CARDIO HW 1b Flashcards

1
Q

Atherosclerosis is a process in which:
Choose one answer.
A. the outer wall of a coronary artery becomes lined with masses of fatty tissue.
B. calcium precipitates into the arterial walls, greatly reducing the artery’s elasticity.
C. plaque infiltrates the arterial wall, decreasing its elasticity and narrowing its lumen.
D. plaque ruptures from a distant location and lodges in one of the coronary arteries

A

C

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2
Q

Atrial kick is defined as:
Choose one answer.
A. the blood that flows passively into the ventricles.
B. pressure on the AV valves during ventricular contraction.
C. an attempt of the atria to contract against closed valves.
D. increased preload pressure as a result of atrial contraction.

A

D

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3
Q

Automaticity is defined as the ability of the heart to:
Choose one answer.
A. generate an electrical impulse from the same site every time.
B. spontaneously conduct an electrical impulse between cardiac cells.
C. generate its own electrical impulses without stimulation from nerves.
D. increase or decrease its heart rate based on the body’s metabolic needs.

A

C

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4
Q
Bombardment of the AV node by more than one impulse, potentially blocking the pathway for one impulse and allowing the other impulse to stimulate cardiac cells that have already depolarized, is called:
Choose one answer.
	 A. fusion.  	
	 B. reentry.  	
	 C. ectopy.  	
	 D. excitability.
A

D

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5
Q
Cardiac output is influenced by:
Choose one answer.
	 A. heart rate.  	
	 B. stroke volume.  	
	 C. heart rate and/or stroke volume.  	
	 D. ejection fraction and heart rate.
A

C

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6
Q

Cardiogenic shock occurs when:
Choose one answer.
A. blood backs up into the pulmonary circulation.
B. more than 40% of the left ventricle has infarcted.
C. left ventricular ejection fraction is less than 50%.
D. any condition causes an increase in atrial preload.

A

B

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7
Q
Changes in cardiac contractility may be induced by medications that have a positive or negative \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ effect.
Choose one answer.
	 A. vasoactive  	
	 B. dromotropic  	
	 C. inotropic  	
	 D. chronotropic
A

C

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8
Q

Cholinesterase is a naturally occurring chemical that:
Choose one answer.
A. increases epinephrine production.
B. regulates acetylcholine in the body.
C. stimulates activity of the vagus nerve.
D. causes a natural slowing of the heart rate.

A

B

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9
Q
Common causes of bradycardia include:
Choose one answer.
	 A. exercise.  	
	 B. hyperthermia.  	
	 C. amphetamines.  	
	 D. beta blocker use.
A

D

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10
Q
Common causes of cardiac arrest include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
	 A. hypovolemia.  	
	 B. hyperglycemia.  	
	 C. cardiac tamponade.  	
	 D. pulmonary embolism
A

B

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11
Q

Depolarization, the process by which muscle fibers are stimulated to contract, occurs when:
Choose one answer.
A. cell wall permeability changes and sodium rushes into the cell.
B. calcium ions rapidly enter the cell, facilitating contraction.
C. potassium ions escape from the cell through specialized channels.
D. cardiac muscle relaxes in response to a cellular influx of calcium

A

A

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12
Q

Disruption of blood flow through the innominate artery due to dissection is likely to produce:
Choose one answer.
A. pulse or blood pressure deficits.
B. a rapid, irregular pulse.
C. collapsed jugular veins.
D. a widened pulse pressure.

A

A

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13
Q
Drugs that have alpha or beta sympathetic properties are called:
Choose one answer.
	 A. vagolytics.  	
	 B. sympathomimetics.  	
	 C. parasympatholytics.  	
	 D. adrenergic blockers.
A

B

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14
Q

During the refractory period:
Choose one answer.
A. the heart is in a state of partial repolarization.
B. the heart is partially charged, but cannot contract.
C. the cell is depolarized or in the process of repolarizing.
D. the heart muscle is depleted of energy and needs to recharge.

A

C

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15
Q

Epinephrine is used to treat patients in anaphylactic shock because of its effects of:
Choose one answer.
A. vasodilation and bronchoconstriction.
B. bronchodilation and vasoconstriction.
C. increased heart rate and automaticity.
D. parasympathetic nervous system blockade.

A

B

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16
Q

Fibrinolysis may be contraindicated in all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. major trauma or surgery within the past 4 weeks.
B. a history of structural central nervous system disease.
C. a history of anaphylactic shock caused by salicylates.
D. significant closed head trauma within the past 3 weeks.

