Cardio and resp - from pass medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Possible ECG features in WPW include: (4)

A

short PR interval
wide QRS complexes with a slurred upstroke - ‘delta wave’
left axis deviation if right-sided accessory pathway*
right axis deviation if left-sided accessory pathway*

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2
Q

Associations of WPW

A
HOCM (hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy)
mitral valve prolapse
Ebstein's anomaly
thyrotoxicosis
secundum ASD
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3
Q

Management of WPW

A

definitive treatment: radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway
medical therapy: sotalol**, amiodarone, flecainide

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4
Q

in the majority of cases, or in a question without qualification, Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is associated with … axis deviation

A

left

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5
Q

A 51-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department following an episode of transient right sided weakness lasting 10-15 minutes. Examination reveals the patient to be in atrial fibrillation. If the patient remains in chronic atrial fibrillation what is the most suitable form of anticoagulation?

A

CHADS-VASc score = 3, so warfarin, target INR 2-3

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6
Q

If low risk (age <65 and no risk factors), what anticoagulation?

A

Aspirin 75mg-300mg/day

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7
Q

What does CHA2DS2-VASc stand for?

A
C	Congestive heart failure	1
H	Hypertension (or treated hypertension)	1
A2	Age >= 75 years	2
D	Diabetes	1
S2	Prior Stroke or TIA	2
V	Vascular disease (including ischaemic heart disease and peripheral arterial disease)	1
A	Age 65-74 years	1
S	Sex (female)	1
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8
Q

Restrictive lung diseases

A
Pulmonary fibrosis
Asbestosis
Sarcoidosis
Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Infant respiratory distress syndrome
Kyphoscoliosis
Neuromuscular disorders
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9
Q

Obstructive lung diseases

A

Asthma
COPD
Bronchiectasis
Bronchiolitis obliterans

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10
Q

2 level PE Wells Score

A

Clinical feature Points
Clinical signs and symptoms of DVT (minimum of leg swelling and pain with palpation of the deep veins) 3
An alternative diagnosis is less likely than PE 3
Heart rate > 100 beats per minute 1.5
Immobilisation for more than 3 days or surgery in the previous 4 weeks 1.5
Previous DVT/PE 1.5
Haemoptysis 1
Malignancy (on treatment, treated in the last 6 months, or palliative) 1

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11
Q

common bendroflumethiazide SE?

A

hypokalaemia

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12
Q

Hypokalaemia causes on ECG

A

U waves
small or absent T waves (occasionally inversion)
prolong PR and QT interval
ST depression

‘In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT’

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13
Q

Two main types of VT:

A

monomorphic VT: most commonly caused by myocardial infarction
polymorphic VT: A subtype of polymorphic VT is torsades de pointes which is precipitated by prolongation of the QT interval. The causes of a long QT interval are listed below

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14
Q

Management of VT?

A

Management

If the patient has adverse signs (systolic BP < 90 mmHg, chest pain, heart failure or rate > 150 beats/min) then immediate cardioversion is indicated. In the absence of such signs antiarrhythmics may be used. If these fail, then electrical cardioversion may be needed with synchronised DC shocks

Drug therapy
amiodarone: ideally administered through a central line
lidocaine: use with caution in severe left ventricular impairment
procainamide

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15
Q

A 72-year-old man presents with lethargy and palpitations for the past four or five days. On examination his pulse is 123 bpm irregularly irregular, blood pressure is 128/78 mmHg and his chest is clear. An ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. What is the appropriate drug to control his heart rate?

A

B-blocker. A number of factors including age and symptoms would favour a rate control strategy. The NICE guidelines suggest either a beta-blocker or a rate limiting calcium channel blocker (i.e. Not amlodipine) in this situation. Some clinicians would prefer to use a more cardio-selective beta-blocker such as bisoprolol, although this is not stipulated in current guidelines

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16
Q

Agents used to maintain sinus rhythm in patients with a history of atrial fibrillation

A

sotalol
amiodarone
flecainide
others (less commonly used in UK): disopyramide, dofetilide, procainamide, propafenone, quinidine

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17
Q

Management of a PRIMARY Pneumothorax

A

if the rim of air is < 2cm and the patient is not short of breath then discharge should be considered
otherwise aspiration should be attempted
if this fails (defined as > 2 cm or still short of breath) then a chest drain should be inserted

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18
Q

Secondary pneumothorax

Recommendations include:

A

If the patient is > 50 years old and the rim of air is > 2cm and/or the patient is short of breath then a chest drain should be inserted.
otherwise aspiration should be attempted if the rim of air is between 1-2cm. If aspiration fails (i.e. pneumothorax is still greater then 1cm) a chest drain should be inserted. All patients should be admitted for at least 24 hours

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19
Q

Iatrogenic pneumothorax -

recommendations include:

A

less likelihood of recurrence than spontaneous pneumothorax
majority will resolve with observation, if treatment is required then aspiration should be used
ventilated patients need chest drains, as may some patients with COPD

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20
Q

Left ventricular aneurysm

A

a patient is noted to have persistent ST elevation 4 weeks after sustaining a myocardial infarction. Examination reveals bibasal crackles and the presence of a third and fourth heart sound

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21
Q

Ischaemia of the papillary muscle

A

a patient is noted to have a new early-to-mid systolic murmur 10 days after being admitted for a myocardial infarction

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22
Q

Causes of respiratory alkalosis

A
pulmonary embolism
anxiety leading to hyperventilation
pregnancy
salicylate poisoning (initial stages)
CNS disorders e.g. stroke, subarachnoid haemorrhage, encephalitis
altitude
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23
Q

Causes of respiratory acidosis

A
COPD
opiate overdose
obesity hypoventilation syndrome
neuromuscular disease
life-threatening asthma (decompensated)
benzodiazepines overdose
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24
Q

Drugs CId in asthma?

A

beta-blockers

adenosine

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25
Q

Drugs CId in recent myocardial infarction?

A

metformin
sildenafil
sumatriptan
hydralazine

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26
Q

What soes pulsus paradoxus imply?

A

severe asthma

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27
Q

a 60-year-old man with a history of tuberculosis presents with dyspnoea and fatigue. On examination the JVP is elevated, there is a loud S3 and Kussmaul’s sign is positive. Hepatomegaly is also noted
- stereotypical Hx of?

A

constrictive pericarditis

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28
Q

Stereotypical Hx of left ventricular free wall rupture

A

a patient develops acute heart failure 10 days following a myocardial infarction. On examination he has a raised JVP, pulsus paradoxus and diminished heart sounds

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29
Q

What SE do all these drugs have in common?

levodopa
verapamil
diltiazem
isosorbide mononitrate
bromocriptine
amlodipine
most diuretics (ACE inhibitors, thiazides and loop diuretics)
atracurium
A

hypotension

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30
Q

2 drugs causing bronchospasm?

A

Bronchospasm
beta-blockers
adenosine

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31
Q

Side-effects of b-blockers?

A

bronchospasm
cold peripheries
fatigue
sleep disturbances, including nightmares

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32
Q

Contraindications to b-blockers

A

uncontrolled heart failure
asthma
sick sinus syndrome
concurrent verapamil use: may precipitate severe bradycardia

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33
Q

Indications for b-blockers?

A
angina
post-myocardial infarction
heart failure
arrhythmias
hypertension
thyrotoxicosis
migraine prophylaxis
anxiety
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34
Q

pulse in mixed aortic valve disease?

A

pulsus bisferiens

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35
Q

pulse in PDA?

A

collapsing

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36
Q

Drugs predisposing to gluacoma?

A

corticosteroids

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37
Q

risk of thiazide diuretics for men?

A

impotence

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38
Q

Early diastolic murmur, high-pitched and ‘blowing’ in character (2)?

A

aortic regurgitation

Graham-Steel murmur (pulmonary regurgitation)

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39
Q

Mid-late diastolic murmur, ‘rumbling’ in character (2)?

A

mitral stenosis

Austin-Flint murmur (severe aortic regurgitation)

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40
Q

Lyme disease (Borrelia) effect on ECGs?

A

a prolonged PR interval

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41
Q

Left ventricular anuerysm effect on ECGs?

A

ST elevation

42
Q

SEs of ACEis?

A

cough: occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment.
angioedema: may occur up to a year after starting treatment
hyperkalaemia
first-dose hypotension: more common in patients taking diuretics

43
Q

CIs for ACEis?

A

pregnancy and breastfeeding - avoid
renovascular disease - undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis
aortic stenosis - may result in hypotension
patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) - significantly increases the risk of hypotension

44
Q

Monitoring on ACEis?

A

urea and electrolytes should be checked before treatment is initiated and after increasing the dose
a rise in the creatinine and potassium may be expected after starting ACE inhibitors. Acceptable changes are an increase in serum creatinine, up to 30%* from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l*.

45
Q

6 nephrotoxic drugs?

A
ciclosporin
aminoglycosides
amphotericin B
foscarnet
vancomycin
loop diuretics
46
Q

Sounds heart in aortic stenosis?

A

fourth heart sound
soft S2
reversed split S2

47
Q

4 causes of a loud S1?

A

mitral stenosis
left to right shunts
short PR interval, atrial premature beats
hyperdynamic states

48
Q

Main organism causing IE in patients with no past medical history / prosthetic valves after two months?

A

Streptococcus viridans

49
Q

SEs of amiodarone

A
thyroid problems
Slate-grey appearance
Interstitial lung disease
Corneal deposits
Gynaecomastia
Epididymitis
Peripheral neuropathy
Raised LFT results, rarely jaundice/hepatitis
50
Q

What type of met. change does a PE cause?

A

resp alkalosis

51
Q

What type of met. change does salicylate poisoning cause?

A

salicylate overdose leads to a mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Early stimulation of the respiratory centre leads to a respiratory alkalosis whilst later the direct acid effects of salicylates (combined with acute renal failure) may lead to an acidosis

52
Q

Step 3 of chronic asthma Mx?

A
  1. Add inhaled long-acting B2 agonist (LABA)
  2. Assess control of asthma:
    good response to LABA - continue LABA
    benefit from LABA but control still inadequate: continue LABA and increase inhaled steroid dose to 800 mcg/day* (if not already on this dose)
    no response to LABA: stop LABA and increase inhaled steroid to 800 mcg/ day.* If control still inadequate, institute trial of other therapies, leukotriene receptor antagonist or SR theophylline
53
Q

Step 5 of asthma Rx?

A

Use daily steroid tablet in lowest dose providing adequate control. Consider other treatments to minimise the use of steroid tablets

Maintain high dose inhaled steroid at 2000 mcg/day*

54
Q

4 features of sarcoid?

A

acute: erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, swinging fever, polyarthralgia
insidious: dyspnoea, non-productive cough, malaise, weight loss
skin: lupus pernio
hypercalcaemia: macrophages inside the granulomas cause an increased conversion of vitamin D to its active form (1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

55
Q

What is Lofgren’s syndrome?

A

an acute form of sarcoidosis characterised by bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), erythema nodosum, fever and polyarthralgia. It usually carries an excellent prognosis

56
Q

What is Heerfordt’s syndrome (uveoparotid fever)?

A

parotid enlargement, fever and uveitis secondary to sarcoidosis

57
Q

What does Carboxyhaemoglobin do to the oxygen dissociation curve?

A

Shifts it to the left

58
Q

Asbestosis typically causes?

A

lower lobe fibrosis. As with other forms of lung fibrosis the most common symptoms are shortness-of-breath and reduced exercise tolerance.

59
Q

Possible features of mesothelioma

A

progressive shortness-of-breath
chest pain
pleural effusion

60
Q

Asbestosis and lung Ca?

A

Asbestos exposure is a risk factor for lung cancer and also has a synergistic effect with cigarette smoke.

61
Q

6 antimuscarinics

A
ipratropium
oxybutynin
benzhexol
procyclidine
benzotropine
tolterodine
62
Q

Wha are methylxanthines?

One example. Problem with their use?

A

eg. theophylline
Non-specific inhibitor of phosphodiesterase resulting in an increase in cAMP
• Given orally or IV
• Has a narrow therapeutic index

63
Q

Causes of lower zone fibrosis? Which conn. tissue disorder is upper zone?

A

cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
most connective tissue disorders (except ankylosing spondylitis)
drug-induced: amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate
asbestosis

64
Q

7 causes of upper zone fibrosis

A
extrinsic allergic alveolitis
coal worker's pneumoconiosis/progressive massive fibrosis
silicosis
sarcoidosis
ankylosing spondylitis (rare)
histiocytosis
tuberculosis
65
Q

3 drugs causing pulmonary fibrosis

A

amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate

66
Q

3 paraneoplastic features of small cell lung Ca?

A

ADH
ACTH - not typical, hypertension, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia, alkalosis and muscle weakness are more common than buffalo hump etc
Lambert-Eaton syndrome

67
Q

3 paraneoplastic features of squamous cell lung Ca?

A

parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rp) secretion causing hypercalcaemia
clubbing
hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)
hyperthyroidism due to ectopic TSH

68
Q

paraneoplastic feature of adenocarcinoma?

A

gynaecomastia

69
Q

Features of silicosis?

A

risk factor for developing TB (silica is toxic to macrophages)
fibrosing lung disease
‘egg-shell’ calcification of the hilar lymph nodes

70
Q

Best Ix for Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

high-resolution CT scan

71
Q

Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

A

(EAA, also known as hypersensitivity pneumonitis) is a condition caused by hypersensitivity induced lung damage due to a variety of inhaled organic particles. It is thought to be largely caused by immune-complex mediated tissue damage (type III hypersensitivity) although delayed hypersensitivity (type IV) is also thought to play a role in EAA, especially in the chronic phase.

72
Q

Examples of EAA?

A

bird fanciers’ lung: avian proteins
farmers lung: spores of Saccharopolyspora rectivirgula (formerly Micropolyspora faeni)
malt workers’ lung: Aspergillus clavatus
mushroom workers’ lung: thermophilic actinomycetes*

73
Q

Presentation of EAA?

A

acute: occur 4-8 hrs after exposure, SOB, dry cough, fever
chronic: similar but more insidious

74
Q

Investigation of EAA?

A

chest x-ray: upper/mid-zone fibrosis
bronchoalveolar lavage: lymphocytosis
blood: NO eosinophilia

75
Q

Which drugs are non-specific inhibitors of phosphodiesterase resulting in an increase in cAMP

A

Methylxanthines

76
Q

What is expiratory reserve volume?

A

maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration

77
Q

What is physiological dead space (VD)?

A

VD = tidal volume * (PaCO2 - PeCO2) / PaCO2

where PeCO2 = expired air CO2

78
Q

How does ipratropium work?

A

Blocks the muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
• Short-acting inhaled bronchodilator. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
• Used primarily in COPD
• Tiotropium has similar effects but is long-acting

79
Q

Benzo overdoses -> what kind of pH abnormality?

A

resp acidosis

80
Q

which lung cancer can cause hypercalcaemia 2’ to PTHrp?

A

squamous cell

81
Q

An elderly patient presents with watery diarrhoea after being treated for pneumonia. Blood tests show a new, marked neutrophilia is a stereotypical history for gastroenteritis caused by

A

C. diff

82
Q

clari for which type of pneumonia?

A

Caused by atypicals

83
Q

Initial empirical therapy of meningitis (aged < 3 months)?

A

intravenous cefotaxime + amoxicillin

84
Q

Miningitis pathogens in <3 month olds

A

Group B Streptococcus (most common cause in neonates)
E. coli
Listeria monocytogenes

85
Q

What does HbeAg presence imply?

A

HbeAg results from breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells as is therefore a marker of infectivity

86
Q

What does HBsAg normally imply?

A

acute disease (present for 1-6 months). If >6mo, chronic/infectious disease.

87
Q

Results if previous hepatitis B, now a carrier:

A

anti-HBc positive, HBsAg positive

88
Q

Which organism can cause pneumonia in people aged > 60 years or 0 - 3 months

A

Listeria m.

89
Q

Basics of bronchiolitis?

A

respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is the pathogen in 75-80% of cases
other causes: mycoplasma, adenoviruses
may be secondary bacterial infection
more serious if bronchopulmonary dysplasia (e.g. Premature), congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis

90
Q

SIGN suggested the following criteria for referral to hospital in bronchiolitis?

A
poor feeding (< 50% normal)
lethargy
apnoea
respiratory rate > 70/min
nasal flaring or grunting
severe chest wall recession
cyanosis
oxygen saturation < 94%
uncertainty regarding diagnosis
91
Q

Ix of bronchiolitis

A

immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV

92
Q

Abx for gonorrhea?

A

Intramuscular ceftriaxone + oral azithromycin

93
Q

When is phenoxymethylpenicillin used?

A
erysipelas
throat infections (requiring antibiotics)
94
Q

What does H. influenzae cause?

A

infective exacerbation of COPD
exacerbation of bronchiectasis
acute epiglottitis

95
Q

Basic facts about staphylococci

A

Gram-positive cocci
facultative anaerobes
produce catalase

96
Q

What causes skin infections (e.g. cellulitis), abscesses, osteomyelitis, toxic shock syndrome?

A

S. aureus

97
Q

What is coagulase-negative and causes central line infections and infective endocarditis

A

S. epidermidis

98
Q

Abx for bacterial vaginosis

A

oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin

99
Q

An elderly patient presents with fever and a cough productive of ‘rusty’ coloured sputum. On examination there is dullness at the right base of the lung and bronchial breathing - pathogen?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

100
Q

Rx of chlamydia?

A

doxycycline or azithromycin

101
Q

A 20-year-old man presents in summer with gradually worsening flu-like symptoms and a dry cough. On examination he is noted to have erythema multiforme is a stereotypical history of:

A

mycoplasma