Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is your job when the Step 2 examination describes a patient with chest pain?

A

Make sure that the chest pain is not because of any life-threatening condition (ie MI)

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2
Q

What elements of the history and physical examination steer you away from a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI)?

A

Wrong age: patient < 40 yo is extremely unlikely to have an MI.

Lack of risk factors: strong family history, or multiple risk factors for coronary artery disease (high LDL)

Physical characteristics of pain: pain associated with MI is usually not sharp or well localized; If pain is reproducible, it is of MSK origin; may also be related to certain foods or eating.

Get at least an electrocardiogram (ECG) and possibly one or more sets of cardiac enzyme levels. For the Step 2 examination, however, these clues should steer you toward an alternative diagnosis.

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3
Q

What 3 findings on ECG should make you suspect an MI?

A
  1. flipped or flattened T waves
  2. ST segment elevation (depression means ischemia; elevation means injury)
  3. Q waves in a segmental distribution (e.g., leads II, III, and aVF for an inferior infarct)

Note: ST-segment elevation is seen in leads I, aVL, and V2 through V6 in image

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4
Q

What historical points should steer you toward a diagnosis of MI?

A

history of angina or previous chest pain, murmurs, arrhythmias, risk factors for coronary artery disease, hypertension, or diabetes.

may be taking digoxin, furosemide, or cholesterol, antihypertensives, or cardiac medications.

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5
Q

11 treatment for an MI

A
  1. Early reperfusion indicated if time from onset of symptoms is < 12 hours; accomplished by fibrinolysis, percutaneous coronary intervention (i.e., balloon angioplasty/stent), or coronary artery bypass grafting
  2. ECG monitoring - if ventricular tachycardia occurs, use amiodarone.
  3. Give O2 - maintain an oxygen saturation > 90%.
  4. Morphine for pain; may improve pulmonary edema, if present.
  5. Aspirin.
  6. Nitroglycerin.
  7. ß blockers
  8. Clopidogrel.
  9. Heparin (unfractionated or low-molecular-weight)
  10. ACEi or ARB - started within 24 hours.
  11. Statin (HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor)

MI - BRANCHES MAG

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6
Q

True or false: With good management, patients with an MI will not die in the hospital.

A

False

Even with the best of medical management, patients may die from an MI. They also may have a second heart attack during hospitalization. Watch for sudden deterioration.

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7
Q

When is heparin indicated in the setting of chest pain and MI? 3

A

if unstable angina is diagnosed

if the patient has a cardiac thrombus

if severe CHF is seen on echocardiogram

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8
Q

What clues suggest GERD/PUD instead of cardiac causes of chest pain?

A

GERD pain:

  • relation to certain foods (spicy foods, chocolate), smoking, caffeine, or lying down.
  • Pain is relieved by antacids or acid-reducing medications.
  • test positive for Helicobacter pylori if PUD
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9
Q

What clues suggest chest wall pain (costochondritis, bruised or broken ribs) instead of cardiac causes of chest pain?

A

well localized and reproducible on chest wall palpation

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10
Q

What clues suggest esophageal problems (achalasia, nutcracker esophagus, or esophageal spasm) instead of cardiac causes of chest pain?

A
  • negative workup for MI
  • lack of atherosclerosis risk factors
  • abnormalities with barium swallow or esophageal manometry

Treat achalasia with pneumatic dilatation or botulism toxin administration

Treat nutcracker esophagus or esophageal spasm with calcium channel blockers.

If medical treatments are ineffective, surgical myotomy may be needed.

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11
Q

What clues suggest pericarditis instead of cardiac causes of chest pain?

What is a common cause of pericarditis?

A

evidence of viral URI

low grade fever

ECG shows diffuse STE

elevated ESR

pain relieved by sitting up and forward

common cause: coxackievirus, TB, uremia, malignancy, lupus erythematosus, autoimmune disease

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12
Q

What clues suggest pneumonia instead of cardiac causes of chest pain?

