Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is heart failure?

A

The heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the demands of the body

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2
Q

How do you calculate cardiac output?

A

HEART RATE x STROKE VOLUME = CARDIAC OUTPUT

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3
Q

What types of heart failure are there?

A
  • Systolic

- Diastolic

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4
Q

What is meant by systolic heart failure?

A

Inability of the heart muscle to contract forcefully enough during systole

Reduced ejection fraction (< 40%)

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5
Q

What is meant by diastolic heart failure?

A

Inability of the heart muscle to fill with blood adequately during diastole

Normal ejection fraction

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6
Q

What are the causes of systolic heart failure?

A
  1. Ischaemic heart disease
    - Cardiomyocyte damage/death due to ischaemia means heart muscle cannot contract as forcefully.
  2. Long-standing hypertension:
    - LV has to contract more forcefully against a higher pressure, which results in LV hypertrophy. LV hypertrophy increases number of cardiomyocytes (increasing oxygen demand) and squeezes the coronary arteries (reducing oxygen supply). Increased demand for oxygen and reduced supply means that the heart muscle cannot contract as forcefully.
  3. Dilated cardiomyopathy:
    - LV wall is thinner so cannot contract as forcefully.
  4. Congenital heart disease, e.g. ASD, VSD
    - This will cause a left to right shunt, which increases the blood volume in the RV. RV contracts more forcefully, causing RV hypertrophy and right-sided HF (explanation - see number 2)
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7
Q

What are the causes of diastolic heart failure?

A
  1. Long-standing hypertension:
    - LV has to contract more forcefully against a higher pressure, which results in LV hypertrophy. LV hypertrophy means there is less space in chamber to fill with blood.
  2. Aortic stenosis:
    - LV has to contract more forcefully against a higher pressure, which results in LV hypertrophy. LV hypertrophy means there is less space in chamber to fill with blood.
  3. Hypertrophic/restrictive cardiomyopathy:
    - Hypertrophy cardiomyopathy causes LV hypertrophy. LV hypertrophy means there is less space in chamber to fill with blood.
    - Restrictive cardiomyopathy = ventricular wall is stiffer and less compliant, so cannot stretch/allow ventricle to fill with blood adequately.
  4. Congenital heart disease, e.g. ASD, VSD
    - This will cause a left to right shunt, which increases the blood volume in the RV. RV contracts more forcefully, causing RV hypertrophy and right-sided HF as there is less space in the chamber to fill with blood.
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8
Q

What is the main complication of left-sided heart failure? What are the symptoms and signs of this complication?

Give some other signs of left-sided heart failure.

A

Pulmonary oedema:

  • Symptoms: dyspnoea, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, fatigue
  • Signs: crepitations

Other signs:

  • Cardiomegaly (displaced apex beat)
  • 3rd and 4th heart sounds
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9
Q

What is cor pulmonale?

A

Cor pulmonale is right-sided heart failure caused by chronic lung disease, e.g. COPD.

In chronic lung disease, there is hypoxaemia which results in pulmonary vasoconstriction. This vasoconstriction increases pulmonary BP. Increased pulmonary BP means that the RV must contract more forcefully against a higher pressure, which causes RV hypertrophy and right-sided heart failure (systolic and diastolic).

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10
Q

What is the main complication of right-sided heart failure?

What are the signs of this complication?

A

Systemic congestion/oedema:

  • Jugular venous distension
  • Ascites
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Sacral/pedal oedema
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11
Q

Describe the investigation of heart failure

A
CXR: characteristic changes!
A - alveolar oedema
B - Kerley B lines
C - cardiomegaly
D - dilated, prominent upper lobe vessels
E - pleural Effusion

Bloods:

  • B type natriuretic peptide
  • FBC (anaemia exacerbates HF), LFTs (check for damage due to hepatomegaly/cirrhosis), U&Es (as a baseline before starting pharmacological therapy)

ECG:
- May show underlying cause, e.g. ischaemia, LV hypertrophy

Echo:
- To assess ventricular systolic and diastolic function

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12
Q

Describe the pharmacological management of heart failure

A

ABCD:

A - ACE-i / ARB (if ACE-i is contraindicated)
B - Beta blocker
C - CCB
D - Diuretics (loop diuretic, aldosterone antagonist)

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13
Q

a) In clinic, what blood pressure reading is indicative of hypertension?
b) Which follow up investigation should be carried out to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension? How are the results of this investigation interpreted?
c) What other investigations should be performed once hypertension has been diagnosed?

