Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are three reversible precipitants of complete heart block?

Non reversible

A

reversible
* hyperkalaemia
* MI
* drugs - calcium channel blockers/beta blockers

Non
* * cardiac fibrosis
* * infiltratve disease

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2
Q

how do you manage complete heart block

A

seek and treat precipitant
medical - adrenaline 25-50mcg bolus, isoprenaline infusion 0.1-1mcg/kg/min
Surgical - transcutaneous pacing with analgesia/sedation
disposition - cardiology for pacemaker

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3
Q

What’s the criteria for Brugada

A
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4
Q

What clinic features must be present for Brugada

A
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5
Q

List 10 high risk features of chest pain

A

Prolonged or repetitive pain
Raised biomarkers
ECG changes – ST depression >0.5mm / TWI >2mm
transient ST elevation
VT
Shock
Syncope
DM
Renal failure
PCI 6/12 or CABG ever
EF <40%

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6
Q

What clinical features (5) make VT more likely than SVT

A
  • Age over 35
  • IHD
  • Structural heart disease
  • Previous MI
  • CCF
  • FH of sudden cardiac dearh
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7
Q

What old ECG make SVT with aberrance more likely than VT

A
  • previous ECGs show bundle branch with identical morphology to
  • previous ECGs show WPW (short PR, delta wave, narros QRS)
  • previous tachyarrhtymias terminated with vagal or adenosine
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8
Q

What are the 5 ECG features suggesting VT over SVT

A
  • A - Axis - northwest axis
  • B - Broad complexes over 200ms
  • C - Concordance - positive/negative concordance in leads v1 - v6
  • D - Dissociation - is there any AV dissocation - suggestive of VT
    1. * P and QRS different rates
    2. Capture beats or fusion beats
    3. RSR with tall left rabbit ear
  • E- Early part of QRS is slow - in RBBB right is taller

https://litfl.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/08/ECG-VT-Taller-left-rabbit-ear.jpg

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9
Q

describe main ECG features
What is it?

A

bradycadia
av dissociation
peaked t waves
broad complex escape

complete heart block with ventricular escape

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10
Q

In an inferior STEMI what lead placement suggest right ventricular infarct

A
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11
Q

ECG in a kid - describe it
What is it?
What is the management>

A

tachy - say rate
narrow complex
no p waves
normal R R

Supraventricular tachycardia

Management
Simple - ice park on face
Adenosine 100/200/300mcg/kg
DC cardiversion under sedation - 1 then 2 j/kg

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12
Q

What measures can be used to reduce time to PCI?

A

ambulance pre notification
immediate ECG on arrival for all those with chest pain
immediate senior doctor review
minimise transfers eg stay on trolley
on number to activate lab
transfer packs

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13
Q

chest pain
1) whats the diagnosis with supportive ECG findings
2) What is the most important complication

A

1) inferior lateral STEMI

ST elevation in 2,3 AVF
reciprical changes 1 and avl
lateral st depression
q wave in 3

2) monomophic VT

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14
Q

Treament for MI

A

Analgesia - titrated opiates
aspirin 300mg
clopidogrel (300) or ticagrelor (180mg)
Clexane
cardio input for PCI
only oxygen if sats under 90 - aim for 94-98

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15
Q

What is the pharmacological treatment for monomorphic VT?

A

Amioderone 5mg/kg
Lidocaine 1-2mg/kg
soltalol 1mg/kg

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16
Q

describe and interpret ECG
What advice would you give to ambos on the phone

A
  • hyperacute T waves anterolateral (de winters)
  • upsloping ST v3-v6
  • ST elevation 1 and avl
  • ST depression 3 and avf

Proximal LAD stenosis

Advice
give stemi meds
analgesia
sats 92-96
inform cath lab

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17
Q

in STEMI what fibrinolytics can be used?

A

Retaplase 10 units IV now and in 30 mins
Alteplase:
>65kg - 15mg IV then 50mg over 30 mins then 35mg over an hour
<65 15mg IV then 0.75mg/kg over 30 mins and 0.5mh/kg over an hour

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18
Q

what are the absolute/relative contraindicatins to fibronolytics in MI

A

Absolute
* any prior ICH
* ischaemic stroke in last 3 months
* intercranial malignancy
* suspected aortic dissection
* AV malformation
* Active bleeding
* prior streptokinase in last 6 month (if giving this)

Relative
* poorly controlled severe hypertension
* BP over 180 at presentation
* ischamic stoke over 3 months
* pregnancy
* active peptic ulcer
* surgery within last 3 weeks

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19
Q

what consitutes a failure of MI thrombolysis suggesting need for rescue PCI

A

persistant pain
failure to reduce ST elevation by 50-75% 90 mins post therapy

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20
Q

what does this show?