A
  • pleuritis - chest pain that worsens when breathing, coughing or sneezing
  • cough
  • fever
  • sputum production
  • possible sick contacts
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13
Q

What clues suggest aortic dissection instead of cardiac causes of chest pain?

A
  • severe tearing or ripping pain that may radiate to the back
  • hypertension
  • evidence of Marfan syndrome (tall, thin patient with hyperextensible joints)
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14
Q

How can you recognize stable angina?

A
  • begins with exertion or stress and remits with rest or calming down
  • pain last <20 min, described as a pressure or squeezing pain in the substernal area and may radiate to the shoulders, neck, and/or jaw; usually relieved by NTG
  • often accompanied by SOB, diaphoresis, and/or N
  • pain is usually relieved by nitroglycerin.
  • ECG during an acute attack often shows ST depression, but in the absence of pain, the ECG is often normal.
  • may be progression to unstable angina or MI
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15
Q

Define unstable angina. How is it diagnosed and treated?

A
  • defined as a change from previously stable angina
  • normal or only minimally elevated cardiac enzymes
  • ECG changes (ST depression)
  • chest pain that often begins with rest, is prolonged, and does not respond to nitroglycerin initially (like a heart attack)
  • history of stable angina or coronary artery disease risk factor

treatment similar to that of an MI

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16
Q

Describe variant (Prinzmetal) angina.

How is this treated?

A

caused by coronary artery spasms

pain at rest (unrelated to exertion) and ST-elevation

normal cardiac enzymes

acute treatment: NTG

long-term treatment: Ca channel blockers (reduces arterial spasms)

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17
Q

Define silent MI. How does it present instead? How common is it?

A

Patients with a silent MI do not develop chest pain

Their symptoms include CHF, shock, or confusion and delirium (especially elderly patients).

MIs are silent in up to 25% of cases (especially in diabetic patients with neuropathy).

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18
Q

What are the physical features of mitral stenosis?

A
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19
Q

What are the physical features of mitral regurgitation?

A
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20
Q

What are the physical features of aortic stenosis?

A
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21
Q

What are the physical features of aortic regurgitation?

A
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22
Q

What are the physical features of mitral prolapse?

A
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23
Q

What are the causes of mitral stenosis and what features of the history would clue you into this?

A
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24
Q

What are the causes mitral regurgitation and what features of the history would clue you into this?

A
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25
Q

What are the causes of aortic stenosis and what features of the history would clue you into this?

A
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26
Q

What are the causes of aortic regurgitation and what features of the history would clue you into this?

A
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27
Q

What is the treatment for the following valvular disorders?

mitral stenosis?

mitral regurgitation?

aortic stenosis?

aortic regurgitation?

A

Mitral stenosis - balloon valvotomy or surgery if it becomes severe; diuretics, digoxin, ß blockers are adjunctive therapies

Mitral regurgitation - corrective surgery if there is flail leaflet or severe regurgitation, vasodilators (nitroprusside, hydralazine) if symptomatic

  • anticoagulation if a-fib is present

Aortic stenosis - aortic valve replacement if symptomatic

Aortic regurgitation - aortic valve replacement if symptomatic or if there is progressive LV enlargement

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28
Q

Who should receive endocarditis prophylaxis?

A

patients with

  • prosthetic cardiac valves
  • prior infectious endocarditis
  • congenital heart disease
  • cardiac transplant who developed valvulopathy

should receive a single dose of antibiotic prophylaxis, usually amoxicillin), prior dental procedures

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29
Q

What is the Virchow triad?

A

endothelial damage, venous stasis, and hypercoagulable state

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30
Q

Common clinical scenarios for development of DVT

A
  • Surgery (especially orthopedic, pelvic, abdominal, or neurosurgery)
  • Malignancy
  • Trauma
  • Immobilization
  • Pregnancy
  • Use of birth control pills
  • DIC
  • Hypercoagulable states
    • factor V (Leiden)
    • antithrombin III deficiency
    • protein C/S deficiency
    • prothrombin G20210A mutation
    • hyperhomocysteinemia
    • antiphospholipid antibodies
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31
Q

Describe the physical signs and symptoms of DVT.

