Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase II Medicine Block > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What type of murmur is aortic stenosis?

A

Ejection-systolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of murmur is mitral regurgitation?

A

Pan-systolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 2 murmurs that are most commonly heard?

A

Aortic stenosis and mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What ECG changes may you see with an MI?

A

ST elevation or depression
T wave inversion
Pathological Q waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What 2 enzymes may be elevated after an MI?

A

Troponin - cardiac isoforms I and T

Creating kinase - released from injured cardiac myocytes, although not as specific as troponin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name the 3 types of acute coronary syndrome.

A

STEMI
NSTEMI
Unstable angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is aortic dissection?

A

A condition where injury to the innermost layer of the aorta allows blood to flow between the layers of the aortic wall, forcing the layers apart, patients get sudden onset severe chest pain that radiates/tears through to the back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Takotsubo cardiomyopathy?

A

A temporary heart condition that is brought on by stress, patient experiences same symptoms as a heart attack but there is not any underlying cardiovascular disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is cardioversion?

A

A procedure where a patient with an arrhythmia is shocked to restore the normal heart rhythm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How can you diagnose a posterior myocardial infarction?

A

Need to put on leads V7, V8 and V9 on the left side of the patient’s back and you will see ST elevation in these leads, you may also see ST depression in the anterior leads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Brugada Syndrome?

A

A genetic disorder where there is abnormal electrical activity in the heart and therefore an increased risk of arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome?

A

A condition where there is an extra electrical pathway in the heart between the atria and ventricles, this leads to rapid electrical conduction and periods of tachycardia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What would you see on an ECG in someone with Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome?

A

Shortened PR interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the pathophysiology of an ACS?

A

Atherosclerotic plaque formation in the coronary arteries that ruptures, leading to thrombus formation, inflammation and occlusion/blockage of the coronary artery, leading to ischaemia and possible infarction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What symptoms are present in an MI that wouldn’t be present in unstable angina?

A

Autonomic symptoms - sweating, nausea, palpitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name some signs of heart failure

A

Basal crepitations
Raised JVP
Peripheral oedema
3rd heart sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is PPCI?

A

Primary percutaenous coronary intervention - primary therapeutic treatment for STEMI patients, balloon is inflated to help clear blockage and stent is inserted if necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name the 3 types of shock due to circulatory problems.

A

Cardiogenic - problems with the heart pumping
Hypovolaemic - caused by too little blood volume
Distributive - mass vessel dilation causes a drop in BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the primary treatment for an NSTEMI?

A

Fibrinolysis using drugs such as streptokinase, urokinase or ateplase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What medications should a patient have post MI as secondary prevention?

A

ACEi
Dual antiplatelet therapy - aspirin + clopidogrel or ticagrelor
Beta-blocker
Statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is sinus arrhythmia?

A

A condition when the heartbeat changes pace when you inhale (speeds up due to slight compression of the heart) and exhale (slows down). It is completely normal and is quite common in fit young people.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What emergency medications would you give to someone having an MI?

A

Dual antiplatelet therapy - aspirin 300mg + ticagrelor 180mg
IV morphine 5-10mg
Anti-emetic e.g. metacloperamide 10mg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is sick sinus syndrome?

A

A group of arrhythmias due to problems with the sinus node e.g. Sinus bradycardia, sinus pauses, sinus arrest, atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter or atrial tachycardia thought to be caused by scar-like damage to electrical pathways in the cardiac muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the Wenkenbach phenomenon?

A

Essentially 2nd degree heart block Mobitz type I, where the PR interval becomes progressively longer until a QRS is missed, then the pattern resets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What ECG finding is specific to a PE?

A

SIQIIITIII - deep S waves in lead I, pathological Q waves in lead III, T wave inversion in lead III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What coronary artery supplies leads I, aVL, V4, V5 and V6 and would be affected in a lateral MI?

A

Circumflex artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What coronary artery supplies leads V1-V3 and would be affected in an anteroseptal MI?

