic defects explain

A

decrease in systemic oxygen saturation as flow of blood bypasses lungs…
tetralogy of fallot
transposition of great arteries, tricuspid atresia

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2
Q

acyanotic explained and types

A

shunt = VSD, ASD and PDA…abnormal blood flow and volume overload in one or more chambers..can cause pulmonary HTN, congestive HF and right to left shunting…cyanosis
obstructive = coarctation of aorta, pulmonary stenosis and aortic stenosis..narrow or blockage within heart/great vessels..increased pressure load on affected chamber…hypertrophy

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3
Q

HRT 0-11 mths

A

110-160

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4
Q

HR 1-2 YRS

A

100-150

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5
Q

HR 2-5 YRS

A

95-140

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6
Q

5-11 YRS HR

A

80-120

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7
Q

12+ HR

A

60-90

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8
Q

rhythm abnormalities in children ECG

A

sinus arrythmias- irregular rhythm that changes with child’s breathing, every P wave, QRS
ectopic beats - non sinus QRS complexes, can be atrial, junctional, or ventricular

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9
Q

QRS in children

A

always normal if positive in leads 1 and 11

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10
Q

VT QRS complexes children

A

VT will show an extreme right (north west) QRS axis, due to ectopic focus located in this ventricle

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11
Q

SVT ECG

A

a broad complex tachycardia with normal QRS axis may indicate a supraventricular tachycardia

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12
Q

AVSD ECG

A

newborn with an extreme left QRS axis may have an atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD).

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13
Q

sinus rhythm p wavesq

A

upright in leads 1 and aVF

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14
Q

Tall p waves

A

amplitude >3mm
Right atrial hypertrophy

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15
Q

wide and notched p wave

A

(duration >100ms, or >80ms if younger than 12 months) is a sign of left atrial hypertrophy

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16
Q

normal PR interval

A

80-200ms

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17
Q

conditions with increased PR interval

A

(1st degree AV block) include myocarditis, atrial septal defects (ASD) and hyperkalaemia

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18
Q

conditions shortening PR interval

A

WPW syndrome

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19
Q

normal Q waves

A

Infants and young children may have very deep Q waves, up to 6mm, and this is normal

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20
Q

QRS complex ECG

A

abnormally wide if more than 120ms in children or 80ms (2 small squares) in infants
causes - VT, BBB, or WPW

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21
Q

right BBB

A

M” shape (rsR’) in V1 with a tall and wide second peak of the QRS

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22
Q

left BBB

A

Left BBB causes a similar pattern but in V6

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23
Q

WPW syndrome

A

small ‘delta’ wave before the QRS, which can be subtle with only slurring of the R wave

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24
Q

ventricular arrhythmias

A

can have any shape depending on the ectopic focus, and may look very similar to BBB

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25
Q

RVH ECG

A

a positive R wave in V1 in an older child indicates right ventricular hypertrophy

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26
Q

LVH ECG

A

An abnormally tall R wave in V6 usually indicates left ventricular hypertrophy

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27
Q

QRS amplitude

A

changes in childhood, usually larger than adults

28
Q

prolonged QTC

A

more than 450ms is prolonged in all ages, and may increase the risk of arrhythmia and sudden death

29
Q

T wave inversion

A

Beyond the first few days of life, T waves are inverted in V1 to V3 and will gradually become upright by adolescence

30
Q

ST elevation ECG

A

usually due to early repolarisation or “high take-off”, particularly in adolescent boys, and is a normal finding

31
Q

pathological T or ST wave

A

pericarditis
myocarditis
T wave inversion may also result from ventricular strain and severe ventricular hypertrophy

32
Q

birth-3 days normal ECG

A

Right axis deviation (+90 degrees to +180 degrees)
Upright T wave in V1 – if persisting beyond day 3 this is a sign of RVH
Positive QRS complexes in V1 and V2, negative QRS in V5 and V6

33
Q

3 days - 3 years ECG

A

Right axis deviation (usually normal by 1 month)
Negative T wave in V1
Positive QRS complexes in all chest leads (may become isoelectric in V1)

34
Q

3 years - 16 years normal ECG

A

Normal QRS axis (0 degrees to +90 degrees)
Negative T waves in V1-4 will gradually become upright during childhood
Negative QRS in V1 and positive (large amplitude) QRS in V5 and V6