A

a) BP > 140/90 mmHg is INDICATIVE of hypertension
b) Follow up investigation: ABPM (ambulatory blood pressure monitoring) or HBPM (home blood pressure monitoring)

A diagnosis of hypertension is made in patients with:

  • A clinic BP reading of > 140/90 mmHg AND
  • A HBPM/ABPM reading of > 135/85 mmHg

c) Checking for end-organ damage:
- Urine analysis, e.g. checking kidney function
- Fundoscopy, e.g. checking for hypertensive retinopathy
- ECG, e.g. checking for LV hypertrophy

It is also important to do a QRISK2 assessment

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14
Q

What are the causes of hypertension?

A

Primary (essential) hypertension

Secondary hypertension

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15
Q

Give some risk factors for developing primary (essential) hypertension

A
  • Smoking
  • Obesity
  • Sedentary lifestyle
  • Diet high in salt
  • High alcohol intake
  • High demand, low control jobs (stress)
  • Genetics
  • Age
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16
Q

Give some causes of secondary hypertension

A
  • Renal disease, e.g. CKD
  • Endocrine conditions, e.g. acromegaly, Conn’s syndrome
  • Pregnancy
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17
Q

Describe the conservative management of hypertension

A
  • Smoking cessation
  • Weight control
  • Encourage exercise
  • Reduce salt/alcohol intake
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18
Q

Describe the pharmacological management of hypertension

A

Over 55 years old / Afro-Caribbean?

If answer is NO…

  1. A
  2. A + C
  3. A + C + D
  4. A+ B + C + D

if answer is YES…

  1. C
  2. A + C
  3. A + C + D
  4. A + B+ C + D
Key:
A = ACE-i / ARB (if ACEi is contraindicated)
B = beta blocker
C = calcium channel blocker
D = thiazide diuretic
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19
Q

Give 2 examples of an ACE inhibitor

A

Ramipril

Lisinopril

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20
Q

Give 2 examples of an ARB

A

Losartan

Candesartan

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21
Q

Give 3 examples of beta blockers

A

Atenolol
Bisoprolol
Propanolol

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22
Q

Give 2 examples of calcium channel blockers

A

Amlodipine

Nifedipine

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23
Q

Give an example of a loop diuretic

A

Furosemide

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24
Q

Give an example of a thiazide-like diuretic

A

Bendroflumethiazide

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25
Q

Give an example of an aldosterone antagonist

A

Spironolactone

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26
Q

What are the symptoms of stable angina?

A

CHEST PAIN

  • Central, crushing, retrosternal chest pain
  • Exacerbated by exercise
  • Relived by rest
  • Pain may radiate to left arm, neck or jaw

Other symptoms:

  • Dyspnoea
  • Palpitations
  • Sweating
  • Nausea
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27
Q

Describe the investigation of stable angina

A

ECG:

  • Usually normal
  • May show ST depression/T wave inversion

CXR:
Checking heart size and pulmonary vessels

CT angiography is diagnostic - coronary artery stenosis

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28
Q

Describe the conservative management of stable angina

A
  • Smoking cessation
  • Weight loss
  • Exercise
  • Monitor diet
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29
Q

Describe the pharmacological management of stable angina

A

Symptomatic relief for angina attacks:
- GTN spray

Preventing angina attacks:
- Beta blocker or CCB

Secondary prevention of CVD (4 A’s):

  • Aspirin (and clopidogrel)
  • Atorvastatin (statin)
  • ACE inhibitor
  • Atenolol (beta blocker) - if not already on one
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30
Q

Describe the interventional management of angina

A
  • PCI (percutaneous coronary intervention)

- CABG (coronary artery bypass graft)

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31
Q

What is meant by the term ‘acute coronary syndromes’?

A

Umbrella term:

  • Unstable angina
  • STEMI
  • NSTEMI
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32
Q

What is unstable angina?

A

Chest pain occurring on minimal exertion/at rest

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33
Q

Give an example of a rare type of angina and describe its pathology

A

Prinzmetal’s angina - transient ischaemia caused by coronary artery spasm

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34
Q

What is the difference between a STEMI and an NSTEMI? Describe their pathophysiology.