A

junctional rhythm - pacing come from AV node or bundle of his
no p waves or buried in QRS

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21
Q

Describe and interpret

A

inferior ST elevation
borderline upright T waves V1
St depression v2
Q waves

Inferior STEMI

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22
Q

What initial investigations may you do with ischamic ECG and why?

A

Troponins - marker of cardiac cell distress
ECHO - to show all abnormalities
CXR - any signs of failure
posterior leads ecg - any posterior signs

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23
Q

What are the clinical findings of APO?

A

bilateral crackles
widespread wheeze
raised JVP
peripheral oedema
SOB
hypoxia
tachycardia

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24
Q

What can precipitate APO?

A

hypertension
cardiac ischaemia
renal failure
stress - takutsobos
medicine non compliance
non compliance fluid restriction
inhaltion injury
drowning injury
pancreatitis
acute valve dysfunction
acure arrythmia

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25
Q

What are the treamtents and end points for APO?

A

**GTN infusion **5-100mcg/min - 30% reduction in htn to reduce preload. decrease WOB and hypoxia
**CPAP **Peep 5 - decrease WOB and hypoxia
Frusemide - reduce BP and WOB

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26
Q

how does CPAP work in APO

A

reduced pre load by limited SVC/IVC flow to right side of heart
improves gas exchange in alveolar

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27
Q

interpret and describe

A

Rapid Af with accessory pathway, likely WPW

charecteristics:
irregularly, irregular broad complex
tachycardia
delta waves V3

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28
Q

what is this

A

delta wave - WPW

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29
Q

diagnosis
Three supporting features

A

VT

broad complex tachycardia at 180
capture beats

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30
Q

What can cause VT?

A
  1. cardiac ischaemia
  2. electrolytes - hypomag/kalaemia
  3. drugs - tricyclics
  4. cardiomyopathes
  5. sarcoid/amyloid
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31
Q

What are the mangement steps for VT with signs of failure?

A
  1. sedate - 25mcg fent
  2. pads and shock 150-200j
  3. correct underlying cause
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32
Q

diagnosis and describe abnormality

A

rhythm irregularly irregular = AF
variable ventricular rate approx 200-250
LAD
2 types of QRS
delta waves V4

AF with accesory pathway

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33
Q

what is the main abnormality?

A

atrial flutter with 2:1 block, no ischamia

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34
Q

With AF/Flutter, what factors favour rate control v rhythm control?

A

Rate
* Over 65
* asymptomatic
* longstanding AF
* Left atrial enlargment

Rhythm
* young
* severe symptoms
* short duration
* HF due to AF
* mild or moderate left atrial enlargement

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35
Q

what factors must you consider for long term anticoagulation for AF?

A

HASBLED score

Hypertension
abnormal liver or renal function
Stroke hx
bleeding hx
Labile INR
over 65
drugs - aspirin/steroids

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36
Q

diagnosis
Why?

A

monomorphic VT
broad complex tachycardia
NW axis
jeffersons notch

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37
Q

What is a DDD pacemaker and how does it function?

A

Dual chamber pacemaker

Dual chamber sensing
Dual chamber pacing
dual response to sensing that will inhbiit or trigger pacing depending on underlying rhythm

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38
Q

Describe ECG

A
  • broad complex tachycardia approx 120 with pacing spike before every complex
  • absence of p wave suggesting the pacemaker is not triggerd by atrial sensing
  • like of atrial spike suggestng pacemaker does not trigger atrium
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39
Q

differntials for someone with a pacemker and tachycardia and lightheadedness.

Management?

A
  1. pacemaker mediated tachycardia - reentry tachycardia created by pacemaker
  2. sensor induced tachycardia - misfire eg from loud noises or vibrations
  3. lead displacement dystrhymia

Management:
1. urgent pacemaker interrogation
2. magnet overpacemaker to inhibit sensing and stop pacemaker mediated tachy
3. vagal/adenosine or verapamil can inhibit PMT
4. cxr for lead placement
5. check electrolytes

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40
Q

what are the key findings of ECG relevant to her presentation?