35
Q

foetal circulation before birth

A

gas exchange occurs in placenta. more oxygenated blood delivered to myocardium and brain by intracardiac and extracardiac shunts. Foetal circulation is defined as ‘duct dependent’ - 1) umbilical arteries and vein, 2) ductus venosus, 3) foramen ovale, 4) ductus arteriosus

36
Q

at the liver - foetal circulation

A

oxygenated blood from placenta travels via umbilical vein which branches into left and right umbilical veins at liver
R - oxygenated blood to liver via portal vein
L - branches into ductus venosus - bypasses liver to carry oxygenated blood into IVC
then mix of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood enters RA via IVC and mixing with SVC

37
Q

at heart and lungs, foetal circulation

A

as lungs have no role in gas exchange, pulmonary arterioles are in hypoxic state. Hypoxia causes pulmonary vasoconstriction…increases pulmonary vascular resistance and pressure…pressure higher in R side of heart…R ventricular afterload higher..blood shunt via ductus arteriosis (between pulmonary artery and aorta) and foramen ovale (between RA and LA). So bypasses RV and lungs, entering LA or directly into aorta…enters systemic circulation
Aorta bifurcates into R and L common iliac arteries…split into internal and external iliac arteries..each internal give rise to umbilical artery to bring deoxygenated blood back to placenta..cycle continues

38
Q

foetal circulation after birth

A

Air into lungs, rise in 02 levels, pulmonary vascular resistance falls due to reduction in hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction…lower pulmonary resistance and decreased afterload in R side
Change in pressure gradients between L and R side = closure of foramen ovale
Decreases in pulmonary pressure, means blood flow across ductus arteriosus is reversed…blood initially shunted from aorta to pulmonary artery. as o2 rises, ductus arteriosus constricts and closes (forming ligamentum arteriosum in adults).
After birth - umbilical vessels constrict, form round ligament of liver (umbilical vein), ligamentum venosum of liver (ductus venosus) and superior vesical arteries (umbilical arteries)

39
Q

foetal HB

A

higher affinity for o2…transfer of o2 from mother to foetus prenatally
foetal hb oxygen dissociation curve displaced to left - so for a given PP of 02, Hb is more saturated than adult
Infants continue to generate foetal HB for 6mths

40
Q

epidemiological acute rheumatic fever

A

4 million cases worldwide
94% in developing countries, most common in tropical
females more

41
Q

acute rheumatic fever pathophysiology

A

strep pyogenes - streptolysin O and S
The bacteria contain M proteins in their cell wall. B cells stimulated to produce anti-M protein antibodies against infection which cross react with other tissues…heart, brain, joints and skin
exacerbated by production of activated cross reactive T cells

42
Q

risk factors acute rheumatic fever

A

Children and young people
Poverty
Overcrowded and poor hygiene places
Family history of rheumatic fever
D8/17 B cell antigen positivity

43
Q

diagnostic criteria rheumatic fveer

A

Positive throat culture for Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus or elevated anti-streptolysin O (ASO) or anti-deoxyribonuclease B (anti-DNASE B) titre.

AND

2 major criteria OR 1 major and 2 minor criteria present for initial ARF. (Same criteria for recurrent ARF plus can also be just 3 minor criteria)

44
Q

major criteria

A

SPECS
Sydenham’s chorea
Polyarthritis
Erythema marginatum
Carditis
Subcutaneous nodules

45
Q

minor criteria

A

CAPE
CRP or ESR – Raised acute phase reactant
Arthralgia
Pyrexia/Fever
ECG – Prolonged PR interva

46
Q

rheumatic fever ddx

A

septic arthritis
reactive arthropathy
infective endocarditis

47
Q

investigations rheumatic fever

A

Bloods: ESR, CRP, FBC (WBC),
Blood cultures to exclude sepsis
Rapid Antigen Detection Test
Throat culture: may be negative by the time rheumatic fever symptoms occur
Anti-streptococcal serology: ASO and anti-DNASE B titres
ECG: prolonged PR interval
CXR if carditis is suspected: congestive heart failure may be seen in ARF due to valvular damage
Echocardiography

