Cardiac Diagnostic Testing and Invasive Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

When are cardiac biomarkers used?

A

in the diagnosis and risk stratification of patients with cardiac symptoms. Not necessary for the diagnosis of patients who present with ischemic chest pain and EKGs with ST elevation

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2
Q

What are the cardiac biomarkers?

A

Troponin, Creatinine Kinase, Myoglobin

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3
Q

What is troponin?

A

Protein that is integral to muscle contraction. Troponin I and Troponin T are isolated proteins specific for cardiac muscle. Marker for cardiac muscle cell death

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4
Q

Describe the troponin levels after cardiac insult

A

rises within 2-3 hours and may stay elevated for 10-14 days after event. “Wash out” after thrombolytics will cause significant rise in Troponins

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5
Q

What is creatine kinase?

A

Enzyme found in muscle cells. Elevations can be indicative of injury, rhabdomyolysis, MI, myositis, myocarditis. in hypothyroidism when T3 is low, CK becomes elevated. statins can increase CK.

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6
Q

What are the 3 isoenzymes of creatine kinase?

A

CK-MM (skeletal muscle and heart), CK-MB (Heart), CK-BB (Brain)

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7
Q

Describe CK-MB levels after cardiac insult

A

Noted at 4-6 hours after onset of symptoms. Peaks at 24 hours and normalizes in 48-72 hours

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8
Q

How does the CK-MB/CK relative index help determine cardiac vs skeletal muscle injury?

A

Calculated by the ratio of CK-MB to the total CK. Ratio less than 3 = skeletal muscle source. Ratio greater then 5 = cardiac source

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9
Q

Describe myoglobin levels after cardiac insult?

A

rises 2-4 hours after onset of infarction. Peaks at 6-12 hours. Normalizes in 24-36 hours. Low sensitivity for AMI due to lack of cardioselectivity

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10
Q

What lab tests are used for CV risk assessment?

A

lipid profile, hs-CRP, homocystine

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11
Q

How is an elevated high sensitivity CRP interpretated?

A

2-3 times the risk of MI, stroke, sudden cardiac death and peripheral arterial disease. Stronger predictor of heart disease and stroke than LDL

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12
Q

What is homocystine?

A

Amino acid acquired mostly from meat protein. Elevated levels of homocystine are related to low levels of B6, B12 and folate

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13
Q

What disease processes have been linked to hyperhomocystinemia?

A

Prone to endothelial injury, Blood clots, Heart attack, Stroke, Miscarriage, Pre-eclampsia

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14
Q

What is brain naturetic peptide?

A

Produced by the ventricles and atria in response to an increase in volume and pressure. Stimulates the release of atrial naturetic peptide (Na excretion to decrease body water volume)

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15
Q

How is BNP used as a cardiac diagnostic test?

A

May be helpful in differentiating between CHF and lung disease. Do not use routinely to follow CHF

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16
Q

What is AST (asprtate transaminase)?

A

Enzyme released into the blood when certain organs or tissues, particularly the liver and heart, are injured. Used for evaluation of liver disease

17
Q

What is LDH (lactate dehydrogenase)?

A

Found extensively in body tissues, such as blood cells and heart muscle and is released during tissue damage

18
Q

How is LDH-1 used as a cardiac diagnostic test?

A

Not useful for the diagnosis of MI. Elevated in hemolytic anemia (may check if a pt has valve disease and anemia)

19
Q

What are the different types of cardiac stress tests?

A

Regular exercise stress test (treadmill only). Nuclear stress test (Cardiac perfusion images plus treadmill). Stress echo (Cardiac images to assess wall motion plus treadmill). Pharm agents used for those who can’t excercise

20
Q

What are contraindications to stress testing?

A

acute MI, unstable angina, acute pericarditis, acute systemic illness, severe aortic stenosis, CHF exacerbation, severe HTN, uncontrolled arrhythmias

21
Q

What pharmacologic agents can be used for stress testing?

A

Adenosine* or persantine (potent vasodilators). Dobutamine (positive inotropic and chronotropic agent) and is only agent that can be used for a stress echo

22
Q

How are stress echos used?

A

Detect wall motion abnormalities, lack of thickening of the LV with stress, reduced EF with stress. Not great for existing LBBB. May be limited by obesity or hyperinflation of the lungs

23
Q

What information does an echo provide about cardiac structure and function?

A

Chamber size, muscle thickness, Ejection fraction, wall motion, Aortic root size, Valve structure and function, Intracardiac blood flow (shunts, pressures)

24
Q

When is a transesophageal echo used?

A

Intracardiac thrombus prior to direct current cardioversion, Valve function in ORs, Endocarditis

25
Q

What is the difference between a holter monitor and an event montor?

A

holter monitor is worn for 24 hrs. patient records activities and sx. event monitor worn for a month. patient triggers the monitor to record during sx.

26
Q

What are ambulatory cardiac monitors used to asses?

A

Palpitations, assess rate control or determine percent of atrial fibrillation, syncope, suspected bradycardia, suspected or known arrhythmias

27
Q

What are electrophysiologic studies (EPS)?

A

Records an internal EKG. Defines conduction system disease. Attempts to induce arrhythmias (SVT and VT). Measure response to pharmacologic and/or pacing device intervention

28
Q

What are electrophysiologic studies (EPS) indicated for?

A

Unexplained syncope, Survivors of sudden cardiac death that was not related to an ischemic event, Palpitations preceding syncope, Poorly tolerated episodes of SVT

29
Q

What is balloon angioplasty?

A

balloon catheter is advance through artery until the tip is beyond the narrowing. balloon is inflated and once plaque has been compressed it’s deflated and removed

30
Q

What is the post-op treatment plan for angioplasty?

A

with or without stent placement aspirin for life. with stent placement with also need Plavix for 6-12 months

31
Q

When is a transcutaneous pacemaker recommended?

A

for the initial stabilization of hemodynamically significant bradycardia until transvenous pacing or other therapies can be applied

32
Q

What are indications for a pacemaker?

A

Sick sinus syndrome, Symptomatic sinus bradycardia, Tachy-brady syndrome, Afib with slow ventricular response, 3rd degree heart block, Chronotropic incompetence (Inability to increase heart rate to match exercise), Prolonged QT syndrome

33
Q

When is a biventricular pacemaker recommended?

A

advanced heart failure. The combination of three leads creates a synchronized pumping of the ventricles. May increase EF

34
Q

When are the indications for ICDs?

A

Primary prevention in pt’s with EF less than 35%.

Secondary prevention for history of sudden cardiac death, VT or VF.

35
Q

What is pacemaker syndrome?

A

Patient feels worse after pacemaker placement and presents with progressive worsening of CHF symptoms due to loss of atrioventricular synchrony