Diagnosis?

mangement?

A

findings:
paced rhythm at 130
pacing spikes after qrs
retrograde p in 1, v1, v5,v6

Diagnosis likely pacemaker mediated tachycardia

Management
cardiac montoring and defib pads
titraite analgesa 25mcg fent
fluid for MAP over 65/70
sats over 94
magnet
chat to cardio

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41
Q

how does a magnet aid in pacemaker dysfunction?

A

converts to asynchronous pacing which turns off sensing of the pacemaker and allows pacing of atrium and ventricles asynchronously

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42
Q

what are the criteria for cardioversion in AF?

A
  • haemodynamic instability
  • patient choice
  • onset within 48 hours
  • lack of known structural heart disease
  • non chronic AF
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43
Q

What are the choices for chemical cardioversion in AF, plus dose and contraindications

A

**Flecanide **2mg/kg - LV dysfinction or BBB
Amioderone 300mg - iodine allergy, thyroid dysfunction, hypotension
**Soltalol **40-80mg - asthma, hypotension

44
Q

What are the IV rate control drugs for AF and dose?

Oral

A

IV:
* metoprolol 2mg aliquots
* verapamil 2.5-5mg aliqots
* digoxin 500mcg
* magnesium 10mmol over one hour

Oral
metoprolol 25-50mg

45
Q

What score can you use from thrombus risk in af?

A

CHADVAS

46
Q

what are the causes of fast af?

A

coronary artery disease
holiday heart
COPD
mitral valve disease
hyperthyroid
PE
pericarditis
hypomag/kalaemia
hypertension

47
Q

what are some differentials for ST elevation

A

Ischamia
brugada
pericarditis
BER
PE
SAH
athletes
pectus excavatum

48
Q

what is the most significant finding?

A

ST elevation of 2mm followed by negative T wave in V1/V2 or coved ST in V1/V2

49
Q

What ECG features could suggest a cardiac cause of syncope?

A
  • Prolonged QT - torsades
  • Short PR and delta - WPW
  • epsilon waves - arrythmogenic right ventricle
  • deep Q or T wave inversion - HOCM
  • RSR and St elevation in v1/v2- Brugada
  • ECG features of hypo or hyperkalaemia
50
Q

causes and management of non arrythomogenic cardiogenic shock

A
51
Q

Diagnosis and supportive findings

A

complete heart block

ECG changes
* broad complex qrs
* av dissocation
* different atrial and ventricular rates

52
Q

what is the sequential treatment of complete heart block?

A

Aim for BP >90 and HR>50

  1. Atropine 1mg aliquots x 3
  2. Elecrical pacing pace with 1mg aliquote midaz
  3. chemical pacing - ispoprenaline (0.5-2mcg a min and titrate up) or adrenaline infusion
  4. collect reversible causes
  5. bolus fluid
53
Q

what does this ecg suggest and why?

A

triple vessel disease/proximal LAD stenosis

Why
ST elevation AVR and multi lead ST depression - this means subendocardial ischaemia

54
Q

With a NSTEMI in a rural hospital what are the mangement priorities?

A
  • Initial stabilisation including pain control
  • Medication for Non STEACS – aspirin, clopidogrel,heparin.
  • iExclusion of contraindications to fibrinolysis
  • Close monitoring and serial ECGs to avoid missing a STEMI
  • Urgent transfer out to interventional cardiology
55
Q

What is this and why?

A

LBBB meeting scarbossa therefore STEMI equivalent

Why:
LBBB with broad QRS and LAD
hyperacute T waves V2-V4
concordant ST elevation in 1 and avl
Discordant ST elevation V2/V3

56
Q

What are the possible life threatening complications of STEMI equivalents

A
  1. arthymias - VT/VT, brady heart blocks
  2. APO
  3. cardiogenic shock and hypotension affectinve end organ perfusion
57
Q

What are the STEMI mimics?

A

ELEVATION
Electrolytes - hyperK
LBBB
Early repolarization
Ventricular hypertrophy (Left)
Aneurysm (ventricular)
Thailand - brugada
Inflammation
Osborne waves in hypothermia
Non ischamic vasospasm

58
Q

In NSTEMI/STEMI what factors affect a patients disposition?

