Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PlusM > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

Acute MI
Subendocardial (partial) infarct, 20-40 min

A

NON-STEMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acute MI
Transmural (whole wall thickness(, 3-6 hours

A

STEMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

relieved by rest or medications

A

Stable Angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

doesn’t respond to rest/medications

A

Unstable Angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

irreversible death of heart tissue

A

Acute MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

is chest pain due to ischaemia but still the heart tissue is alive

A

Angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Presentation of Acute MI

A

central or epigastric chest pain radiating to the arms, shoulders, neck or jaw

Pain is substernal pressure, squeezing, aching =, burning or even sharp pain

Radiation to the left arm or neck is common

Chest pain is associated with diaphoresis, nausea, vomiting, dyspnea, fatigue and or palpitations

Could be painless in DM (autonomnic Neuropathy) - SILENT MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the investigation for Acute MI

A

Troponin
increase within 3-12 hrs peaks at 24-48 hrs and return to baseline 5-14 days

CKMB
return to baseline after 48-72 hrs, specificity and sensitivity are not as high - useful to detect reinfarction (10%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

cardiac enzymes aren’t raised in

A

Unstable Angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the management of Acute attack

A

MONA

Morphine IV (to relieve the pain)

Oxygen (if there is hypoxia, pulmonary edema or continuing myocardial ischemia), if O2 saturation is <94%

Nitrates (GTN sublingual / IV) to treat angina

Aspirin 300 mg
- should be given before arrival to the hospital
- Clopidogrel should also be given

Heparin or LMWH should also be considered. (ENOXAPRIN SODIUM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the management of Pulmonary Edema

A

MONA but replace A with Fureosemide
MONF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the complications of MI?

A

Ventricular Aneurysm
Dresslers Sydnrome
LBBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

4-6 wks post MI

Persistent ST elevation with left ventricular failure

In CXR, there is cardiomegaly with an abnormal bulge at the left heart border.

Thrombus formation

ECHO - Paradoxical movement of the wall

A

Ventricular Aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

second autoimmune form of pericarditis that occur post MI

1 week several months post MI

A

Dressler’s Syndromeq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the features of Dressler’s Syndrome

A

fever’

pleuritic pain

pericardial and pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

WILLIAM
LBBB

A

QRS in V1 - Looks like W
QRS in V6 - Looks like M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

wide QRS + negative V1

A

LBBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

wide QRS + positive V1

A

RBBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MarroW
RBBB

A

V1- looks like M
V6 - looks like M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

0-24 hrs

A

Arrhythmias
Cardiogenic Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

1-3 days

A

Pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

3-14 days

A

Myocardial Rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

after 2 weeks

A

Heart Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the first line of management of CHF

A

ACE Inhibitor and Beta Blocker
Eg Carvedilol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Angina in CHF, treatment?

A

Beta Blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

DM or signs of fluid overload, ejection fraction <40% in CHF

A

ACE Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the second line of management in CHF?

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Heart Failure + Atrial Fibrillation

A

Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Management of STEMI
if patient presents with symptoms onset within 12 hours and PCI can be done within 120 minutes then withhold fibrinolysis

A

Perform PCI
Percutaneous Coronary Intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Management of STEMI
If PCI is not available and cannot be delivered within 120 minutes

A

Thrombolysis (alteplase or Streptokinase) - can only be done within 12 hours of symptom onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Post myocardial infarction management / management of NSTEMI or unstable angina

A

Dual antiplatelet therapy: Aspirin + Clopidogrel (Pavix)

Beta blockers

ACE inhibitor

Statin (atrovastatin 80mg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Chest pain is described as sharp, stabbing, central chest pain.

Radiates to the shoulders and upper arm.

Chest pain may be pleuritic and is often relieved by sitting forwards

Worsened by inspiration, lying flat, cough, swallowing or movement of the trunk.

pericardial friction rub

nonproductive cough and dyspnea

A

Acute Pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Viral cause of AP

A

Cocksakie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Bacterial cause of AP

A

Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Causes fibrinous pericarditis

A

Uremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

2nd form of pericarditis on top of cardiac injury, post MI

A

Dressler’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ECG findinjgs for AP

A

Saddle shaped ST elevation
PR segment depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

any cause of pericarditis but especially trauma

A

Cardiac Tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the Beck’s triad for Cardiac Tamponade?

A

Muffled heart sounds
Distended neck veins
Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Dyspnea and raised JVP

A

Pericardial Effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

CXR shows enlarged globular heart

ECG shows low-voltage QRS Complexes and alternating

A

Pericardial Effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is diagnostic tool for the Cardiac Tamponade?

A

ECHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the treatment for Acute Pericarditis?

A

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the management for Cardiac Tamponade?

A

Urgent Pericardiocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

It is a life threatening condition in which a pericardial effusion has developed so rapidly or has become so large that it compresses the heart

A

Cardiac Tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Fever + new murmur

A

Infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the causative organism for the infective endocarditis

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the risk factors for Infective endocarditis?

A

Valve replacement
Recreational drug
Dentistry interventions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

fevers, rigors, malaise , new murmur (Commonly MR), some patients may present with CHF

A

Infective Endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the surgical treatment for IF

A

Valve Replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the medications for IF?

A

Flucloxacillin
Benzylpenicillin
Gentamicin (Vancomycin with prosthetic valve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the major criteria of IF?

A

Positive blood culture
Positive Echo = abscess formation, new valvular regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Minor Criteria of IF

A

FIVE PM
Fever,
Immunological Phenomena (AGN, Osler’s node, Roth spots)
Vascular phenomena: Major emboli, splinter hemorrhage, Janeway lesions
Echo
Predisposition: IV drug user
Microbiological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

hemorrhage under the nails

A

Splinter hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

painless macules

A

Janeway Lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

small painful tender

A

Osler’s nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

red retinal spots with pale white center

A

Roth Spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

fever, rigor, malaise, MR (new murmur), CHF

A

IF presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the systolic Murmurs?

A

AS, MR, TR, VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the diastolic murmurs?

A

AR MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Ejection Systolic

A

AS
PS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Pansystolic

A

MR, TR, VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Early diastolic

A

AR
PR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Mid-late diastolic

A

MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Lesions above the level of the nipple

A

Ejection Systlolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Lesions below the level of the nipple

A

Pansystolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Left sided murmurs louder with

A

Expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Right sided murmur louder with

A

Inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

pAN-sYSTOLIC

A

MR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Diastolic Rumble

A

TS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

found in 2nd intercostal space to the right of the sternum

A

AS
AR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Found at the apex

A

MS
MR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Found at the 2nd intercostal space to the left of the sternum

A

PS
PR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Found at the lower right sternal edge

A

TS
TR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Symptom of CHF

A

MR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Fluttering discomfort of the neck

A

TS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Symptom of the Right sided failure

A

TR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

palpitations, fast heart rate, dyspnea

A

Atrial Fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

patient in stem will describe it as a fluttering feeling in the chest

A

Atrial flutter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Regular and fast
Stem will mention a period of ongoing lightheadedness, palpitations and chest pain

A

Ventricular Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Physiological situations, such as exercise or situations of stress or anger
History of infection

A

Sinus Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

lengthening of the PR interval

A

Type I AV block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

progressive prolongation of PR interval until a missed QRS complex

A

Mobitz 1: Type 2 AV block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Normal PR interval with occasional missed QRS complexes

A

Mobitz 2: Type 2 AV block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

no relation of P waves and QRS complexes

A

Type 3 AV block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Delta wave in ECG

A

Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

more than 3 consecutive PVCs, HR 100-250 bpm
less filling -> low CO -> hypotension and HF
Loss of atrial Click -> P wave may be present or absent (if present, it has no relation tot he QRS complex)

A

Ventricular Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

HR > 100 bpm in a healthy individual due to exercise and stress

A

SInus Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

a single beat starts from the ventricles

A

Premature ventricular contaction

90
Q

Wide QRS + regular

A

VT

91
Q

Wide QRS + irregular

A

V-fib

92
Q

Narrow QRS + regular

A

SVT

93
Q

Narrow QRS + irregular

A

A-Fib

94
Q

With Pulse, hemodynamically stable, the tx are?

A

Amiodarone
Lidocaine
Procainamide

All are antiarrhythmics

95
Q

With Pulse, hemodynamically unstable, the tx is?

A

Immediate electrical cardioversion

96
Q

Without pulse, next management?

A

Immediate electrical cardioversion (defib)

97
Q

Manifested as an absolutely regular rhythm at a rate between 130-220 bpm

young patient with recurrent palpitations, normal/slightly low BP, regular HR and NO predisposition to heart disease

A

SVT

98
Q

What is the acute management for SVT in hemodynamically stable patients?

A
  1. Valsalva maneuver, carotid massage
  2. Adenosine 6mg IV (if unsuccessful, add another 12mg IV - if still unsucessful give another 12)
  3. Electrical Cardioversion (if given with Adenosine 3 doses (30mg) and with no improvement
99
Q

What is the acute management for SVT in hemodynamically unstable patients?

A

DC cardioversion

100
Q

What are the preventive measures for SVT?

A

BEta Blockers
Radio frequency ablation

101
Q

This is caused by the premature discharge of a ventricular ectopic focus which produces an early and broad QRS complex

Skipped or Missed beats

benign unless there is an underlying disease that could lead to life-threatening arrhythmias

A

Ventricular ectopic

102
Q

What are the causes of Ventricular ectopic?

A

IHD
Cardiomyopathy
Stress
Alcohol
Caffeine
Medication
COcaine
Amphetamines
Occus naturally

103
Q

loss of consciousness

A

VF

104
Q

Middle aged person with history of CHF

A

VT

105
Q

Missed beats, dyspnea, dizziness and never sustained in 2H

A

Ectopic beats

106
Q

decreased ejection fraction + damaged myocardium (e.g. thinning of the septal wall)

A

Dilated Cardiomyopathy

107
Q

Most common arrhythmia that develop in patients with Dilated Cardiomyopathy

A

Atrial Fibrillation

108
Q

due to the loss of the atrial contribution to Cardiac Output, AF can lead to this

A

Pulmonary Edema

109
Q

History of Alcoholism followed by palpitations, dizziness, and syncope

A

Atrial Fib or Flutter
“Holiday Heart Syndrome”

110
Q

Features of AF

A

Dyspnea
Palpitations
Syncope or dizziness
Chest discomfort or pain
Stroke or TIA
An irregularly irregular pulse
Absent P wave

111
Q

rate of 220-350 bpm, A FLutter or A fib?

A

A flutter

112
Q

rate of >350 bpm, A FLutter or A fib?

A

A fib

113
Q

Atrial Activity: visible flutter waves, A FLutter or A fib?

A

Atrial Flutter

114
Q

Atrial Activity: Fine fibrillatory waves

A

Atrial fibrillation

115
Q

Ventricular activity:
Rate, regular
Constant RR interval

A

Atrial Flutter

116
Q

Ventricular activity:
Rate, variable
No relation to atrial rate
Variable RR interval

A

Atrial fibrillation

117
Q

saw tooth

A

Atrial Flutter

118
Q

ragged

A

Atrial fibrillation

119
Q

Atrial Fibrillation management, rate Control?

A
120
Q

Atrial Fibrillation management, rhythm Control?

A
121
Q

It means sudden death, blood pressure drops immediately to zero so does the cardiac output

Ventricles are unable to contract in a synchronized manner -> immediate loss of the Cardiac Output

A

Ventricular fibrillation
rate is up to 500 bpm

122
Q

What are the ECG findings of V FIb

A

Chaotic irregular deflections of varying amplitude
No identifiable P waves
Rate 150-500bpm
There is no specific pattern to the discharge

123
Q

It is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy for atrial Fibrillation

A

CHA2 DS2 VS
C - Congestive Heart Failure 1 pt
H - Hypertension 1 pt
A2 - Age > 75 yo 2 pts
- Age 65-74 yo 1 pt
D - Diabetes 1 pt
S2 - Prior Stroke or TIA 2pts
V - Vascular disease (sys/peri) 1 pt
S - Sex (female) 1 pt

124
Q

<65 yo and no comorbidities =?
<65 yo and at least 1 comorbidity =?