A

STEMI: is complete occlusion of a MAJOR coronary artery by a thrombus, causing full thickness damage of the heart muscle

NSTEMI: is complete occlusion of a MINOR coronary artery or partial occlusion of a MAJOR coronary artery, causing partial-thickness damage to the heart muscle

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35
Q

Describe the common pathology of all ACS

A
  • Rupture of fibrous cap of atheroma
  • Platelet aggregation, adhesion and local thrombus formation
  • Distal thrombus embolisation in coronary artery
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36
Q

Describe the symptoms of ACS

A

CHEST PAIN:

  • Central, crushing, retrosternal chest pain
  • Pain may radiate to left arm, jaw or neck
  • Pain not relieved by GTN spray/rest

Other symptoms:

  • Dyspnoea
  • Palpitations
  • Sweating
  • Nausea
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37
Q

Describe the initial investigations/management of a patient presenting to A+E with suspected ACS

A

Initial Ix:

  • Bloods: Troponin T (to be measured again 12 hours after onset of symptoms)
  • ECG

Initial management: MOAN

  • Morphine
  • Oxygen
  • Aspirin 300 mg and clopidogrel
  • Nitrates - GTN spray
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38
Q

How would the results of the initial investigations allow you to differentiate between STEMI/NSTEMI/unstable angina?

A

STEMI: ECG shows persistent ST elevation and troponin will show a significant RISE or FALL after 12 hours

NSTEMI: ECG may be normal or may show some ST depression/T wave inversion, and troponin T will show either a significant RISE or FALL after 12 hours

Unstable angina: ECG may be normal or may show some ST depression/T wave inversion, but troponin T levels will be NORMAL

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39
Q

Following the initial management for a patient presenting with a suspected ACS, describe the definitive management if ECG shows features associated with STEMI.

A

If patient has presented within 90 MINUTES of onset of symptoms: reperfusion therapy (percutaneous coronary intervention - PCI)

If patient has presented more than 90 minutes after the onset of symptoms: thrombolysis (IV alteplase)

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40
Q

Describe the pharmacological and interventional management of a NSTEMI/unstable angina

A

Pharmacological - 4A’s (secondary prevention of CVD):

  • Aspirin (and clopidogrel)
  • Atorvastatin (statin)
  • ACE inhibitor/ARB
  • Atenolol (beta blocker)

Interventional:
- PCI or CABG

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41
Q

What is meant by coarctation of the aorta?

A

Narrowing of the aorta at the site of the ductus arteriosus

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42
Q

What are the signs of coarctation of the aorta?

A
  • Systolic murmur
  • BP in right arm > left arm
  • Radiofemoral delay
43
Q

Describe the management of coarctation of the aorta

A

Interventional:

  • Stent
  • Surgical repair
44
Q

What are the characteristic features of Tetralogy of Fallow?

A

4 characteristic features:

  • VSD
  • Pulmonary stenosis
  • RV hypertrophy
  • Overriding aorta
45
Q

What are the signs of Tetralogy of Fallow?

A
  • Squatting
  • Failure to thrive
  • Clubbing
46
Q

What is ASD? What does ASD cause?

A
  • Atrial septal defect (hole in the atrial septum)

- ASD causes left to right shunt

47
Q

What is VSD? What does VSD cause?

A
  • Ventricular septal defect (hole in ventricular septum

- VSD causes left to right shunt

48
Q

ASD is associated with which syndrome?

A

Eisenmenger’s syndrome:

  • Left to right shunt is reversed due to development of pulmonary hypertension
  • This causes cyanosis and organ damage
49
Q

What is peripheral arterial disease?

A

Atherosclerosis resulting in ischaemia of the leg muscles

50
Q

What are the symptoms/signs of peripheral arterial disease?

A

Symptoms:

  • Cramping pain in leg muscles/buttocks
  • Pain is relieved by rest

Signs:

  • Cold, pale, hairless skin on legs
  • Absent peripheral pulses and reduced ABPI
  • Arterial ulcers
  • Postural colour change (Buerger’s test)
51
Q

What is the diagnostic investigation for peripheral arterial disease?

A

CT angiography

52
Q

Describe the conservative, pharmacological and interventional management of peripheral arterial disease

A

Conservative:

  • Smoking cessation
  • Weight control
  • Exercise
  • Modify diet

Pharmacological:
- Clopidogrel

Interventional:

  • Angioplasty
  • Artery bypass graft
53
Q

What is pericarditis?

