Cardio and Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

ASD

A

Split S2

Common with Down
syndrome and Endocardial cushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

PDA

A

Holosystolic machine murmur

Common with rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Rubella

A

Toga Virus
+sens RNA
Ear rash common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

VSD

A

Holosystolic murmur at LSB
Common with fetal alcohol syndrome

Increase murmur with hand grip and inspriation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Coarctation of Aorta

A

Upper limbs have different bp than lower limbs

common with turner syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aortic stenosis

A

Systolic ejection click
Crescendo-decrescendo murmur

radiates to carotids

Bicuspid aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Aortic regurg

A

Early diastolic blowing murmur

LSB
Infective endocarditis or syphilitic aneurysm

Widened pulse pressure, bobbing head

Heard best when lean over and expire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MVP

A

Mid systolic click then regurg murmur

Infectious endocarditis, marfans, polycystic kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mitral regurg

A

Holosystolic blowing murmur best heard at apex

S3 gallop (LV failure) best heard at left lateral decubitus position

Radiates to axilla

louder with squat or expiration

occlusion of posterior descending artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mitral stenosis

A

Opening snap then diastolic rumble (apex)

Rheumatic fever
Increased wedge pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tricuspid regurg

A

IV drug
Blowing holosystolic murmur (LSB)

Intensified by inspriation and reduced when standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Post MI 1 day

A

Arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Post MI 3-5 days

A

Free wall rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Post MI 1-3 weeks

A

Dressler (fibrovascular proliferation of granulation tissue with new fascularization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Descending aorta is ____ to esophagus

A

posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Left atrium is ____ to esophagus

A

anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

TOF

A

Abnormal migration of neural crest cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

60 year old with aortic stenosis mostly likely from

A

bicuspid aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Leads II, III, AVF

A

RCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lead I-IV

A

LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pericarditis

A

Chest pain relieved by leaning forward

friction rub
pleuritis chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

S4

A

LV hypertrophy

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A fib

A

commonly missing P waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Kawasaki disease

A
  1. 3 years . old
  2. conjunctivitis
    3 inflamed tongue
  3. desquamating skin on palms

Coronary artery aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

N at carotid sinus

A

Glossopharyngeal

expansion leads to reflex vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When does myocardium receive blood?

A

diastole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Drug user with TC insufficiency

A

MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cardiac tamponade

A
  1. after trauma
  2. JVD
  3. Tachy
  4. Muffled heart sounds
  5. Pulsus paradoxus (decreased BP with inspiration)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

3rd aortic arch

A

common carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

RF causes death by

A

myocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Downs cardiac defect

A

ASD (Ostium primum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

DiGeorge syndrome cardiac defect

A

TOF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Friederich Ataxia cardiac defect

A

Hypertophic cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Marfan syndrome cardiac defect

A

Mistral valve prolapse (cystic medial necrosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Tuberous sclerosis cardiac defect

A

Valvular obstruction from cardiac rhabdomyoma

36
Q

Turners syndrome cardiac defect

A

Coarctation of aorta

37
Q

Pituitary adenoma derived from

A

surface ectoderm

38
Q

Bitemporal hemianopsia

A

Optic chiasm compression

Pit adenoma common cause

39
Q

Prolactinoma

A
  1. Galactorrhea
  2. Amenorrhea
  3. deceased libido due to decreased GnRH from negative feedback loop

tx: Dopamine agonists Bromocrytptine

40
Q

Cushing disease

A

Increased ACTH

41
Q

Hypopituitarism

A

Carniopharyngioma (children)

Sheehan syndrome

42
Q

Sheehan syndrome

A

Pregnant pit doubles in size and is unable to get enough blood, therefore ischemic necrosis occurs

Lack of lactation and loss of pubic hair

43
Q

Posterior pituitary produces

A

ADH

Oxytocin

44
Q

ADH is produced and stored in

A

Supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of hypothalamus

45
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

No ADH or no response to ADH

Water deprivation test . will not increase urine osm

Test: Exogenous ADH
Improvement: central

46
Q

Nephrogenic DI

A

common with lithium in bipolar patients

47
Q

Primary polydyopsia

A

In schitzophrenic patients

Water deprivation causes an increase in urine osm

48
Q

SIADH

A

Commonly leads to seizures

Causes:

  1. small cell carcinoma
  2. Cyclophosphamide
  3. Chlopropamide

Treatment: demeclocine (tetracycline analog)

Urine osm >100

49
Q

Thyroglossal duct cyst

A

Failed to involute from phyarnx

Anterior midline mass that moves with swallowing

4th pharyngeal pouch

50
Q

Lingual thyroid

A

Thyroid tissue at base of tongue due to failure of migration

51
Q

Hyperthyroid

A

Heat intolerance, palpitations, tremor, fatigue

Primary: graves
Secondary: Pit adenoma secreting TSH

52
Q

Grave disease

A

Antibody activates TSH receptor

Exophthalmos from fibroblast secreting GAG and pretibial myxedema

53
Q

Treatment of hyperthyroid

A
  1. beta blocker (decreases conversion of peripheral T4, tx of symptoms)
  2. PTU (inhibits TPO and peripheral conversion of T4)
  3. KI (prevents thyroid absorption of radioactive isotope via competitive inhibition)
54
Q

Hashimoto

A

Autoimmune
HLA DR5

Antimicrosomal AB and anti TPO ab

Increased risk of papillary carcinoma

55
Q

Subacute (granulomatous) hypothyroid

A

Post viral (coxsackie or adenovirus)

Multinucleated giant cells
Increased ESR

56
Q

Goiter

A

Due to iodine deficiency

Hypothyroid

57
Q

Cretinism

A

Def of thyroid peroxidase

Short, coarse face, enlarged tongue

58
Q

Papillary carcinoma

A
  1. Psamomma bodies
  2. RET mutation
  3. Prognosis depends on age and gender
59
Q

Medullary carcinoma

A

Prolifferation of parafoll C cells

Increased calcitonin

Congo red amyloid

MEN 2a + 2b (RET)

60
Q

Gestational diabetes

A

Decreased activity of glucokinase due to HPL

Macrosomia
Transient hypoglycemia of newborn

61
Q

MEN 1

A

Pit adenoma
Parathyroid tumor
Pancreatic tumor (gastrinoma)

62
Q

MEN 2a

A

Parathyroid tumor
Pheo
Medullary carcinoma of thyroid

63
Q

MEN 2b

A

Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
Oral neuromas
Marfanoid habitus

64
Q

Primary Hypter PTH adenoma

A

High Ca2+ (kidney stones)

65
Q

PTH receptor

A

cAMP and increase alkaline phosphatase

66
Q

Secondary hyperPTH

A

renal failure

Increased PTH, Low Ca

Increased PO4

67
Q

HypoPTH

A
  1. Due to damage during thyroid surgery
  2. DiGeorge

Decrease Ca -> muscle spasm

68
Q

Type 1 dm

A
  1. Autoimmune destruction of Beta cells by T cells
  2. Auto ab to glutamic acid decarboxylase
  3. Islet leukocyte infiltrate
    4 HLA-DR3-4
  4. DKA
69
Q

DKA labs

A

Low Na, Cl, HCO3,

High: sumer K, glucose

70
Q

Type IIDM

A
  1. Glomerulosclerosis of kidneys
  2. aldose reductase -> free radical injury and cataract
  3. sensation impairment pacinian carpuscle
  4. prognosis depends on waist:hip ratio
71
Q

Insulinoma

A
  1. hypoglycermia
  2. decreased glucose, increased c peptide

Mimmiced by sulfonureas

72
Q

Glucagonoma

A
  1. Migratory erythema
  2. hypoglycemia
  3. achlorhydria (absence of hydrochloric acid in gastric secretions)
  4. watery diarrhea
  5. anemia
73
Q

Cushin’s syndrome

A
  1. adrenal adenoma
  2. one large gland
  3. Decreased CRH, Increased ACTH and cortisol

decreased with dexomethason

74
Q

Conn syndrome

A

hyperaldosteronism

HTN
Low K
Low renin

Principal cells reabsorb Na, secrete K
Secrete H+ and exchange it for HCO3

75
Q

Right adrenal drains into

A

IVC

76
Q

Waterhouse friederichson syndrome

A
  1. necrosis of both adrenals
  2. n. meningitidis
  3. petechial rash, fever, neck rigidity
77
Q

Treatment of virilizaiton

A

Spironolactone

78
Q

VHL

A

mut of chr 3

  1. cerebella hemangioma
  2. hemangioblastoma
  3. retinal issue
  4. pheochromocytoms
  5. high risk renal cell carcinoma
79
Q

Renal cell carcinoma

A

Increased EPO and Hct

80
Q

Pheo

A
Chromaffin cell (neural crest cell)
makes catecholamines

Men2a and 2b
VHL NF-1

81
Q

Smooth ER

A

Makes steroid

detox

82
Q

Addisons

A

Low Cortisol (adrenal insufficiency)
Increased ACTH
Hypotension, low K, fatigue, skin pigmentation

83
Q

Methimazole

A

Agranulocytosis

84
Q

Calcitonin secreted by

A

Parafollicular c cells

85
Q

Estrogen effect on thryroid

A

Increased thyroid binding globulin to T4