A
  • is there a cath lab within 90 minutes of door time
  • contraindications to thrombolysis
  • patient choice
  • shock - cath only good choice
  • local options
  • allergies
59
Q

non reproducible chest pain in young person:
1. Diagnosis
2. why
3. What further investigations are needed?

A

Acute pericarditis

Why:
PR depression and diffuse ST elevation no adherant to territory

Investigations
Trop
Echo
MRI

60
Q

what are the causes of acute pericarditis plus example and relevant investigation

A

**Infectious **- viral/bacterial/TB - none if viral, cultures if febrile

Inflammatory - SLE/RA - if other sx of FH - autoimmune screen

**Metabolic **- uremic - renal function

**malignant **- lung ca - cxr

vasculitis
radiation damage

61
Q

what is the sgarbossa criteria for STEMI equivalent

A
  • concordant st elevation >1mm in leads with positive QRS
  • concordant st depression >1mm in v1-v3
  • excessively discordant st elevation in leads with negative qrs (>5mm)
62
Q

What are the cardiac and non cardiac causes of a raised troponin?

A

Cardiac:
* ACS
* Aortic dissection
* cardiac contusion
* cardiomyopathy
* CCF

Non cardiac:
* acute SAH
* renal failure
* sepsis
* hypoxia

63
Q

what is this?
what drugs can cause it?

A

torsades de points

Drugs:
* tricyclics
* organophosphates
* antihistamines
* antifungals
* erythromycin
* class 1 (Na - lidocaine) and class 3 (K - amioderonne) anti arrthtymics

64
Q

what are the indications for initiating pacing in complete heart block?

A

chest pain
confusion
hypotension

any end organ signs

65
Q

what drugs can be used for chemical pacing in heart block

A

Isoprenaline
Adrenaline
Dopamine
Dobutmaine

66
Q

Relevant findings

What can cause this?

A

extreme brady then polymorphic VT
R on T causing TDP
ventricular ectopics

Causes:
hypok/mag
drugs causing QT prolongation
cardiac ischaemia

67
Q

what is the treatment for torsades?

A

10mmol IV mg over 2 mins
correct electrolytes eg K over 3.5 (10-20mmol/hr)
Overdrive pacing 90-120
isoprenaline infusion 0.05/1mcg/kg/min

68
Q

list 4 abnormalities

A

bradycardia at 45
sinus arrhtymia
LAD
RBBB
bifascicular
1st degree block

69
Q

What are some reversible causes of bradycardia?

A
  • hypokalaemia
  • drugs eg beta blockers, dig, clonidine
  • ischami
  • myocarditis
  • hypothyroidism
70
Q

what are Dukes criteria for endocarditis?

A

Major
* 2 positive blood cultures over 12 hours apart
* on echo - new regurg, mobile cardiac mass, dehiscence of prosthetic valve
* periannular abscess

Minor
* temp >38
* IVDU/congenital heart disease
* vascular phenomena
* immunological phenomena

71
Q

What are the most common causative agents for bacterial endocarditis in IVDU?

Treatment?

A

staph aureus, strep viridans
candida

Treatment:
Ceftriaxone, vanc, gent

71
Q

define hypertensive emergency

A

systolic over 180 or diastolic over 110 with end organ damage

72
Q

list organ, sign and investigation of hypertensive end organ damage

A
73
Q

list two classes of medictions and doses for hypertensive emergency

A
74
Q

differentials for chest pain and SOB

A

PE
pneumonia
pericardial effusion
pneumothorax
myocardial ischamia
anxiety

75
Q

list common causes of pericardial effusion

A

infections eg HIV, viral, bacterial
neoplastic
renal failure
CCT
liver failure
lupus
mxoedema
aortic dissectiomn
rheumatoid

76
Q

what are the ECG features of cardiac tamponade?

A
  • electrical alternans
  • low voltage
  • tachy
77
Q

what are the echo features of cardiac tampanade?

A
  • pericardial effusion
  • late diastolic collapse of RV free wall
  • early disatolic collase of RA free wall
  • dilated IVC with no respiratory collapse
  • diastolic flow reversal in hepatic veins
  • abnormal septal motion
78
Q

what is this view?

A

apical four chamber

79
Q
A
80
Q

What ECG features make BER more likely than perciarditis?