A

C

17
Q

Fibrinolytic medications are beneficial to certain patients with an acute myocardial infarction because they:
Choose one answer.
A. decrease circulating platelets and thin the blood.
B. convert plasminogen to plasmin and destroy a clot.
C. destroy a clot by releasing fibrin into the bloodstream.
D. break down the plasmin concentration inside a blood clot.

A

B

18
Q

Hypomagnesemia would MOST likely result in:
Choose one answer.
A. decreased cardiac conduction.
B. decreased myocardial irritability.
C. a decrease in cardiac contractility.
D. decreased myocardial automaticity.

A

A

19
Q

If a patient’s ECG rhythm shows any artifact, you should:
Choose one answer.
A. ensure the electrodes are applied firmly to the skin.
B. reverse the limb leads to obtain a clearer ECG tracing.
C. place the ground lead in a different anatomic location.
D. remove the negative lead and reassess the cardiac rhythm.

A

A

20
Q

If an increased amount of blood is returned to the heart:
Choose one answer.
A. the cardiac muscle must stretch to accommodate the larger volume.
B. stroke volume decreases accordingly because of the larger volume.
C. an increase in stroke volume occurs because the heart rate increases.
D. cardiac workload is decreased, resulting in a decreased cardiac output.

A

A

21
Q
If the ECG leads are applied correctly, the PQRST configuration should be inverted in lead:
Choose one answer.
	 A. I.  	
	 B. II.  	
	 C. aVR.  	
	 D. aVL.
A

C

22
Q

If the heart’s secondary pacemaker becomes ischemic and fails to initiate an electrical impulse:
Choose one answer.
A. the AV junction will begin pacing at 40 to 60 times/min.
B. you will see a brief period of bradycardia followed by asystole.
C. the P wave and PR interval will have an abnormal appearance.
D. you should expect to see a heart rate slower than 40 beats/min.

A

D

23
Q
If the left ventricle contains 80 mL of blood before a contraction and ejects 60 mL during the contraction, the ejection fraction is:
Choose one answer.
	 A. 60%.  	
	 B. 65%.  	
	 C. 70%.  	
	 D. 75%.
A

D

24
Q
If the R-R interval spans more than \_\_\_\_ large boxes on the ECG graph paper, the heart rate is less than 60/min.
Choose one answer.
	 A. 1.5  	
	 B. 2  	
	 C. 3.5  	
	 D. 5
A

D

25
Q
If the R-R interval spans \_\_\_ large boxes or less, the heart rate is greater than 100/min.
Choose one answer.
	 A. 3  	
	 B. 4  	
	 C. 5  	
	 D. 6
A

A

26
Q

In a patient with left heart failure and pulmonary edema:
Choose one answer.
A. the right atrium and ventricle pump against lower pressures, resulting in the systemic pooling of venous blood.
B. diffusely collapsed alveoli cause blood from the right side of the heart to bypass the alveoli and return to the left side of the heart.
C. increased pressure in the left atrium and pulmonary veins forces serum out of the pulmonary capillaries and into the alveoli.
D. an acute myocardial infarction or chronic hypertension causes the left ventricle to pump against decreased afterload, resulting in hypoperfusion.

A

C

27
Q

In contrast to arteries, veins:
Choose one answer.
A. do not contain valves that prevent backflow of blood.
B. have less capacity to increase the size of their diameter.
C. are more likely to distend when exposed to backpressure.
D. operate on the high-pressure side of the circulatory system.

A

C

28
Q

In contrast to stable angina, unstable angina:
Choose one answer.
A. occurs following periods of strenuous exertion.
B. often awakens the patient from his or her sleep.
C. indicates that myocardial necrosis has occurred.
D. is less frequent but is associated with more pain.

A

B

29
Q

In order to call a cardiac rhythm “paroxysmal” supraventricular tachycardia, you would have to:
Choose one answer.
A. witness its onset and/or spontaneous termination.
B. confirm the pacemaker origin with a 12-lead ECG.
C. observe a consistent heart rate greater than 150 beats/min.
D. ask the patient when he or she began feeling palpitations.

A

A

30
Q

In order to ensure proper electrolyte distribution and maintain the polarity of the cell membrane, the sodium-potassium pump:
Choose one answer.
A. moves three sodium ions and three potassium ions back into the cell.
B. moves two sodium ions into the cell for every three potassium ions it moves out of the cell.
C. moves calcium and potassium ions back into the cell by a process called passive transport.
D. moves two potassium ions into the cell for every three sodium ions it moves out of the cell.

A

D