How is it diagnosed?

A

Physical signs

  • unilateral leg swelling
  • pain or tenderness
  • Homan sign (present in 30% of cases).
  • note: superficial palpable cords imply superficial thrombophlebitis rather than DVT

DVT is best diagnosed by Doppler compression US or impedance plethysmography of the veins of the extremity. The gold standard is venography, but this invasive test is reserved for situations when the diagnosis is not clear.

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32
Q

True or false: Superficial thrombophlebitis is a risk factor for pulmonary embolus (PE).

Treatment for superficial thrombophlebitis? 2

A

False

Superficial thrombophlebitis (erythema, tenderness, edema, and palpable clot in a superficial vein) affects superficial veins and is considered a benign condition.

However, recurrent superficial thrombophlebitis can be a marker for underlying malignancy (e.g., Trousseau syndrome, or migratory thrombophlebitis, is a classic marker for pancreatic cancer).

Treat affected patients with NSAIDs and warm compresses.

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33
Q

How is DVT treated and for how long?

A

IV heparin or subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin initially, followed by crossover to PO warfarin.

Patients should be maintained on warfarin for at least 3 to 6 months, possibly for life if more than one episode of clotting occurs.

34
Q

What is the best way to prevent DVT in patients undergoing surgery?

A

Low risk patients: early ambulation

Moderate risk patients: LMWH, low-dose unfractionated heparin, or fondaparinux

High-risk patients LMWH, fondaparinux, or an oral vitamin K antagonist.

Pneumatic compression stockings should be used if the patient is at moderate risk or higher and is at high risk for bleeding.

35
Q

In what clinical settings does PE occur? Describe the symptoms and signs.

A

PE commonly follows DVT, delivery (amniotic fluid embolus), or fractures (fat emboli).

Classically, the patient recently went on a long car ride, took a long airplane flight, or has been immobilized.

Symptoms include tachypnea, dyspnea, chest pain, hemoptysis (if a lung infarct has occurred), hypotension, syncope, or death in severe cases. In rare instances, the CXR shows a wedge-shaped defect because of pulmonary infarct.

36
Q

True or false: DVT can lead to a stroke.

A

False

DVTs that embolize cause PEs, not arterial emboli; exception is the patient with a right-to-left shunt, such as a patent foramen ovale, atrial or ventricular septal defect, or pulmonary arteriovenous fistula. In such a patient, a venous clot may embolize and cross over to the left side of the circulation, causing an arterial infarct.

37
Q

How is PE diagnosed?

A

CT pulmonary angiogram or V/Q scan

if the test is (+), then treatment for PE is initiated

if the test is indeterminate, a conventional pulmonary angiogram (gold standard) is used to confirm the diagnosis.

if the test is (-), no treatment is necessary because it is highly unlikely that the patient has a significant PE

38
Q

How is PE treated?

What if the patient has recurrent clots or contraindications to the standard treatment?

What if the patient has a massive PE?

A

LMWH or IV unfractionated heparin

followed by

switched to PO warfarin, which must be taken for at least 3 to 6 months

if patient has contraindications -> IVC filter (e.g., Greenfield filter)

if massive PE -> embolectomy (surgical or catheter) or thrombolysis (t-PA)

39
Q

What is the most important side effect of heparin?

A

HIT (Type II) - immune-mediated disorder where antibodies are formed against the heparin-platelet factor 4 complex -> platelet count falls more than 50%, typically 5 to 10 days after heparin therapy is initiated; can lead to both arterial and venous thrombosis.

40
Q

How are the effects of aspirin, heparin, and warfarin monitored?

A

aspirin: bleeding time (measure of platelet function)
heparin: PTT (internal pathway)
warfarin: PT (external pathway)

41
Q

How are the effects of low-molecular-weight heparin monitored?

A

factor X assay (anti-Xa)

does not affect PT, PTT or bleeding time

42
Q

In an emergency, how can you reverse the effects of heparin, warfarin, and aspirin?