A
  1. ST elevation limited to precordial leads
  2. absence of PR depression
  3. Prominent T waves
  4. no changes over time
81
Q

what investigations can detect pericardial effusion?

A

ECG - low voltage
CXR - globular heart
echo - fluid as black stripe

82
Q

What are the CXR features of APO

A
83
Q

differentials of a systomic murmur

A
  • AS
  • PS
  • MR
  • TR
  • ASD
  • VSD
  • HOCM
84
Q

what are the physical signs of severe AS?

A

slow rising pulse
S4
SOB
LVH - displace apex
LVF

85
Q

why are nitrates contraindicated in AS

A

affects pre load which is already reduced in AS

86
Q

main findings

A

sinus
PR prolongation
QT prolongation
no ischamiea
bradycardia

87
Q

what features of a history suggest syncope over seizure

A

no post ictal
no tongue biting/incontinence
pre syncopal
no neuro sx
no seizure like movements

88
Q
A
89
Q

collapse:
describe abnormalities and their significance

A

RBBB/LAD - bifascicular block

significant because complete heart block may have occured

90
Q

What can cause bifascicular block?

A

IHD
CCF
beta blockade
amyloid
sarcoid
RA
inflammatory

91
Q

what investigations does bifascicular block need?

A

Address ?HF ?Ischamia ?need to pacemaker

Echo and holter

92
Q

what are the components of the San Francisco Syncope rule?

A

CHESS
* CCF
* Haematocrit under 30%
* Abnormal ECG
* SOB
* SBP below 90

low risk if none of these are met

93
Q

collapse
diagnosis

What are the key questions in a history?

A

Long QT

History
* any other syncope?
* syncope in stressful or exertional event
* palps or CP
* any FH sudden death
* relative with long QT?
* drugs eg TCA soltalol, abx, antohistamies

94
Q

list 5 differentials

A

Cardogenic shock causes:
ACS
arrhyhtmia eg new AF
pericardial tamponade
MV prolapse
LV rupture

non cardiogenic
PE
severe anaemia - GI bleed
Sepsis

95
Q

justify some bedside investigations

doesnt get better and think synptons due to CAD. Stepwise approach to management

endpoints for resus

A

repeat ecg - dynamic changes
VBG - shock (lactate) or anaemia
CXR - URTI/pneumothorax
US - LV rupture, tampanade, MV prolapse

management
1. 5ml/kg small boluses
2. ionotropes - adrenanaline 0.04mcg/kg
3. Arrange PCI

end points
BP over 100
urine output over 0.5ml/kg/hr
resolution of lactate/Hb etc

96
Q

what can account for hypotension post cardioversion and rhythm return?

A

effect of sedation
sepsis
stunned myocardium

97
Q

What are the differentials for broad complex tachy

A

VT
SVT with aberrancy
SVT with WPW

98
Q
A
99
Q

What are the Jones criteria for rheumatic fever?

A

need two major plus one Major or two minor

Major
* Carditis
* Arthritis
* Chroea
* Erythema marginatum
* subcutaneous nodules

Minor
* Fever over 38.5
* raised ESR or CRP
* Prolonged PR

100
Q

What are the management priorities in hypertensive emergency?

A
  1. analgesia and dose
  2. antiemetic and dose
  3. oxygen
  4. immediate reduction of BP (MAP by 25 or diastolic to 110) over first hour
  5. gradual decrease over next 4-6 hours
101
Q

list three causes of neurally mediated syncope

A
  1. vasovagal
  2. situational eg micturition or cough
  3. carotid sinus syncope
102
Q

list three causes of orthostatic hypotension

A
  1. any cause of volume depletion
  2. drug related - any vasodilator
  3. autonomic eg DM
103
Q

what ECG findings may suggest arrythmogenic syncope in a currently asymptomatic patient?

A
  • Bifascicular block
  • Pre-excitation (delta waves)
  • Prolonged or short QT
  • Brugada pattern – RBBB with ST elevation V1-3
  • Findings of ARVC – epsilon waves, negative T waves right precordial leads
104
Q

what are the main complications associated with HOCM?

A
  1. sudden death
  2. ventricualr arrhytmia
  3. passing to offspring
  4. abnormal coronary arteries and ischaemia
105
Q

what are the indications for emergent cath lab in OOHCA

A

STEMI preceeding arrest
STEMI on post ROSC ecg
new LBBB post ROSC ecg