Cardio HW 2 49-80 Flashcards

1
Q
Under normal conditions, the strength of cardiac contraction is regulated by:
Choose one answer.
	 A. the heart rate.  	
	 B. the nervous system.  	
	 C. physical exertion.  	
	 D. the Frank-Starling mechanism.
A

B

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2
Q

Unlike an idioventricular rhythm, an agonal rhythm:
Choose one answer.
A. is associated with a faster rate.
B. does not produce a palpable pulse.
C. is associated with a lower mortality rate.
D. indicates a regular ventricular pacemaker.

A

B

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3
Q

Unlike the parasympathetic nervous system, the sympathetic nervous system:
Choose one answer.
A. is not under the direct control of the autonomic nervous system.
B. provides a mechanism for the body to adapt to changing demands.
C. is blocked when drugs such as atropine are administered.
D. constricts the pupils and increases gastrointestinal function when stimulated.

A

B

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4
Q
Untreated ventricular tachycardia would MOST likely deteriorate to:
Choose one answer.
	 A. asystole.  	
	 B. torsade de pointes.  	
	 C. ventricular fibrillation.  	
	 D. pulseless electrical activity.
A

C

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5
Q
Vasoconstriction occurs following stimulation of:
Choose one answer.
	 A. beta-1 receptors.  	
	 B. beta-2 receptors.  	
	 C. alpha receptors.  	
	 D. alpha and beta receptors.
A

C

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6
Q

Ventricular bigeminy occurs when:
Choose one answer.
A. two premature ventricular complexes (PVCs) occur in a row.
B. every second complex is a PVC.
C. at least two differently shaped PVCs occur.
D. a 6-second strip contains at least two PVCs.

A

B

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7
Q

Ventricular fibrillation occurs when:
Choose one answer.
A. the ventricles quiver rather than contract normally, while organized atrial contractions continue as normal.
B. the ventricles become the primary pacemaker for the heart, resulting in a rapid and irregular ventricular rhythm.
C. many different cells in the heart depolarize independently rather than in response to an impulse from the SA node.
D. cardiac cells in the ventricles fail to completely repolarize, resulting in a decrease in ventricular automaticity.

A

C

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8
Q
What is the approximate maximum dose of lidocaine for a 200-pound patient?
Choose one answer.
	 A. 275 mg  	
	 B. 300 mg  	
	 C. 325 mg  	
	 D. 350 mg
A

A

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9
Q

What is the MOST appropriate sequence of treatment for a patient with a suspected acute myocardial infarction?
Choose one answer.
A. Oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin, morphine
B. Oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, morphine
C. Aspirin, nitroglycerin, oxygen, morphine
D. Morphine, oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin

A

A

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10
Q

What is the R-on-T phenomenon?
Choose one answer.
A. A premature ventricular complex (PVC) that occurs when the ventricles are not fully repolarized
B. When the R wave occurs at the J point of the next cardiac cycle
C. A unifocal PVC that occurs during the upslope of any given T wave
D. A PVC that occurs during a time when the ventricles are depolarizing

A

A

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11
Q

What physiologic effect occurs within the first 5 to 10 minutes after administering furosemide (Lasix)?
Choose one answer.
A. Increased preload
B. Peripheral venous pooling
C. Excretion of water by the kidneys
D. Increase in cardiac afterload

A

B

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12
Q
What prevents the backflow of blood during ventricular contraction?
Choose one answer.
	 A. The aortic valve  	
	 B. Semilunar valves  	
	 C. The pulmonic valve  	
	 D. AV valves
A

D

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13
Q

When administering aspirin to a patient with an acute coronary syndrome, you should:
Choose one answer.
A. first check to make sure the patient is not severely hypertensive.
B. administer half the usual dose if the patient has a history of stroke.
C. have him or her chew and swallow 160 to 325 mg of baby aspirin.
D. give up to 325 mg of enteric-coated aspirin for the patient to swallow.

A

C

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14
Q
When analyzing a cardiac rhythm strip in lead II, you should routinely evaluate all of the following components, EXCEPT the:
Choose one answer.
	 A. QRS width.  	
	 B. PR interval.  	
	 C. ST segment.  	
	 D. R-R interval.
A

C

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15
Q
Which of the following actions should NOT occur while CPR is in progress?
Choose one answer.
	 A. Advanced airway placement  	
	 B. Cardiac rhythm assessment  	
	 C. Assessment for a palpable pulse  	
	 D. Establishment of vascular access
A

C

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16
Q
Which of the following blood pressure readings is MOST suggestive of a patient who has arteriosclerosis?
Choose one answer.
	 A. 140/90 mm Hg  	
	 B. 150/80 mm Hg  	
	 C. 160/70 mm Hg  	
	 D. 180/110 mm Hg
A

C

17
Q

Which of the following clinical findings is LEAST suggestive of a peripheral vascular disorder?
Choose one answer.
A. A bruit heard over the carotid artery
B. Pain in the calf muscle while walking
C. Swelling and pain along the course of a vein
D. An S3 sound during auscultation of the heart

A

D

18
Q
Which of the following clinical findings is LEAST suggestive of left-sided heart failure?
Choose one answer.
	 A. An S3 gallop  	
	 B. Sacral edema  	
	 C. Crackles in the lungs  	
	 D. Shortness of breath
A

B

19
Q
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely cause the blood pressure to vary between the left arm and right arm?
Choose one answer.
	 A. Cor pulmonale  	
	 B. Aortic aneurysm  	
	 C. Left heart failure  	
	 D. Cardiac tamponade
A

B

20
Q
Which of the following factors would present the GREATEST difficulty when distinguishing supraventricular tachycardia from ventricular tachycardia?
Choose one answer.
	 A. Aberrant conduction  	
	 B. Absence of P waves  	
	 C. Retrograde conduction  	
	 D. The rate of the rhythm
A

A

21
Q
Which of the following interventions should be performed en route to the hospital during a lengthy transport of a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction?
Choose one answer.
	 A. Supplemental oxygen  	
	 B. Aspirin administration  	
	 C. IV therapy and analgesia  	
	 D. 12-lead electrocardiography
A

C

22
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of multifocal atrial tachycardia?
Choose one answer.
A. Nonvisible P waves with a rapid ventricular rate
B. QRS complexes less than 0.12 seconds in duration
C. Variable PR intervals and P waves of differing size
D. Regular R-R intervals with a rate less than 150 beats/min

A

D

23
Q
Which of the following medications is a calcium channel blocker?
Choose one answer.
	 A. Lanoxin  	
	 B. Cardizem  	
	 C. Tenormin  	
	 D. Capoten
A

B

24
Q
Which of the following medications would be the MOST acceptable alternative to morphine for analgesia in patients with an acute coronary syndrome?
Choose one answer.
	 A. Versed  	
	 B. Fentanyl  	
	 C. Diazepam  	
	 D. Ibuprofen
A

B

25
Q
Which of the following patients would MOST likely present with atypical signs and symptoms of an acute myocardial infarction?
Choose one answer.
	 A. 49-year-old obese man  	
	 B. 58-year-old diabetic woman  	
	 C. 60-year-old man with anxiety  	
	 D. 71-year-old woman with hypertension
A

B

26
Q
Which of the following prescribed medications would a patient with chronic atrial fibrillation MOST likely take?
Choose one answer.
	 A. Plavix and Vasotec  	
	 B. Lisinopril and aspirin  	
	 C. Digitalis and Coumadin  	
	 D. Cordarone and furosemide
A

C

27
Q
Which of the following pulseless rhythms is NOT treated as pulseless electrical activity?
Choose one answer.
	 A. Sinus bradycardia  	
	 B. Idioventricular rhythm  	
	 C. Ventricular tachycardia  	
	 D. Junctional escape rhythm
A

C

28
Q

Which of the following situations would contraindicate the administration of nitroglycerin?
Choose one answer.
A. Hypersensitivity to salicylates
B. Systolic BP less than 110 mm Hg
C. Tadalafil use within the last 24 hours
D. Use of Plavix within the last 12 hours

A

C

29
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
Choose one answer.
A. Lead I is contiguous with lead II.
B. Lead II is contiguous with leads V6 and aVL.
C. Lead V6 is contiguous with leads V4 and V5.
D. Lead III is contiguous with leads II and aVF.

A

D

30
Q

Which of the following statements regarding an idioventricular rhythm is correct?
Choose one answer.
A. Most patients with an idioventricular rhythm are hemodynamically unstable.
B. Treatment for an idioventricular rhythm focuses on increasing blood pressure.
C. Idioventricular rhythms are typically accompanied by nonconducted P waves.
D. The most common cause of an idioventricular rhythm is failure of the SA node.

A

A

31
Q

Which of the following statements regarding asystole is correct?
Choose one answer.
A. A disconnected ECG lead often mimics asystole.
B. Defibrillation is indicated in some cases of asystole.
C. Most cases of asystole present with P waves only.
D. Asystole is the result of prolonged myocardial hypoxia

A

D

32
Q

Which of the following statements regarding oxygen administration for a patient experiencing an acute myocardial infarction is correct?
Choose one answer.
A. Evidence has shown that high (greater than 90%) concentrations of oxygen reduce mortality.
B. In order to prevent hypoxic injury, do not give any patient with an acute myocardial infarction more than 2 L/min of oxygen.
C. Treatment with oxygen should be individualized and titrated to maintain the SpO2 level above 94%.
D. Any patient experiencing an acute myocardial infarction should receive high-flow oxygen.

A

C