48
Q

initial management in confirmed rheumatic fever

A

abx - benzathine benzylpenicillin, if allergy - cephalosporins
aspirin or NSAIDS
assess for emergency valve replacement
if severe carditis - congestive HF, 3rd degree HB) give steroids and diuretics

49
Q

definitive and long term management rheumatic fever

A

secondary prophylaxis with IM benzathine benzylpenicillin every 3-4 weeks, oral phenoxymethylpenicillin x2 daily, oral sulfadiazine daily or oral azithromycin

50
Q

complications rheumatic fever

A

2% of the population can get permanent damage to heart valves and chronic rheumatic heart disease
With treatment ARF should resolve within 2 weeks

51
Q

risk factors infective endocarditis

A

hx of congenital or acquired cardiac disease - VSD, PDA, aortic valve abnormalities
invasive instrumentation procedures
indwelling prosthetic material
IVDU

52
Q

pathophysiology infective endocarditis

A

triad of endothelial damage, platelet adhesion and microbial adherence

bacteriaemia adheres to lesion and invades underlying tissue…attached to lesion, bacteria are protected within vegetation from phagocytic cells and host defence mechanisms so can proliferate

53
Q

IE organisms

A

must have specific surface receptors to fibronectin
- Staphylococcus Aureus, Streptococcus Viridans, Streptococcus Pneumoniae, HACEK organisms (Haemophillus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella and Kingella), Group A, C and G Streptococci and Candida albican

54
Q

dental procedure organisms

A

s.viridans

55
Q

GI surgery organisms

A

enterococci

56
Q

clinical features IE

A

persistent low grade fever
heart murmur
splenomegaly
petechiae
osler’s nodes
janeway lesions
splinter haemorrhages
non acute - fatigue, weight loss, myalgia, possibly asx

57
Q

splinter haemorrhages other causes

A

embolic phenomena that are seen in IE. Others include pulmonary emboli, haematuria due to glomerular nephritis, cerebral emboli causing seizures or hemiparesis, or roth spots which are retinal haemorrhages with pale centre often seen near optic disc

58
Q

investigations IE

A

blood cultures - multiple
echo - identify vegetations and assess damage
blood - anaemia, leukocytosis and raised ESR
urine 0 microscopic haematuria

59
Q

criteria IE

A

modified duke’s criteria
two major, one manor and 3 minor or five minor
rejected if no resolution <4 day abx course

60
Q

major criteria IE

A

positive blood culture for endocarditis - 2 seperate blood culture
evidence of endocardial involvement - positive echo findings

61
Q

minor criteria IE

A

predisposing - heart condition or IVDU
temp >38
vascular phenomena - emboli, infarcts, haemorrhage
immunologic phenomena - glomerulonephritis, osler’s nodes, roth spots
microbiological - positive blood culutres but doesnt meed major crtiera
echo - consistent with IE but not meet major criteria

62
Q

complications IE

A

systemic embolization, abscess formation, pseudoaneurysms, valvular perforation or heart failure

63
Q

management IE

A

empirical IV abx
surgery - fits criteria

64
Q

empirical IV abx IE

A

For highly sensitive streptococci, IV penicillin or IV ceftriaxone for 4 weeks should be sufficient. Alternatively a 2 week course of the above in combination with IV gentamicin may in some instances be sufficient.
For penicillin resistance streptococci, 4 weeks of IV penicillin or ceftriaxone for 4 weeks in combination with gentamicin for the first 2 weeks is required
For methicillin-susceptible staphylococci, a β-lactamase-resistant penicillin may be used for 6 weeks with or without gentamicin for the first 3-5 days
For methicillin-resistant however, vancomycin for 6 weeks with or without gentamicin for the first 3-5 days would be required
Enterococcus causes will need 4-6 weeks of IV penicillin in combination with gentamicin and if penicillin allergic would require 6 weeks of vancomycin and gentamicin
HACEK organisms require ceftriaxone along with gentamicin for 4 weeks
Fungal causes are best treated with amphotericin B
Any case with prosthetic valve in situ should receive a minimum of 6 weeks of appropriate antimicrobial therapy

65
Q

prophylaxis for IE

A

not routinely recommended for antibiotic prophylaxis for those interventions previously covered including; dental procedures, upper and lower GI surgery, GU surgery,

66
Q
A

Paediatrics (17 decks)

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