A

Inflammation of the pericardium

54
Q

What are the causes of pericarditis?

A
  • Idiopathic
  • Infective (usually viral)
  • Autoimmune
  • Post-MI (Dressler syndrome)
55
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of pericarditis?

A

Symptoms:
Chest pain
- Worse on lying flat/inspiration
- Relieved by sitting forward

Signs:
- Pericardial rub

56
Q

Describe the investigation of pericarditis

A

ECG:

  • Concave (saddle-shaped) ST elevation in ALL LEADS
  • PR depression
57
Q

Describe the pharmacological management of pericarditis

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Colchicine
  • Treat underlying cause, e.g. steroids if autoimmune
58
Q

What is an aneurysm?

A

Enlargement of a section of an artery due to weakening of the wall

59
Q

What are the causes of aneurysm?

A
  • Atheroma (most common)
  • Trauma
  • Connective tissue disorders, e.g. Marfan’s, Ehlers-Danlos
60
Q

Give an example of a type of clinically important aneurysm

A

AAA -Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

61
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A

Symptoms:

  • Often asymptomatic
  • May have a bit of abdominal/back pain

Signs:

  • Pulsatile aorta on abdo examination suggests AAA
  • Expansile aorta on abdo examination suggests ruptured AAA
62
Q

Describe the investigation of AAA

A

Screening:
- Aortic ultrasound

Diagnostic:
- CT angiography

63
Q

Describe the management of AAA

A

Surgery

64
Q

What is an aortic dissection? Describe its pathophysiology

A
  • Tear in the intima of the aorta
  • Blood fows into media and splits it
  • This leads to occlusion of the branches of the aorta
65
Q

Describe the symptoms of aortic dissection

A

Sudden tearing chest pain radiating to back

66
Q

Describe the investigation of aortic dissection

A

CT/MRI chest

67
Q

Describe the management of aortic dissection

A

Type A (involving ascending aorta) = surgery

Type B (not involving ascending aorta) = surgery/antihypertensive drugs

68
Q

Give the definitions in terms of BPM for tachycardia and bradycardia

A

Tachycardia > 100 bpm

Bradycardia < 60 bpm

69
Q

Describe the pharmacological management of tachycardia

A

Beta blockers

70
Q

What is the definition of sinus tachycardia?

A

Raised heart rate (over 100 bpm) that occurs due to overfiring of the sinoatrial node

71
Q

What is the definition of supraventricular tachycardia? Give some types of supraventricular tachycardia

A

Raised heart rate (over 100 bpm) arising from atria/atrioventricular junction

  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Atrial flutter
  • AVNRT (atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia)
  • AVRT (atrioventricular reciprocating tachycardia)
72
Q

Give some causes of atrial fibrillation

A
  • Heart failure
  • Thyrotoxicosis
  • Hypertension
73
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of atrial fibrillation

A
  • SAN fires 300-600/min
  • Only a proportion of these are conducted to the ventricles due to refractory period of AVN
  • Results in heart rate of 120-180 bpm and pulse that is ‘irregularly irregular’
74
Q

Describe the investigation of AF

A

ECG:

  • ‘irregularly irregular’
  • F waves
  • No clear P waves
  • Rapid/irregular QRS
75
Q

Describe the pharmacological management of AF

A

To control HR:

  • Beta-blockers
  • OR CCB
  • OR digoxin

To control heart rhythm:

  • Amiodarone
  • Electrical DC cardioversion (pacemaker)

Anticoagulation:
- Warfarin

76
Q

What is the name of the test used to calculate risk of stroke in AF patients

A

CHADS2VASc score

77
Q

Give some causes of bradycardia

A
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Iatrogenic, e.g. digoxin
  • Hypothermia
  • Acute ischaemia, infarction of SAN
78
Q

Describe the pharmacological treatment for bradycardia

A

Atropine

79
Q

What is heart block?

A

Heart block is a type of cardiac arrhythmia where the heart beats irregularly and at a slower pace than normal

80
Q

What is atrial fibrillation?

A

AF is a type of cardiac arrhythmia where the heart beats irregularly and at a faster pace than normal

81
Q

What are the types of heart block?

A

Block in AVN/bundle of His = AV block
- There are three types of AV heart block (first degree, second degree and third degree)

Block in lower conduction system = LBBB/RBBB

82
Q

Give some causes of heart block

A
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Congenital heart defects
  • Coronary artery disease
  • Fibrosis of conducting tissues (occurs in elderly)
83
Q

What is first degree heart block?
What are its symptoms?
How is it managed?

