CAP 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What psychiatric condition are patients with velocardiofacial syndrome more at risk of?

A

Schizophrenia

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2
Q

When is breast cancer screening done?

A

50-70 every 3 years

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3
Q

When is bowel cancer screening done?

A

50-74 every 2 years in Scotland

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4
Q

When is diabetic eye screen done?

A

In diabetic patients over 12 every year

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5
Q

What is galanatamine?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitor

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6
Q

What artery is at risk in lateral abdominal port?

A

Inferior epigastric

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7
Q

What artery is anatomically close to lower end of ureter?

A

Uterine artery

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8
Q

How is hep A spread?

A

Fecal oral

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9
Q

What is the first area affected in alzheimers?

A

Nucleus baseless of meynert

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10
Q

What is the feature of early stage diabetic nephropathy?

A

Proteinuria

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11
Q

What is p53 and why is it important?

A

It is a tumour suppressor - if it mutates if may not function in cancer

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12
Q

At what stage does an embryo implant?

A

Blastocyst

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13
Q

What happens to Blood pressure in pregnancy?

A

Decreases in 2nd trimester - returns to normal in 3rd

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14
Q

What happens to CO and GFR in pregnancy?

A

Increase by 30-50%

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15
Q

What happens to vital capacity in pregnancy?

A

Nothing

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16
Q

What does of folic acid should obese women take?

A

5mg

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17
Q

What is the difference between dystonia and tardive dyskinesia in terms of time?

A

Dystonia - onset in hours

TD - onset in years

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18
Q

What nerve root is responsible for leg extension, patellar reflex and ankle dorsiflexion?

A

L4

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19
Q

How is wilsons disease inherited?

A

Autosomal recessive

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20
Q

What might a green nipple discharge indicate?

A

Duct ectasia

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21
Q

What condition might trauma to the breast cause?

A

Fat necrosis

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22
Q

What might cause a hot tender breast in an elderly woman?

A

Inflammatory breast cancer

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23
Q

What sort of organism is treponema palladium?

A

Spirochaete

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24
Q

What may happen to phosphate in CKD?

A

Rise

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25
Q

What is seen in urine in UTI - nitrates or nitrites?

A

Nitrites

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26
Q

What other condition is polycystic kidney disease associated with?

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

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27
Q

What is the most abundant antibody?

A

IgG

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28
Q

Which antibody is found in breast milk?

A

IgA

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29
Q

Which antibody is pentameric?

A

IgM

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30
Q

What volume of urine in the bladder causes a desire to void?

A

250mls

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31
Q

Parasympathetic or sympathetic, what causes contraction of detrusor muscle?

A

Para

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32
Q

Name an antibiotic contraindicated in breast feeding?

A

Tetracycline

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33
Q

What is the treatment for gonorrhoea?

A

Azithromycin and ceftriaxone

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34
Q

Which area is affected in receptive aphasia?

A

Wernickes

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35
Q

Which area is affected in expressive aphasia?

A

Broccas

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36
Q

Which area is affected in nominal aphasia?

A

Angular gyrus

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37
Q

Which artery supplies the midgut?

A

Superior mesenteric

38
Q

What condition causes a raised CA125?

A

Ovarian cancer

39
Q

What nerve causes biceps reflex?

A

C5/6

40
Q

What nerve causes ankle reflex?

A

S1

41
Q

What nerve causes knee reflex?

A

L3/4

42
Q

What sort of glomerulonephritis may occur in a young patient after an URTI?

A

IgA nephropathy

43
Q

What is the first step management for asthma?

A

Inhaled short acting beta 2 agonist as required

44
Q

What is step 2 in asthma management?

A

Add inhaled corticosteroid

45
Q

What is step 3 in asthma management?

A

Add inhaled long acting beta 2 agonist

46
Q

What is step 4 in asthma management?

A

Increased steroid dose or add leukotriene receptor antagonists or theophylline

47
Q

What is step 5 in asthma management?

A

Add daily steroid tablet and refer to specialist

48
Q

How do you calculate an odds ratio?

A

(No. with symptoms and exposure/No. with exposure and no symptoms) / (No. with symptoms and no exposure/ No. with no symptoms and no exposure)

49
Q

What % of couples suffer from infertility?

A

15%

50
Q

What bony landmarks is used when administering a pudendal nerve block?

A

Ischial spine

51
Q

When does ovulation occur in relation to the next menses?

A

14 days before

52
Q

At what stage is embryo transfer performed?

A

Blastocyst

53
Q

How many house before ovulation does the LH surge occur?

A

24-36

54
Q

How much does HCG increase by in early pregnancy?

A

Doubles every 48 hours

55
Q

What is athenospermia?

A

Low motility

56
Q

What is teratospermia?

A

Abnormal forms

57
Q

What is a major cause of VIN?

A

HPV 6+11

58
Q

What is the major risk factor for oesophageal cancer?

A

Obesity

59
Q

What happens to the functional residual capacity in pregnancy?

A

Decreases

60
Q

What happens to the contractility of the heart in pregnancy?

A

Increases

61
Q

What does the mesonephric duct become in males?

A

Vas deferens

62
Q

What does the paramesonephric duct in females?

A

Fornix of the vagina

63
Q

Name 2 features of fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Dysplastic kidneys
Ventricular septal defect
Micrognathia and smooth philtrum
Microencephaly

64
Q

What is the ichioanal fossa filled with?

A

Fat

65
Q

What happens to the volume of drug distribution in pregnancy?

A

Increases

66
Q

How do you calculate coverage in a screening programme?

A

Screened pop/eligible pop x100

67
Q

What causes the growth of breast ducts in puberty?

A

Oestrogen

68
Q

What is the rate of breast cancer?

A

1 in 8

69
Q

What is the 1st, 2nd and 3rd line treatment for T2DM?

A

1 - Metformin
2 - Sulphonylureas or TZD
3 - TZD pr DDP4 or GLP-1

70
Q

What is the weight effect of metformin?

A

Causes weight loss

71
Q

What is the weight effect for sulphonylureas?

A

May cause wight gain

72
Q

What is the weight effect for TZD?

A

May cause weight gain

73
Q

What is the weight effect for SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

Causes weight loss

74
Q

Name 1 sulphonylurea?

A

Tolbutamide, glipizide, glibenclamide

75
Q

Name one TZD?

A

“Glitazones”

76
Q

Name 1 SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

Dapagliflozin

77
Q

Name 1 DDP-4 inhibitor?

A

Gliptins

78
Q

Name 1 incretin analogue?

A

Exenatide

79
Q

What is the target HbA1C in T2DM?

A

53mmol/mol

80
Q

What is the target BP in T2DM?

A

140/80mmHg or 130/80 if end organ damage

81
Q

PTH, Ca and Phosphate in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

PTH raised
Ca raised
Phosphate decreased

82
Q

PTH, Ca and Phosphate in secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

PTH raised
Ca decreased
Phosphate raised

83
Q

PTH, Ca, Phosphate in tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

PTH raised
Ca raised
Phosphate decreased

84
Q

What is the cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Solitary adenoma

85
Q

What is the cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Chronic renal failure

86
Q

What is the causes of tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Ongoing hyperplasia following correction of renal disorder

87
Q

What are the symptoms of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

May be asymptomatic

Bones, stones, groans, moans

88
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary

89
Q

What is the second more common types of thyroid cancer?

A

Follicular

90
Q

Which type of thyroid cancer is associated with hashimotos thyroiditis?

A

Papillary