A

heparin - protamine sulfate

warfarin - fresh frozen plasma, vitamin K

aspirin - platelet transfusions

43
Q

How does hemophilia A affect coagulation tests?

What other factors could be assessed to aid in the diagnsois?

A

prolongs PTT

Low levels of factor VIII; normal PT and bleeding time

X-linked

44
Q

How does hemophilia B affect coagulation tests?

What other factors could be assessed to aid in the diagnsois?

A

prolongs PTT

Low levels of factor IX; normal PT and bleeding time

X-linked

45
Q

How does vWF deficiency affect coagulation tests?

What other factors could be assessed to aid in the diagnsois?

A

Prolongs bleeding time and PTT

Normal or low levels of factor VIII; normal PT

Autosomal Dominant

46
Q

How does DIC affect coagulation tests?

What other factors could be assessed to aid in the diagnsois?

A

Prolongs PT, PTT, and bleeding time

(+)D-dimer or FDPs; schistocytes/fragmented cells on peripheral smear

postpartum, infection, malignancy

47
Q

How does liver disease affect coagulation tests?

What other factors could be assessed to aid in the diagnsois?

A

Prolongs PT, normal or prolonged PTT

all factors but factor VIII are low

stigmata of liver disease; no correction with vitamin K

48
Q

How does vitamin K deficiency affect coagulation tests?

What other factors could be assessed to aid in the diagnsois?

A

Prolongs PT, PTT (silghtly)

low levels of factors II, VII, IX, and X, proteins C and S

look for a neonate who did not receive prophylactic vitamin K; malabsorption, alcoholism, or prolonged antibiotic use (which kills vitamin K–producing bowel flora)

49
Q

What are the general symptoms and signs of CHF?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Ventricular hypertrophy on ECG
  • Dyspnea
  • S3 or S4 on cardiac examination
  • Cardiomegaly on CXR
  • Specific left- and right-sided findings
    • LV failure: Orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, pulmonary congestion (rales), Kerley B lines on CXR, pulmonary vascular congestion and edema, bilateral pleural effusions.
    • RV failure: Peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, ascites, underlying lung disease (cor pulmonale)
    • Both ventricles are commonly affected, so a mixed pattern is commonly seen.
50
Q

How is chronic CHF treated?

A
  • sodium restriction
  • ACE inhibitors (first line agents; reduce mortality rate)
  • ß blockers (counterintuitive but proven to work)
  • diuretics (furosemide, spironolactone, metolazone)
  • digoxin (not used in diastolic dysfunction; usually reserved for moderate-to- severe CHF with low ejection fraction or systolic dysfunction)
  • vasodilators (arterial and venous).
51
Q

How is acute CHF treated?

A
  • oxygen
  • diuretics
  • positive inotropes
    • digoxin may be used if the patient is stable
    • IV sympathomimetics (dobutamine, dopamine, amrinone)
52
Q

What factors precipitate exacerbations in previously stable patients with CHF?

A

LOTS!

  • noncompliance with diet or medications (most common)
  • MI
  • severe HTN
  • arrhythmias
  • infections
  • fever
  • PE
  • anemia
  • thyrotoxicosis
  • myocarditis
53
Q

Define cor pulmonale.

With what clinical scenarios is it associated?

What are the signs and symptoms?

A

Cor pulmonale - RV enlargement, hypertrophy, and failure due to primary lung disease.

Etiologies: COPD, PE, idiopathic pulmonary HTN, sleep apnea

  • pulmonary HTN treatment: prostacyclin (parenteral epoprostenol), antiendothelin (bosentan), phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors, and calcium channel blockers while awaiting heart-lung transplantation.

Signs & Symptoms

  • tachypnea
  • cyanosis
  • clubbing
  • parasternal heave
  • loud P2
  • R-sided S4
54
Q

What causes restrictive cardiomyopathy? How is it different from constrictive pericarditis? What features are common to both?

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

  • ventricular dysfunction due to amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, hemochromatosis, or myocardial fibroelastosis
  • ventricular biopsy = abnormal

Constrictive pericarditis

  • calcification of the pericardium
  • ventricular biopsy = normal
  • sx: pericardial knock

Both

  • S4 (stiff ventricles)
  • signs of R heart failure (jugular venous distention and peripheral edema)
  • both can cause a “restrictive”-type cardiac physiology, but the treatments are different.
55
Q

What is the most common kind of cardiomyopathy and what are 3 common causes?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

commonly caused by chronic CAD/ischemia, alcohol, myocarditis, and doxorubicin

56
Q

Which cardiomyopathy is likely in a young person who passes out/dies while exercising or playing sports and has a family hx of sudden death?

What are the physical findings of this?

What are the standard treatments?

What should be avoided in these patients?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy - autosomal dominant, idiopathic condition causes an asymmetric ventricular hypertrophy that reduces cardiac output (diastolic dysfunction).

Physical findings: systolic ejection murmur along the left sternal border that increases with standing or with a Valsalva maneuver (these maneuvers decrease the volume of blood in the left ventricle).

Treatment: beta blockers or disopyramide (to allow the ventricle more time to fill).

Avoid: Competitive sports, positive inotropes (e.g., digoxin), diuretics, and vasodilators because they worsen the condition.

57
Q

How is a-fib treated if it’s acute in onset? chronic? symptomatic?

A

If symptomatic: first slow the ventricular rate with ß blockers, Ca channel blockers, or digoxin

if acute (onset < 24 hr): cardiovert with amiodarone, procainamide, or DC cardioversion.

If chronic: first anticoagulate, then cardiovert

if this approach fails or atrial fibrillation recurs, leave the patient on rate control medications (beta blocker, calcium channel blocker, or digoxin) and warfarin.

58
Q

How is a-flutter treated?

A

Try to stop the arrhythmia with vagal maneuvers (e.g., carotid massage) but otherwise treat as a-fib

  • If symptomatic: first slow the ventricular rate with ß blockers, Ca channel blockers, or digoxin
  • if acute (onset < 24 hr): cardiovert with amiodarone, procainamide, or DC cardioversion.
  • If chronic: first anticoagulate, then cardiovert
  • if this approach fails or if it recurs, leave the patient on rate control medications (beta blocker, calcium channel blocker, or digoxin) and warfarin.
59
Q

How is first-degree heart block treated?

What should you avoid?

A

No treatment

Avoid ß blockers and Ca channel blockers, both of which slow conduction.

60
Q

How is 2nd degree Mobitz I heart block treated?

A

use pacemaker or atropine only in symptomatic patients

61
Q

How is 2nd degree Mobitz II heart block treated?

A

pacemaker in all patients

62
Q

How is 3rd degree heart block treated?

A

pacemaker

63
Q

How is WPW syndrome treated?

What should you avoid?

A

procainamide or quinidine

avoid digoxin and verapamil.

64
Q

How is ventricular tachycardia treated?

A

If pulseless: immediate defibrillation followed by epinephrine, vasopressin, amiodarone, or lidocaine.

If a pulse is present: amiodarone and synchronized cardioversion.

65
Q

How is ventricular fib treated?

A

Immediate defibrillation followed by epinephrine, vasopressin, amiodarone, or lidocaine.

66
Q

How are PVC’s treated?

A

Usually not treated

If severe and symptomatic, consider beta blockers or amiodarone.

67
Q

How is sinus bradycardia treated?

What should you avoid in these patients?

A

Usually not treated; use atropine or pacing if severe and symptomatic (e.g., after heart attack).

Avoid ß blockers, Ca channel blockers, and other conduction-slowing medications.

68
Q

How is sinus tachycardia treated?

A

Usually none; correct the underlying cause. Use beta blocker or calcium channel blocker if symptomatic.

69
Q

What endocrine disease is suggested when a patient has sinus tachycardia or atrial fibrillation?

A

Hyperthyroidism. Check the level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) as a screening test.