A

<65 yo and no comorbidities = NO Warfarin
<65 yo and at least 1 comorbidity =Warfarin or DOAC (Direct anticoagulants)

DOAC:
Apixaban
Edoxaban
Riboroxaban

125
Q

it may lead to intracranial hemorrhage and SAH - look out for headache

A

Warfarin

126
Q

What are the benefits and disadvantages of DOAC over Warfarin?

A
127
Q

syndrome of sudden onset focal neurological loss of presumed vascular origin lasting > 24H

A

Stroke

128
Q

syndrome of sudden onset of focal neurological loss of oresumed vascular origin lasting <24H

A

TIA

129
Q

Prevention of Stoke or TIA patient presented with AF

A

Warfarin or DOAC (stroke prophylaxis)

130
Q

Prevention of Stoke or TIA, patient presented with disabling stroke and NO AF

A

defer anticoagulation tx for 14 days from the onset and start Aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks + Clopidogrel 75 mg lifelong

131
Q

Prevention of Stoke or TIA, is internal carotid artery is stenosed >/- 50% in men, and >/- 70% in women

A

Carotid Endarterectomy

132
Q

Prolonged PR interval > 0.2 secs

A

First Degree Heart Block

133
Q

Mobitz Type 1 AV block (Wenckebach block/phenomenon)

-Progressive prolongation of the PT interval within intermittent dropped beat

Mobitz Type 11 AV Block
- sudden drop of QRS without prior PR changes

A

2nd Degree Heart block

134
Q

P waves and QRS complexes have no relation to each other

A

3rd degree (complete heart block)

135
Q

What is the management for the 1st degree and Mobitz 1

A

No treatment
Atropine could be given

136
Q

What is the management for the Mobitz II and 3rd degree?

A

Permanent pacemakers
Atropine is CI

137
Q
A

First Degree AV Block

138
Q
A

Second degree AV block Mobitz II

139
Q
A

Second degree AV block Mobitz I or Wenckebach

140
Q
A

Third degree AV Block with Junctional Escape

141
Q

What are the 7 Parameters for the ECG Interpretation?

A
142
Q

Rules of thumb to determine Cardiac Axis deviation on ECG

A
143
Q

Areas of Infarct and the Coronary Arteries involved

A
144
Q

ECG Tracings

A
145
Q

What is the most common valvular heart disease

A

Aortic Stenosis

146
Q

MC cause of Aortic Stenosis usually in elderly patient

A

Degenerative Sclerocalcific changes to valves

147
Q

MC cause of Aortic Stenosis in younger patients

A

Congenital Bicuspid Aortic Valve

148
Q

This is a sign of AS which is best heard at the 2nd right intercostal space at the Right Sternal Border which radiates to the carotid arteries, louder with expiration (left-sided murmur)

A

Ejection Systolic Murmur

149
Q

2nd most common heart valve disorder

It is due to ischemic papillary muscle dysfunction or partial rupture after MI (days)

Could be 2ry to rheumatic fever

Commonly associated with inferior MI than anterior, usually seen 2-10 days post MI and the patient is presented with Pulmonary edema

A

Mitral Regurgitation

150
Q

Dyspnea
Orthopnea
Paroxysmal Nocturnal dyspnea

this is a sign for MR

A

Left Ventricular Failure

151
Q

with severe MR, edema, and Ascites

A

Right-Sided Failure

152
Q

Another sign for MR that can be heard at the 5th intercostal space Left Midclavicular line (apex) that radiates to the axilla

A

Soft S1 and S2 Pansystolic murmur

153
Q

What is the diagnostic tool for MR?

A

Echo

154
Q

ECG finding for MR

A

broad/bifid P wave (P mitrale) indicating enlarged Left atrium

155
Q

Inheritable connective tissue disorder

Maybe associated with:
Marfan’s, Ehlers Danlos S and Osteogenesis imperfecta

Most pxs are asymptomatic
Classic case - slim young female with low blood pressure

A

MVP

156
Q

This is a sign for MVP, best heard at the 5th midclavicular line followed by a mid or late systolic murmur with finding accentuated in the standing position.

A

Mid-Systolic Click

MVP in a basketball team
Shoots from the middle court with great Suspense and with a Click

157
Q

Tall, thin with long arms

A

Marfan’s

158
Q

Has loose joints

A

Ehlers Danlos

159
Q

A heart condition that impedes left ventricular filling - increased BV in the left atrium - increased left atrial pressure -> blood is back to the lungs causing pulmonary congestion - 2ry pulm vasoconstriction - pulmonary hypertension - becomes harder for the Right Ventricular Failure

A

Mitral Stenosis

160
Q

MS is commonly caused by

A

Rheumatic Fever

161
Q

What are the signs of MS?

A

Pulmonary congestion and Edema - dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Hepatomegaly, Ascites, peripheral edema
hemoptysis
Systemic Embolism
Physical signs: Atrial fibrillation, Malar flush, Pulmonary Rales
Loud S1
Mid-diastolic murmur with an opening click

162
Q

ECG findings of MS

A

RV failure
AF
P mitrale - bifid P wave

thickening of MV leaflets

163
Q

CXR findings of MS

A

Large left atrium - straightening of the left heart border

Pulmonary hypertension, including Kerley B lines and increased vascular markings

164
Q

What are the causes of Aortic Regurgitation?

A

RF
Infective Endocarditis
Marfan’s Syndrome

165
Q

Sign of AR, best heard at the left sternal edge (Erb;s point)

A

Early diastolic murmur

166
Q

Sign of Pulmonary Stenosis, best heart over the pulmonary area, radiates to the left shoulder at the infraclavicular region

A

Ejection Systolic Murmur

167
Q

heart condition that is acyanotic congenital heart disease, Left to RIght Shunt

may present with severe heart failure in infancy, poor weight gain and frequent URTIs

Could remain asymptomatic and be detected incidentally in later life

Congenital
Acquired (post-MI)

A

VSD

168
Q

Signs of VSD

A
169
Q

persistence of a normal fetal connection between the aorta and the pulmonary artery

Very common in preterm babies and it also may close spontaenously.

Maybe asymptomatic or may cause apnea, bradycardia and increased oxygen requirements.

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

170
Q

tx prevent closure of PDA

A

Prostaglandins

171
Q

Drugs that close the duct

A

Indomethacin or Ibuprofen

172
Q

bounding peripheral pulses

Continuous machinery murmur
Rough systolic murmur along the Left sternal border

A

PDA

173
Q

What are the most common cyanotic heart conditions 5Ts?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)
Tricuspid atresia
Truncus arteriosus
Total ANomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC)

174
Q

MC cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease

typically presents at around 1-2 months, although may not be picked up until the baby is 6 months old

A

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)

175
Q

What are the four characteristic features of TOF?

A

VSD
RIght Ventricular Hypertrophy
Pulmonary Stenosis - ejection systolic murmur
Overriding aorta

PROV-TOF

176
Q

What are the other features of TOF?

A

Cyanosis
Causes a Right to Left Shunt
Ejection Systolic Murmur due to Pulmonary stenosis
A right-sided aortic arch is seen 25% of patients

CXR - “Boot-shaped” heart
ECG - RVH

177
Q

What is the complication of TOF?

A

Pulmonary Regurgitation
(common after repair of pulmonary stenosis)

178
Q

benign tumours, mostly int he Left atrium and tend to grow on the wall (septum)

symptoms occur due to obstruction of the Mitral Valve which result in syncope and heart failure

A

Atrial Myxoma

179
Q

Features of Atrial Myxoma

A
180
Q

Hypertension

A
181
Q
A

Postural Hypotension

182
Q
A

Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneursysm

183
Q
A

Digoxin Toxicity

184
Q

What is the management for Symptomatic bradycardia?

A
  1. Atropine 0.5 mg IV
  2. Dopamine
  3. Epinephrine

Initial ABCD

185
Q

Resuscitation guide for Cardiac Arrest

A
  1. Call for help
  2. Check for ABCD (if there is no signs of life - call the resuscitation team)
  3. CPR - 30:2
  4. Defibrillation
186
Q

What are the drugs that should be avoided in CHF, IHD and CKD?