A

Left anterior descending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What coronary artery supplies leads II, III and aVF and would be affected in an inferior MI?

A

Right coronary artery in 80% of cases

Circumflex artery in 20% of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What coronary artery supplies leads V7-V9 and would be affected in a posterior MI?

A

Circumflex artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where would you place the chest leads when doing a 12-lead ECG?

A

V1 - right sternal edge 4th intercostal space
V2 - left sternal edge 4th intercostal space
V3 - between V2 and V4
V4 - 5th intercostal space mid-clavicular line
V5 - between V4 and V6
V6 - mid-axillary line

31
Q

When would you see flame-shaped haemorrhages?

A

A retinal haemorrhage often caused by hypertension.

32
Q

What is malignant hypertension?

A

Extremely high BP that develops rapidly and can cause some organ damage if not treated quickly. Classified as a BP > 180/110 with the presence of papilloedema or retinal haemorrhage, it is a medical emergency.

33
Q

What is a hypertensive crisis?

A

Severe increase in BP that could lead to a stroke, systolic >180mmHg or diastolic >120mmHg, it can damage blood vessels.

34
Q

What is a phaeochromocytoma?

A

A tumour of the adrenal gland that secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline.

35
Q

What is cor pulmonale?

A

Abnormal enlargement of the right side of the heart as a result of disease of the lungs or the pulmonary blood vessels, can lead to R-sided heart failure.

36
Q

What might you see on a CXR in someone with heart failure?

A 
A - alveolar oedema (bat wings)
B - Kerley B lines
C - cardiomegaly
D - dilated prominent upper lobe vessels
E - pleural effusions
37
Q

What is the difference between heart failure with preserved ejection fraction and reduced ejection fraction?

A

Systolic heart failure causes reduced ejection fraction, this is because the heart fills the normal amount but ejects less. Diastolic heart failure causes a preserved ejection fraction as the heart does eject less, but also has impaired ventricular filling so the fraction is preserved.

38
Q

What medications would you consider in a patient with heart failure?

A 
Diuretics - loop or thiazide
ACEi
ARBs
Beta blockers
Ivabradine
Nitrates (reduce preload)
39
Q

What is an ICD?

A

Implantable cardiac defibrillator, can detect VT/VF and shock the patient in order to cardiovert, their purpose is to prevent sudden cardiac death associated with heart failure.

40
Q

What is a CRT?

A

Cardiac resynchronisation pacemaker/therapy - specific type of pacemaker that aims to improve the coordination of the heart’s contractions.

41
Q

Name some causes of endocarditis.

A

Infective (rheumatic fever)
Degenerative valve disease
Valve prolapse
IV drug use

42
Q

Name some pathogens that can commonly cause endocarditis.

A 
Streptococcus viridans
MRSA
MSSA (methicillin-sensitive)
Coagulase-negative staphylococci
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
43
Q

What is a pericardial effusion?

A

When fluid collects between the layers of the pericardium, can lead to cardiac tamponade. Often caused by pericarditis.

44
Q

What is cardiac tamponade?

A

When a pericardial effusion compresses the heart, reducing ventricular filling and therefore reducing cardiac output. Can lead to cardiac arrest.

45
Q

What is the link between the allantois, urachus and umbilical ligament?

A

The urachus is the remnant of the allantois, which is the remnant of the embryological umbilical ligament.

46
Q

What is the definition of heart failure?

A

When cardiac output is inadequate for the body’s requirements despite adequate filling pressure.

47
Q

Name some causes of right ventricular failure.

A

Cor pulmonale
LVF
Tricuspid and pulmonary valve disease

48
Q

Name some causes of left ventricular failure.

A

Ischaemic heart disease
Systemic hypertension
Mitral and aortic valve disease
Cardiomyopathy

49
Q

What is the difference in symptoms/signs between RVF and LVF?

A

RVF - peripheral oedema, raised JVP, ascites and facial engorgement.
LVF - fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, orthopnoea, bibasal crepitations.

50
Q

What is the difference between acute and chronic heart failure?

A

Chronic develops slowly over a long period of time, whereas acute heart failure is either new onset or decompensation of chronic HF.

51
Q

Name some causes of diastolic dysfunction heart failure.

A

Pericardial effusion
Cardiac tamponade
Constriction
Restrictive or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

52
Q

Name some causes of systolic dysfunction heart failure.

A

Ischaemia/MI
Hypertension
Dilated cardiomyopathy

53
Q

Which criteria is used for the diagnosis of congestive cardiac failure?

A

Framingham criteria

53
Q

Which classification system is used for to assess the severity of heart failure?

A

New York Heart Association classification

53
Q

What is the most sensitive biomarker for diagnosing heart failure?

A

BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide)

54
Q

What is the triad of clinical features for a phaeochromocytoma?

A

Palpitations
Headache
Excessive sweating

55
Q

Name some fundoscopy findings for hypertension.

A

Flame haemorrhages
Cotton wool spots
Hard exudates

56
Q

What ECG changes would you see with Wolff Parkinson White Syndrome?

A 
Short PR interval
T wave abnormalities
Tall R waves
Variable QRS duration
Generally presents in younger patients
57
Q

List some clinical features of symptomatic Wolff Parkinson White Syndrome.

A 
Palpitations
Chest pain
SOB
Cardiogenic shock
Collapse
VF arrest
AF or SVT
58
Q

Name an ECG wave that you might see in hypothermia.

A

Osborne (J) wave - it’s a little positive deflection at the J point (but negative in aVR and V1).

59
Q

What drug should be given to pregnant women who suffer from severe hypertension in pregnancy or are showing signs of pre-eclampsia.

A

Labetalol (Safe in pregnancy)

Unless beta blocker is CI e.g. history of asthma in which case you would give nifedipine

60
Q

What is resistant hypertension?

A

Blood pressure that remains above the target level despite being prescribed 3 or more antihypertensive drugs with different mechanisms of action).

61
Q

What clinical sign is typically present in a patient with renal artery stenosis?

A

Renal bruits

62
Q

What is the target BP aim when managing hypertension.

A

<140/90
<130/80 in diabetics
<150/90 in people aged 80+

63
Q

In diabetics what is the first line agent for hypertension regardless of age?

A

ACE inhibitors

64
Q

What is high output heart failure?

A

Rare condition where CO is normal or increased but the body’s needs are increased which leads to heart failure. Can be seen in anaemia, thyrotoxicosis and pregnancy. Normally heart failure is low output where CO fails to meet the body’s demands.

65
Q

When is pink frothy sputum classically seen?

A

Characteristic of severe pulmonary oedema. Patients also experience dyspnoea and orthopnoea.

66
Q

What is BNP?

A

B-type natiuretic peptide, a biomarker of heart failure, correlates with LV dysfunction but levels also increase with RHF. High levels are seen in decompensated heart failure.

67
Q

Name some risk factors for infective endocarditis.

A 
IVDU
Immunocompromised
Prosthetic valves
Rheumatic fever
Post-op wounds
68
Q

Why do patients with infective endocarditis sometimes get anaemia?

A

It is a haemolytic anaemic due to mechanical damage of RBC.

69
Q

Strep bovis is a possible causative organism of infective endocarditis. What is the likely route of entry if this is cultured?

A

Likely caused by a colonic neoplasm, do a colonoscopy to confirm this.

70
Q

Which criteria is used for the diagnosis of infective endocarditis?

A

Duke’s criteria - do 3 sets of blood cultures at different times from different sites. Diagnosis of IE if 2 major, 1 major and 3 minor or all 5 minor criteria.

71
Q

What is a Qrisk score?

A

Predicts the risk of someone aged between 35-74 developing cardiovascular disease over the next 10 years.

Phase II Medicine Block (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions