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Other/Mixed > CAP Year 4 > Flashcards

CAP Year 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the management of a patient identified as MRSA positive on routine screening?

A 
Daily skin washing
Single room
PPE for staff
Clean furniture and equipment
No antibiotics
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2
Q

What is the most common cause of reiters syndrome?

A

Chlamydia

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3
Q

What are the clinical features of carotid artery stenosis?

A

Ischaemic attacks e.g. amarosis fugax

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4
Q

What is the management of carotid artery stenosis?

A

Anti-platelet medication

If high grade >70% - carotid endarterectomy

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5
Q

How do you calculate the number of units in 1 litre of alcohol?

A

In 1 litre - % alcohol =no. of units

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6
Q

What is the first line treatment for intermittent claudication?

A

Life style modification

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7
Q

Is Olanzapine safe in pregnancy?

A

Yes

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8
Q

When is ECT indicated in depression?

A

Emergency presentations of severe depression where life is at risk

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9
Q

Management of viral gastroenteritis in children?

A

Advice re Hydration and fluid intake

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10
Q

When should a patient with bronchiolitis be admitted?

A

When they have low saturations

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11
Q

What drug can be used in Hyponatraemia cause by SIADH where fluid restriction is unsuccessful?

A

Demeclocycline

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12
Q

What are the two functions of parathyroid hormone?

A

Increases calcium levels by increased reabsorption from the kidneys
Increases conversion of Vitamin D to 1,25 hydroxy vitamin D which increased calcium absorption from the gut

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13
Q

Signs of WARMD?

A

Neovascularisation and haemorrhage at the macula with eventual scarring.

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14
Q

What is Addison’s?

A

Auto immune adrenal failure

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15
Q

Why does Addison’s cause tanning of skin?

A

Additions has low cortisol and high ACTH.

ACTH comes from a pro-hormone which also makes melanocyte stimulating hormone

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16
Q

How can diagnosis of polymyositis be made?

A

Muscle biopsy

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17
Q

What is the most common causative organism of pneumonia?

A

Step pneumonia which is gram positive diplococci

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18
Q

What is the most common cause of encephalitis?

A

Herpes simplex

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19
Q

Which 3 groups are more likely to be affected by listeria?

A

Neonates
Elderly
Immunocompromised

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20
Q

What is the least teratogenic anti-epileptic for women of child bearing age?

A

Lamotrigine

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21
Q

What does delay of femoral pulses in a new born suggest?

A

Coarction of the aorta

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22
Q

What are defensins?

A

Small cysteine rich cationic proteins that bind to microbial cell membranes and asset in killing cells

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23
Q

What is seen on biopsy in dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

Granula IgA at the dermal papillae

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24
Q

What fluid management should be given in severe pre-eclampsia?

A

Fluid restriction due to poor renal function. 80mls NaCL if urine output low - measure output.

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25
Q

What is the long term management of SIADH?

A

Long term fluid restriction

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26
Q

Name 1 common cause of SIADH?

A

Lung cancer

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27
Q

What fluid management should be given in acute dehydration e.g. gastroenteritis?

A

Rapid replacement using an isotonic crystalloid e.g. IV NaCl 500ml per 30 minutes

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28
Q

Serum iron, reticulocytes and lactate dehydrogenase in acute haemolysis?

A

Serum iron - normal
Reticulocytes - increased
Lactate dehydrogenase - Increase

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29
Q

Iron and ferritin in anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Iron - normal

Ferritin - increased

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30
Q

When are hyperhsegmented neutrophils with macrocytosis seen?

A

In B12 or folate deficiency

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31
Q

Which paediatric condition presents with bile stained vomit?

A

Volvulus

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32
Q

Which condition presents in young babies with projectile vomiting and a hungry child?

A

Pyloric stenosis

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33
Q

What are the signs of reflux in babies?

A

Small vomits after every feed, infant otherwise well

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34
Q

In which bone is the trochlea?

A

The frontal bone

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35
Q

What is a common cause of dermatofibromas?

A

Insect bites - feel firm on palpation

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36
Q

What is the definition of bowens disease?

A

Full thickness epidermal dysplasia and a pre-cursor to SCC development

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37
Q

What % of prostate cancer cases have locally advanced and metastatic disease at presentation?

A

65%

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38
Q

What the most important complication of thyroidectomy?

A

Damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve - hoarseness of voice

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39
Q

What type of medication can be used for urge incontinence?

A

Anti-cholinegric

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40
Q

How is the dose of acetylcysteine calculated?

A

Based on weight

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41
Q

What is the gold standard test for confirming placement of an endotracheal tube?

A

End tidal CO2

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42
Q

What type of murmur is aortic stenosis?

A

Ejection systolic murmur

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43
Q

What type or murmur is heard in aortic regurgitation and mitral stenosis?

A

Diastolic murmur

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44
Q

What sort of murmur is heard in mitral and tricuspid regurgitation?

A

Pan systolic murmurs

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45
Q

Which statistical test compares two proportions?

A

Fishers exact

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46
Q

Which statistical test compares two matched samples?

A

Paired t-test

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47
Q

Symptoms of laryngopharyngeal reflux?

A

Hoarseness, sore throat, cough

48
Q

What is the name for a severe acute superficial desquamating eruption often secondary to a drug?

A

Toxic epidermal necrolysis

49
Q

First line treatment for a partial seizure?

A

Lamotrigine or carbamazepine

50
Q

Neutrophile and lymphocytes - viral or bacterial?

A

Neutrophils - bacterial

Lymphocytes - viral

51
Q

What condition is SPECT useful in diagnosing?

A

Lewy body dementia

52
Q

How long does a compulsory treatment order allow detention for?

A

6 months

53
Q

First line depression treatment?

A

SSRI e.g. citalopram

54
Q

Where is JAK2 gene mutation seen?

A

In myeloproliferative polycythaemia

55
Q

In what condition is the Philadelphia chromosome seen?

A

Chronic myeloid leukaemia - reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22

56
Q

Which drug does Phenytoin reduce the effectiveness of?

A

Contraceptives

57
Q

What type of drug is amlodipine?

A

Calcium channel blocker

58
Q

What is the first line treatment for hypertension in someone over 55, or afrocarribean origin?

A

Calcium channel blocker

59
Q

What is the first line treatment for paroxysmal AF?

A

Bisoprolol

60
Q

What type of drug is Amiodarone?

A

Anti-arrythmic

61
Q

What type of drug is Hydralazine and what is it used for?

A

Vasodilator - severe hypertension

62
Q

Name 3 indications for digoxin?

A

AF, atrial flutter, heart failure

63
Q

Name 1 important side effect of digoxin?

A

Gynaecomastia

64
Q

Over what weight is the COCP contraindicated?

A

BMI >39

65
Q

Is the POP contraindicated in high BMI?

A

No

66
Q

What two blood markers are raised in GCA?

A

ESR and PV

67
Q

What is Atropine used for?

A

Used to correct bradycardia and heart block

68
Q

Why might patients become bradycardia during ocular surgery?

A

Oculocardiac reflex

69
Q

What is the first line treatment of sudden AF in an unstable patient?

A

Cardioversion

70
Q

What drug is used for intra-operative hypotension?

A

Metaraminol

71
Q

What is adenosine used for and how does it work?

A

Used for SVT - causes transient heart block in the AV node

72
Q

Name 3 uses for adrenaline?

A

Cardiac arrest, anaphylaxis, superficial bleeding

73
Q

Name 2 uses for noradrenaline?

A

Low BP and shock

74
Q

What is ephedrine used for?

A

To prevent low BP during spinal anaesthesia

75
Q

What antibodies are present in myasthenia gravis?

A

auto antibodies against post synaptic Act receptors

76
Q

What antibodies are present in Lambert eaton myasthenia syndrome?