A

NSAIDS (heart failure worsens, it inhibits prostaglandins - vasoconstriction-less filtration-> lower urinary output -fluid accumulation)
Cox2 Inhibitors

187
Q

What cardiac medication increases the risk of gout and is due to reduced clearance of uric acid?

A

Thiazide

188
Q

What is the treatment for beta-blocker overdose?

A

Glucagon

189
Q

What is the antidote for Warfarin?

A

Vitamin K

190
Q

U wave

A

Hypokalemia

191
Q

J wave

A

Hypothermia

192
Q

A wave

A

Atrial Myxoma

193
Q

Delta waves

A

Wolff Parkinson White Syndrome (WPW S)

194
Q

Bifida/wide P wave

A

Left Atrial Enlargement
MR MS

195
Q

P Mitrale (broader than 2 and a half small boxes)

A

Left atrial enlargement

196
Q

P Pulmonale (taller than 2 and a half small boxes)

A

Right atrial enlargement

197
Q

ECG showing irregular/equivocal (ambiguous) rhythm, next investigation?

A

ECHO

198
Q

ECG showing regular rhythm, next investigation?

A

Holter ECG (24h ECG)

199
Q

Patients who have experienced episodes of syncope during or shortly after exertion?

A

Exercise testing

200
Q

Investigations for Aortic Dissection

A

Transesophageal Echo, CT, MRI

201
Q

Alternating episodes of tachycardia, bradycardia, AF or Flutter

A

Sinus Sick Syndrome

202
Q

Prolonged QT interval - Torsades de pointes
Syncope or sudden death
Exacerbated by exercise, stress, medications, and electrolyte imbalance
treated with MgSO4

A

Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia

203
Q

What are the complications of MI?

A

Days - Rupture and Acute Pericarditis
weeks - Dressler’s
Month (4-6 weeks) - Aneurysm

204
Q

85% are right dominant
gives off the posterior descending artery (PDA), supplying the inferior wall, ventricular septum and the posteromedial papillary muscle

A

Right Coronary Artery

205
Q

15% left dominant

A

Left Circumflex gives off the PDA

206
Q

sudden collapse into consciousness due to heart block

A

Stokes Adam’s attack

207
Q

What are the investigations following syncope?

A
  1. FInd witness - ask how the patient became unconscious, was there a seizure?
  2. ECG - to look for arrhythmias
  3. Blood glucose - to exclude hypoglycemia (LOC + sweating + improves with glucose administration)
208
Q

Decreased ejection fraction + damaged myocardium (e.g. thinning of septal wall)

A

Dilated Cardiomyopathy

209
Q

Autosomal Dominant
Total cholesterol >7.5 , LDL > 5
Family history of MI in a first degree relative < 60 or a 2nd degree relative <50

A

Familial Hypercholesterolemia

210
Q

it is milder with total cholesterol of >6.5, Ldl>4

A

Polygenic Hypercholesterolemia

211
Q

elevated LDL and triglyceride + decreased HDL

A

Mixed Dyslipidemia

212
Q

Baseline assessment
TFTs, LFTs and U and E

A

every 6 months

213
Q

Baseline assessment
CXR and ECG

A

every 12 months

214
Q

Before using Amiodarone,
initial assessment

A

TFTs

215
Q

Before using Lithium, initial assessment

A

Kidney Function tests, then TFTs

216
Q

Anginal pain that last less than 30 mins and is precepted by physical exertion or stress

A

Anginal pain

217
Q

Anginal pain that occurs when lying down

A

Decubitus Angina

218
Q

Patent foramen ovale is diagnosed by

A

Transesophageal ECHO

219
Q

commonly caused by compressing lung cancer or lymphoma

A

SVC obstruction

220
Q

Shortness of breath is the MC symptom
facial and upper body edema
Facial plethora
venous distention of the face, upper body, dysphagia, syncope and headache

A

SVC Obstruction

221
Q

What is the appropriate investigation for SVC Obstruction?

A

CT with Contrast

222
Q

What is the management for SVC obstruction?

A

Steroids (dexamethasone) avoided in night as it disturbs dleep

PlusM (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions