Cardio HW 2 M-T

Question 1

Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia:
Choose one answer.
A. is characterized by QRS complexes that vary in size.
B. presents with wide QRS complexes of a common shape.
C. is treated as ventricular fibrillation if a pulse is present.
D. is often irregular with occasional nonconducted P waves.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Most patients with an ST-elevation myocardial infarction:
Choose one answer.
	 A. will develop Q waves.  	
	 B. heal without treatment.  	
	 C. experience cardiac arrest.  	
	 D. present without chest pain.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

On the ECG strip, a third-degree AV block usually appears as a:
Choose one answer.
A. wide QRS complex rhythm with a rate between 50 and 70 beats/min.
B. slow, narrow QRS complex rhythm with irregular P-P intervals.
C. slow, wide QRS complex rhythm with inconsistent PR intervals.
D. narrow QRS complex rhythm with a rate less than 60 beats/min.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome:
Choose one answer.
A. have a diseased SA node, resulting in ectopic atrial pacemakers and abnormal AV nodal conduction.
B. are highly susceptible to a variety of bradycardic rhythms due to an abnormal delay at the AV node.
C. have an accessory pathway that bypasses the AV node and causes early ventricular depolarization.
D. experience independent atrial depolarization due to failure of the Bachmann bundle between the atria.

Answer 4

C

Question 5

Percutaneous coronary interventions involve:
Choose one answer.
A. recanalizing a blocked coronary artery by passing a balloon or stent through a catheter via a peripheral artery.
B. passing a 2-mm catheter through the femoral artery and administering a fibrinolytic agent through the catheter.
C. using a large vein from one of the lower extremities to reroute blood flow past an occluded coronary artery.
D. passing a guide wire through one of the external jugular veins to directly visualize an occluded coronary artery.

Answer 5

A

Question 6

Pericardial tamponade can be differentiated from a tension pneumothorax by the presence of:
Choose one answer.
	 A. jugular venous distention.  	
	 B. a narrowing pulse pressure.  	
	 C. clear and equal breath sounds.  	
	 D. alterations in the QRS amplitude.

Answer 6

C

Question 7

Premature ventricular complexes (PVCs) that originate from different sites in the ventricle:
Choose one answer.
	 A. are called unifocal PVCs.  	
	 B. produce a palpable pulse.  	
	 C. are also called fusion PVCs.  	
	 D. will appear differently on the ECG.

Answer 7

D

Question 8

Premature ventricular complexes:
Choose one answer.
A. are ectopic complexes that originate from a different pacemaker site.
B. are extra systolic beats that break the regularity of the underlying rhythm.
C. are in themselves considered arrhythmias, but are generally insignificant.
D. occur later than the next expected complex, causing an irregular rhythm.

Answer 8

A

Question 9

Shortly after administering a second dose of 4 mg of morphine to a 49-year-old woman who is experiencing chest pain, the patient’s level of consciousness markedly decreases. Further assessment reveals that she is hypotensive, bradycardic, and hypoventilating. You should:
Choose one answer.
A. administer 0.5 mg of atropine and reassess her.
B. assist her ventilations and administer naloxone.
C. elevate her legs and give a 500-mL saline bolus.
D. immediately intubate her to protect her airway.

Answer 9

B

Question 10

Supraventricular tachycardia is MOST accurately defined as:
Choose one answer.
A. any tachycardic rhythm with a heart rate greater than 130 beats/min and absent P waves.
B. a tachycardic rhythm originating from a pacemaker site above the level of the ventricles.
C. an irregular tachycardic rhythm that originates just below the AV junction.
D. a regular tachycardic rhythm between 150 and 180 beats/min with P waves buried in the QRS complexes.

Answer 10

B

Question 11

Sympathetic nerves are regulated primarily by:
Choose one answer.
	 A. adrenaline.  	
	 B. epinephrine.  	
	 C. cholinesterase.  	
	 D. norepinephrine.

Answer 11

D

Question 12

The MOST common cause of right-sided heart failure is:
Choose one answer.
	 A. left-sided heart failure.  	
	 B. pulmonary hypotension.  	
	 C. acute pulmonary embolism.  	
	 D. long-standing emphysema.

Answer 12

A

Question 13

The MOST common symptom directly related to blood pressure elevation is:
Choose one answer.
	 A. epistaxis.  	
	 B. headache.  	
	 C. dizziness.  	
	 D. blurred vision.

Answer 13

B

Question 14

The MOST effective drug for the treatment of non-vagal-induced bradycardia is:
Choose one answer.
	 A. atropine.  	
	 B. dopamine.  	
	 C. epinephrine.  	
	 D. metoprolol.

Answer 14

C

Question 15

The MOST immediate forms of reperfusion therapy for an injured myocardium are:
Choose one answer.
A. high-dose aspirin and high-flow supplemental oxygen.
B. fibrinolytics and percutaneous coronary intervention.
C. angioplasty and coronary artery bypass grafting.
D. supplemental oxygen and an infusion of nitroglycerin.

Answer 15

B

Question 16

The MOST significant risk associated with the use of fibrinolytic therapy is:
Choose one answer.
	 A. reocclusion.  	
	 B. coagulation.  	
	 C. anaphylaxis.  	
	 D. hemorrhage.

Answer 16

D

Question 17

The point of maximal impulse usually can be felt on the:
Choose one answer.
A. medial aspect of the chest, just below the third intercostal space.
B. left lateral chest, in the midaxillary line, at the fourth intercostal space.
C. left anterior chest, in the midaxillary line, at the fifth intercostal space.
D. left anterior chest, in the midclavicular line, at the fifth intercostal space.

Answer 17

D

Question 18

The precordial leads do NOT view the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ wall of the heart.
Choose one answer.
	 A. septal  	
	 B. inferior  	
	 C. anterior  	
	 D. lateral

Answer 18

B

Question 19

The presence of dizziness in a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction is MOST likely the result of:
Choose one answer.
	 A. fear and anxiety.  	
	 B. the effects of nitroglycerin.  	
	 C. acute left-sided heart failure.  	
	 D. a reduction in cardiac output.

Answer 19

D

Question 20

The proper compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-rescuer adult CPR when an oropharyngeal airway is in place is:
Choose one answer.
	 A. 5:1.  	
	 B. 15:2.  	
	 C. 30:2.  	
	 D. asynchronous.

Answer 20

C

Question 21

Thousands of fibrils that are distributed throughout the ventricles, which represent the end of the cardiac conduction system, are called the:
Choose one answer.
	 A. bundle branches.  	
	 B. internodal pathways.  	
	 C. Purkinje fibers.  	
	 D. cardiac myocytes.

Answer 21

C

Question 22

To increase myocardial contractility and heart rate and to relax the bronchial smooth muscle, you must give a drug that:
Choose one answer.
A. stimulates beta-1 and beta-2 receptors.
B. stimulates beta-2 and alpha receptors.
C. blocks beta-1 and beta-2 receptors.
D. blocks beta receptors and stimulates alpha receptors.

Answer 22

A

Question 23

Torsade de pointes:
Choose one answer.
A. presents with wide QRS complexes that are all of the same shape, size, and vector direction.
B. is a lethal ventricular rhythm that is usually caused by ingestion or injection of CNS-depressant drugs.
C. is generally less serious than monomorphic ventricular tachycardia and is usually not treated in the field.
D. is a variant of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia and is often caused by a prolonged QT interval.

Answer 23

D