70
Q

Which patients with atrial fibrillation should receive anticoagulation?

A

CHADS2 score

  • A score of 0 is low risk for stroke, so aspirin can be used.
  • A score of 1 is moderate risk, so aspirin or warfarin can be used.
  • A score of 2 or greater is moderate or high risk, so warfarin should be used unless contraindicated (e.g., significant fall risk).
71
Q

What causes Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?

What are the classic symptoms and physical findings?

Treatment?

A

What it is: transient arrhythmia via the accessory pathway

ECG: delta wave.

Classic presentation: a child becomes dizzy, dyspneic, or passes out after playing, then recovers and has no other symptoms.

Treatment: radiofrequency catheter ablation of the pathway

72
Q

What are the symptoms and treatment of patent ductus arteriosus?

What is it associated with?

What is the treatment?

A

Constant, machine-like murmur in upper left sternal border; dyspnea and possible CHF.

Treatment: indomethacin or surgery if indomethacin fails; keep open with prostaglandin E1.

Associated with congenital rubella and high altitudes.

73
Q

What are the symptoms and physical findings of ventricular septal defect?

What is the treatment?

What is it associated with?

A

holosystolic murmur next to the sternum

Treatment: most resolve their own

Associated with fetal alcohol, TORCH, or Down syndrome

74
Q

What are the symptoms and physical findings of atrial septal defect?

What is the treatment?

A

Often asymptomatic until adulthood.

Characterized by fixed, split S2 and palpitations.

Treatment: Most defects do not require correction (unless very large).

75
Q

What are the symptoms and physical findings of tetralogy of fallot?

A

Characterized by 4 anomalies (PROVe):

  • pulmonary stenosis
  • RVH
  • overriding aorta
  • VSD

Look for “tet” spells (squatting after exertion).

76
Q

What are the symptoms and physical findings of coarctation of aorta?

What is it associated with?

A

systolic murmur heard over mid-upper back; rib notching on CXR

upper extremity HTN; radiofemoral delay (appreciable delay in femoral pulse when compared to radial pulse)

associated with Turner syndrome.

77
Q

Name the noncyanotic congenital heart defects.

What kind of shunt are these?

A

Noncyanotic heart diseases result in left-to-right shunts in which O2 blood from the lungs is shunted back into the pulmonary circulation, resulting in a “pink baby.”

These noncyanotic heart conditions can be remembered by the three Ds: VSD, ASD, and PDA.

78
Q

Name the cyanotic congenital heart defects.

What kind of shunt are these?

A

Cyanotic heart disease results in a right-to-left shunt in which deoxygenated blood is shunted into the systemic circulation, resulting in a “blue baby.”

These cyanotic heart conditions can be remembered by the mnemonic 12345 and aeiou:

  • TrUncus arteriosus; there is 1 common vessel leaving the ventricles.
  • TrAnsposition of the great vessels; 2 great vessels (aorta and pulmonary artery) are transposed
  • TrIcuspid atresia; 3 for tricuspid
  • TEtralogy of Fallot; 4 for tetralogy
  • TOtal anomalous pulmonary venous return; 5 words in TAPVR
79
Q

What is important to remember about tachycardia and tachypnea in children?

A

Heart rates > 100 bpm may be normal in a child, as may respiratory rates > 20 respirations per minute.

80
Q

In the fetal circulation, where is the highest and lowest oxygen content?

A

umbilical vein: highest O2 content (the blood coming from the mother)

umbilical arteries: lowest O2 content

Remember that oxygen content is higher in blood going to the upper extremities than in blood going to the lower extremities.

81
Q

What changes occur in circulation as an infant goes from intrauterine to extrauterine life?

A

The first breaths inflate the lungs and cause decreased pulmonary vascular resistance, which increases blood flow to the pulmonary arteries.

This and the clamping of the cord increase left-sided heart pressures, causing functional closure of the foramen ovale.

Increased oxygen concentration shuts off prostaglandin production in the ductus arteriosus, causing gradual closure.