A

Auto antibodies against calcium fluxes in pre synaptic calcium channels

77
Q

What intervention do patients with GORD need during anaesthetic?

A

Intubation

78
Q

What are the features of the confinement assessment method?

A

Acute onset and fluctuating course
Inattention
Disorganised thinking
Altered conscious level

79
Q

What treatment is needed in a breast abscess?

A

Aspiration

80
Q

Name 2 symptoms of atypical depression?

A

Hypersomnia and feeling of heaviness in limbs

81
Q

What is the typical pattern of pityriasis Rosea?

A

Herald patch followed by eruption of patches

82
Q

What typically causes a rash of itchy vesicles on extensor surfaces?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

83
Q

What symptom is caused by digoxin toxicity?

A

Blurred vision

84
Q

What baseline bloods should be done before commencing lithium?

A

Baseline U&E’s

85
Q

What nerve root controls leg extension, patellar reflex and ankle dorsiflexion?

A

L4

86
Q

Which endocrine organ is commonly affected by small cell lung cancer mets?

A

Adrenal

87
Q

1:1000 solution, how many grams in mls?

A

1g in 1000ml

88
Q

Are myopic eyes large or small?

A

Large (long)

89
Q

Anti biotic for epiglottitis?

A

Ceftriaxone

90
Q

Investigation for PE?

A

CTPA

91
Q

Function of cyclizine?

A

Anti emetic - will slow gut, constipating

92
Q

Function of ondansetron?

A

Prevent nausea and vomiting caused by chemo, causes constipation

93
Q

Uses for Levomepromazine?

A

Anti emetic used in palliative care

94
Q

Function of Metoclopramide?

A

Helps with emptying of stomach used for nausea and vomiting

95
Q

What is the target INR for someone with recurrent DVT/PE or an artificial valve?

A

3.5

96
Q

What drug should be used for anti coagulation in patients with a prosthetic valve?

A

Warfarin - NOAC’s not licensed

97
Q

Name 2 risk factors for necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Prematurity
IUGR
Absent end diastolic flow of placenta
Hypoxic insult

98
Q

What is the investigation of choice for suspected spinal cord compression?

A

Whole spine MRI

99
Q

What are the symptoms of vasa previa?

A

Small intrapartum bleed following Rom and severe fetal distress

100
Q

What is the first choice sulfonylurea?

A

Gliclazide

101
Q

Which oral diabetic drug causes diarrhoea?

A

Metformin

102
Q

What should you prescribe 2nd line for a diabetic patient who is a HGV driver?

A

TZD (sulfonylurea has a hypo risk)

103
Q

What is the treatment of choice for an oesophageal stricture?

A

Balloon dilation

104
Q

What is the treatment of achalasia in a fit person?

A

Hellers cardiomyotomy

105
Q

1st line investigation in ?bowel perforation?

A

Erect CXR

106
Q

What effect does parasympathetic have on the detrusor muscle?

A

Contraction - aiding bladder voiding

107
Q

What effect does sympathetic have on the detrusor muscle?

A

Relaxes - inhibits urge to void

108
Q

What is the most common for poisoning?

A

Campylobacter

109
Q

What treatment must be tried before commencing clozapine in schizophrenia?

A

2 different anti psychotics

110
Q

What are the symptoms of a varicocele?

A

none - usually painless

111
Q

What is the most common cause of encephalitis and what lob does it most commonly affect?

A

Herpes simplex - temporal lobe

112
Q

Important cause of bilious vomiting in newborn?

A

Malrotation and volvulus - X-ray

113
Q

What is an important cause of projectile vomiting in a baby that is weeks old?

A

Pylori stenosis - USS

114
Q

What is a normal urinary volume and 24 hour volume?

A

400ml and 2 litres

115
Q

Up to what level of blood loss is BP maintained?

A

30%

116
Q

What is the abnormality in di George syndrome?

A

deletion in chromosome 21 - heart defects, cleft lip

117
Q

What hormone trigger ovulation?

A

LH

Other/Mixed (5 decks)

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