A
  • Delayed AV conduction resulting in prolonged PR interval on ECG (>0.2 seconds)
  • Asymptomatic
  • Does not require treatment
84
Q

What is second degree heart block?

What are its symptoms?

A

Electrical impulses SOMETIMES fail to be conducted to ventricles, so heart will skip beats

Types:
- Second degree type I (Mobitz I) = Electrical impulses fail to be conducted in a regular pattern, so heart skips beats in a regular pattern (the body can usually compensate for this, so won’t experience any symptoms)

  • Second degree heart block type II (Mobitz II) = electrical impulses fail to be conducted in an irregular pattern, so heart skips betas in an irregular pattern (the body usually cannot compensate for this so will experience symptoms, e.g. dizziness, syncope)
85
Q

What is third degree heart block?
What are its symptoms?
How is it diagnosed?
How is it managed?

A

All atrial activity fails to conduct to ventricles (no association between atrial and ventricular activity)

Symptoms: dizziness/syncope, dyspnoea, chest pain, fatigue, confusion

ECG: P waves and QRS complex are independent

Management: IV atropine, pacemaker

86
Q

How to spot LBBB/RBBB on an ECG?

A

LBBB = ViLLhelM (V shape in V1, M shape in V6)

RBBB = MaRRooN (M shape in V1, N shape in V6)

87
Q

Valvular disease - which ones do we need to know?

A
  • Aortic stenosis
  • Mitral stenosis
  • Aortic regurgitation
  • Mitral regurgitation
88
Q

What are the symptoms of valvular disease?

A
  • Dyspnoea
  • Chest pain
  • Fatigue
  • Palpitations
89
Q

What is aortic stenosis? When do symptoms start?

A

Obstruction of the outflow of blood from the left ventricle to the aorta during systole

Symptoms start when area of valve is 1/4th normal size

90
Q

What are the signs of aortic stenosis?

A
  • PULSE: pulsus tardus and pulsus parvus
  • HEART SOUNDS: soft/absent S2
  • MURMUR: ejection systolic murmur (crescendo-decrescendo pattern)
91
Q

What is mitral stenosis?

A

Obstruction of the outflow from the left atrium to the left ventricle during diastole

92
Q

What are the signs of mitral stenosis?

A
  • PULSE: low volume pulse
  • HEART SOUNDS: loud S1
  • MURMUR: rumbling mid-diastolic murmur
93
Q

What are the causes of valvular disease?

A
  • Congenital defects, e.g. bicuspid aortic valve
  • Degenerative calcification
  • Rheumatic heart disease/infective endocarditis
94
Q

What is aortic regurgitation?

A

Backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole

95
Q

What are the signs of aortic regurgitation?

A
  • PULSE: collapsing pulse
  • HEART SOUNDS: displaced hyperdynamic apex beat
  • MURMUR: diastolic murmur
96
Q

What is mitral regurgitation?

A

Backflow of blood from left ventricle into left atrium during systole

97
Q

What are the signs of mitral regurgitation?

A
  • HEART SOUNDS: displaced hyperdynamic apex beat

- MURMUR: pansystolic murmur

98
Q

Describe the investigation of valvular disease

A

Echocardiography
ECG
CXR

99
Q

Describe the interventional management of valvular disease

A

Valve replacement

100
Q

What is shock?

A
Circulatory failure (significant hypotension) resulting in inadequate organ perfusion 
Characterised by systolic BP < 90 mmHg
101
Q

Give some types of shock

A

Septic - infection resulting in acute vasodilation
Anaphylactic - IgE hypersensitivity reaction (histamine released)
Neurogenic - e.g. spinal cord injury
Hypovolaemic - acute blood loss

102
Q

What are the complications of ACS?

A

DARTH VADER

D - death
A - arrhythmia
R - rupture of septum
T - tamponade
H - heart failure
V - valve disease
A - aneurysm of the ventricle
D - Dressler's syndrome (pericarditis and pericardial effusion)
E - embolism
R - recurrence of ACS
103
Q

What is the name of the criteria used to diagnose infective endocarditis?

A

Dukes criteria

104
Q

Malar flush is a sign of…

The most common cause of this is…?

A

Mitral stenosis

Rheumatic fever